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5th Six Weeks CBA Review

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 3hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

There are four groups of stars on the HR Diagram. About 90% of all stars are in the ________.

a)

Supergiants

b)

Giants

c)

White dwarfs

d)

Main sequence

2.

Based on the data, which star would you presume would have the greatest mass? Hint: The larger the apparent brightness, the brighter the star appears.

a)

Star X

b)

Star Y

c)

Star Z

3.

How can you rearrange the words to match the diagram correctly in terms of sizes in space?

a)

Solar systems in the largest circle, then galaxies, followed by the universe in the smallest circle.

b)

Universe in the largest circle, then galaxies, followed by the solar systems in the smallest circle.

c)

Galaxies in the largest circle, then universe, followed by the solar systems in the smallest circle.

d)

The diagram is already correct.

4.

Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have a lower than average luminosity as well as a higher than average temperature?

a)

Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

5.

Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have a higher than average luminosity as well as a lower than average temperature?

a)

Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

6.

A collection of dust and gas where stars can form is called a...

a)

universe

b)

nebula

c)

black hole

d)

supernova

7.

Our sun is located near the edge of a ______ galaxy, named the _______.

a)

Spiral shaped; Milky Way

b)

Spiral shaped; Solar System

c)

Elliptical shaped; Milky Way

d)

Elliptical shaped; Solar System

8.

Stars are classified on the HR Diagram by...

a)

luminosity and brightness.

b)

temperature and absolute magnitude (or luminosity).

c)

temperature and apparent magnitude.

d)

temperature and distance.

9.

Stars radiate thermal energy through space by a process called _____ where the element _____ is converted into helium.

a)

nuclear fusion; hydrogen

b)

nuclear fusion; lithium

c)

nuclear transfer; hydrogen

d)

nuclear transfer; boron

10.

Which of the following best describes the sun's position in the Milky Way galaxy?

a)

The sun is a giant yellow star located close to the galactic core.

b)

The sun is a medium yellow star located approximately 2/3 of the way down one of the galaxy's spiral arms.

c)

The sun is a dwarf star located at the end of one of the spiral arms.

d)

The sun is a medium yellow star located one light year from the galactic core.

11.

Which statement best describes a galaxy?

a)

A cloud of gas that is the birthplace of stars

b)

A system of billions of stars, gas and dust held together by gravity

c)

A ball of plasma that experiences nuclear fusion in its core

d)

A mass of dust and ice that orbits a star in elliptical pattern

12.

Which statement about stars is correct?

a)

Star formation begins in a nebula.

b)

White dwarfs become main-sequence stars when they gain mass.

c)

Supergiants are stars that can absorb black holes.

d)

Main-sequence stars are formed by comets.

13.

The universe has many different components. Which list places four components of the universe in the most likely order from smallest to largest?

a)

Planets, stars, galaxies, nebulae

b)

Nebulae, stars, planets, galaxies

c)

Galaxies, stars, planets, nebulae

d)

Planets, stars, nebulae, galaxies

14.
a)

Student 1

b)

Student 2

c)

Student 3

d)

Student 4

15.

What part of the life cycle is our sun in?

a)

Super Giant

b)

Nebula

c)

Main-Sequence

d)

Yellow dwarf

16.

What determines which life

cycle path a star takes?

a)

The day the star is "born"

b)

The mass of the star

c)

The color of the star

d)

The type of nebula the star is formed in

17.

What types of stars EXPLODE into a supernova at the end of their life cycle?

a)

Only the smallest stars

b)

Average size stars like the sun

c)

Hyper giants

18.

All stars spend most of their life in which stage of the life cycle?

a)

Main-Sequence

b)

Red Giant

c)

Black hole

d)

White dwarf

19.

How will our sun come to it's end?

a)

Red giant, Red supergiant, white dwarf, black dwarf

b)

Red supergiant, Supernova, black hole

c)

Red Giant, Supernova, neutron star

d)

Red Giant, planetary nebula, white dwarf, black dwarf

20.

What type of stars become a black hole?

a)

White dwarf

b)

Average size stars

c)

Super giants

d)

Hyper giants

21.

Which of the following star types is the BRIGHTEST?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

22.

Which of the following star types is LEAST BRIGHT?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

23.

Which star stage could belong to Spectral Class K and have the lowest luminosity?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

24.

Which star stage could belong to Spectral Class K and have the highest luminosity?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

25.

Select ALL star stages that have greater luminosity than our Sun.

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

26.

Which star stage does our Sun belong to?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

27.

Which star stage is generally the HOTTEST?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

28.

Which star stage is generally the COOLEST?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

29.

Which comparison is correct?

a)

Supergiants are hotter and brighter than White Dwarfs

b)

Supergiants are hotter and less bright than White Dwarfs

c)

Supergiants are cooler and brighter than White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants are cooler and less bright than White Dwarfs

30.

Which comparison is correct?

a)

Giants are brighter than Superigants

b)

Giants are just as bright as Supergiants

c)

Giants are less bright than Supergiants

d)

Giants do not have a brightness

31.

Small chunk of rock falling through planet's atmosphere

a)

comet

b)

meteor

c)

star

d)

asteroid

32.
How can you rearrange the words to match the diagram correctly in terms of size and space?
a)
Solar System in the largest circle, then Nebula, followed by the Galaxies in the smallest circle.
b)
Nebula in the largest circle, then Galaxies, followed by the Solar System in the smallest circle.
c)
Galaxies in the largest circle, then Nebula, followed by the Solar System in the smallest circle.
d)
The diagram is labeled correctly.
33.
Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have lower than average luminosity as well as a higher than average temperature?
a)
Giants
b)
Main Sequence
c)
White Dwarfs
d)
Super Giants
34.
A collection of dust and gases where stars can form is called a:
a)
Galaxy
b)
Nebula
c)
Black Hole
d)
Supernova
35.
Our Sun is located near the edge of a _____ ______ galaxy, named the ____________.
a)
disc shaped, Milky Way
b)
disc shaped, Solar System
c)
elliptical shaped, Milky Way
d)
elliptical shaped, Solar System
36.
Choose the best description of Bernard's star.
a)
Bernard's star is both cooler and brighter than the sun.
b)
Bernard's star is both cooler and dimmer than the sun.
c)
Bernard's star is neither cooler or dimmer than the sun.
d)
Bernard's star is brighter and hotter than the sun.
37.
The sun is not:
a)
a medium size star.
b)
near the edge of a disc-shaped galaxy.
c)
many thousands of times closer to Earth than any other star.
d)
in the center of the Milky Way.
38.
Stars are classified on the HR diagram by:
a)
luminosity & brightness
b)
temperature & absolute magnitude luminosity
c)
temperature & apparent magnitude
d)
temperature & density
39.
What shape is this galaxy?
a)
elliptical
b)
spiral
c)
irregular
d)
obtuse
40.
In the diagram given, what happens as we move to the left?
a)
Stars Get Larger
b)
Stars get Colder
c)
Stars get hotter
41.
Which star is the coldest?
a)
Yellow Star
b)
Red Star
c)
Orange Star
d)
Blue Star
42.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular 
d)
Irrational
43.
Which statement is true about the sun?
a)
It is a star.    
b)
It is the largest star in our galaxy. 
c)
It is a planet close to Earth.
d)
It is a moon. 
44.
 Why does the sun appear so bright in our sky?
a)
The sun is the largest star
b)
Looking at the sun can hurt your eyes  
c)
The sun is the nearest star to Earth 
d)
Clouds make the sun dimmer
45.

A rocky body in orbit around a planet.

a)

Moon

b)

Comet

c)

Meteorite

d)

Nebula

46.

The Milky Way

a)

Star

b)

Moon

c)

Planet

d)

Galaxy

47.
What is the name of the explosion at the death of a massive star?
a)
Supergiant
b)
Supernova
c)
Black Hole
d)
Nebula
48.
______ is a force that causes dust particles to stick together in a nebula.
a)
nuclear fusion
b)
gravity
c)
hydrogen
d)
iron
49.
Which star has the lowest luminosity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
50.

Our sun is in what stage?

a)

planetary nebula

b)

protostar

c)

main sequence

d)

red giant

51.

Why can't we see the entire shape of the Milky Way Galaxy?

a)

Earth is part of the Milky Way

b)

More stars exist outside of the galaxy

c)

the stars in the center are very small

d)

the center of the galaxy is a dense star cluster

52.

This is a model of a galaxy a student made out of sand, each grain of sand would represent-

a)

comet

b)

black hole

c)

asteroid

d)

star

53.

Why does the sun appear brighter than the supergiant star Betelgeuse?

a)

the sun is a different color

b)

the sun is older

c)

the sun is closer

d)

the sun is made of different elements

54.

Scientists detected a small bright object with a fan shaped tail coming close to the sun, what was this object?

a)

asteroid

b)

comet

c)

meteor

55.

The picture is of a galaxy found in the Universe. What is the shape of this galaxy?

a)

Spiral

b)

Elliptical

c)

Obtuse

d)

Irregular

56.
The illustration provided shows four locations in or near the Milky Way Galaxy. Which of the labeled locations shows the approximate position of the Sun?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
57.
How many of the stars visible in the night sky are closer to Earth than to the Sun?
a)
All of them
b)
None of them
c)
About half
d)
Only one
58.

Which wave below has the highest energy?

a)
b)
59.

Which wave below has the lowest energy?

a)
b)
60.

Which color of light has the shortest wavelength?

a)

Red

b)

Orange

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

e)

Blue

61.

Which color of light has the longest wavelength?

a)

Red

b)

Orange

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

e)

Blue

62.

Which wavelength below has the highest energy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
63.

Which wavelength below has the lowest energy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
64.

Which of the following has the highest frequency?

a)
b)
65.

Which of the following has the lowest frequency?

a)
b)
66.

Giant salvinia is an aquatic plant that floats on water and reproduces rapidly. When these plants die, decomposition by bacteria affects oxygen levels in the water. As more plants die, less oxygen is available in the water. Students observe a pond covered by giant salvinia.

Which statement is the best prediction the students can make about the immediate future of the pond?

a)

The depth of the water in the pond will increase.

b)

Fish populations in the pond will begin to decrease.

c)

The amount of bacteria in the pond will suddenly decrease.

d)

The number of different types of plants around the pond will increase.

67.

Plants grow in many different shapes and sizes. Much of their shape depends on an internal structure that is composed of carbon-containing molecules such as cellulose and lignin. Plants that have a strong internal structure can grow larger than other plants because their structure can support their size.

Plants obtain the majority of the carbon necessary for building these structural molecules from —

a)

air

b)

microorganisms

c)

soil

d)

water

68.

A group of scientists studied some trees in a pine forest. In the densely forested areas, the trees were within 1 m of each other. The scientists observed that these trees had dead branches near the ground. They measured the height above the ground at which the first living branches were found on different-sized trees in the forest. Then they repeated this procedure on the same kind of trees in an open meadow. This graph summarizes the scientists’ data.

Which inference is best supported by these data?

a)

Pine trees in a dense forest can grow taller than pine trees in an open meadow.

b)

Pine trees in a dense forest compete for sunlight with the surrounding trees.

c)

Pine trees in a dense forest are part of a less-complex food web than pine trees in an open meadow.

d)

Pine trees in a dense forest have more living branches than pine trees in an open meadow.

69.

Whitetip reef sharks spend most of the day lying on the ocean floor. While remaining still, these sharks pump water across their gills.

The movement of water across their gills is necessary for —

a)

staying cool

b)

accessing food

c)

obtaining oxygen

d)

avoiding predators

70.

A scientist added bacteria and a nutrient medium that could support the growth of the bacteria to a sterilized petri dish. No other materials were added. The graph models growth of the bacteria over time.

Which of these most likely explains why the bacterial population stopped growing?

a)

The bacteria competed for nutrients and died after all the nutrients were consumed.

b)

The bacteria did not reproduce in the system, and eventually each individual died at the end of its life cycle.

c)

The bacteria mutated from photosynthetic to carnivorous organisms and consumed one another until all the individuals were dead.

d)

The bacteria became diseased and were unable to survive in the closed system.

71.

The strangler fig is a vine that starts out as a seed in the tree canopy of the rain forest. It drops its roots down from the canopy to the forest floor.

By sprouting in the rain-forest canopy, the strangler fig seedling is exposed to more

a)

sunlight

b)

soil

c)

nutrients

d)

consumers

72.

Four students were asked to create a graph representing a typical predator–prey relationship. Which graph shows a situation in which the number of predators in a population depends on the number of prey?

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

Black walnut trees produce a nontoxic chemical that becomes highly toxic when it is exposed to air or soil.

How does this chemical help black walnut trees compete with plants growing nearby?

a)

By attracting herbivores to the other plants

b)

By suppressing the growth of the other plants

c)

By increasing the photosynthesis rates in the other plants

d)

By limiting the amount of water available to the other plants

74.

After researching the diets of several birds inhabiting a nearby pond, a student goes on a field investigation to observe the feeding habits of the birds. The student records information from research and observations in the table. The student observes a great blue heron catching fish near the edge of the pond. Based on the information the student collected, which bird will compete with the great blue heron for the same hunting spots and similar prey?

a)

The mallard, because it hunts for fish while wading near the edge of the pond

b)

The pied-billed grebe, because it dives in open water to get crayfish on the bottom of the pond

c)

The great egret, because it hunts in water near the edge of the pond for fish and other prey

d)

None of these

75.

The graph below shows the range of water conditions preferred by three species of fish in an Ozark stream.

Water with which of these conditions would cause the most competition for resources among all three species of fish?

a)

Very cold, very clear, and very fast

b)

Very warm, very clear, and very slow

c)

Mild temperatures, some suspended particles, flows very fast

d)

Mild temperatures, some suspended particles, flows at a medium speed

76.

Barnacles are marine organisms that live attached to surfaces as adults. A scientist studies two barnacle species that live on rocks on a coast in Scotland. In some rocky areas Species A is found alone. In other rocky areas Species B is found alone. In still other rocky areas both species are found together. The diagram below shows the two barnacle species on rocks in their habitats.

If Species B were removed from the rocky areas it shares with Species A, Species A would most likely inhabit —

a)

Zone I only

b)

Zones I and II only

c)

Zone III only

d)

Zones I, II, and III

77.

The Prairies Region and the Cross Timbers are located in north-central Texas. The graph below shows information about eating habits of white-tailed deer in these regions.

A Cross Timbers rancher is concerned about competition between the ranch animals and the deer. Based on the graph, which ranch animals compete for the most food with white-tailed deer?

a)

Cattle that eat grass and feed

b)

Goats that eat weeds and shrubs

c)

Turkeys that eat seeds and fruit

d)

Hogs that eat fruit, seeds, and feed

78.

A scientist named Joseph Connell studied two species of barnacles on the shore of a Scottish island. In the area between the average tide and the neap high tide, he found that the population of Species A was smaller than that of Species B. He removed Species B from one area but left both Species A and B in a similar area. The graph below shows the results of this study.

Based on these data, which hypothesis was Connell most likely testing?

a)

The populations of both species of barnacles increase more in warm water than in cool water.

b)

Barnacles grow larger when they are isolated from other species.

c)

The two species of barnacles compete with each other for resources.

d)

The two species of barnacles are closely related to each other.

79.

Fish in a lake have to compete for space. Different fish have different optimal temperature ranges. The graph below shows the temperature ranges of four fish species.

At which temperature range will there be the most competition for space among these fish species?

a)

5°C to 10°C

b)

10°C to 15°C

c)

15°C to 20°C

d)

25°C to 30°C

80.

The graph below shows the percent of seeds from two plant species that sprout when grown in water containing different amounts of salt.

Which of the following best summarizes the effect of saltwater on these plant species?

a)

Species 1 can sprout only in freshwater, and Species 2 can sprout only in saltwater

b)

Both species can sprout in freshwater and saltwater, but Species 2 can sprout in a higher salt concentration than Species 1.

c)

Both species need salt in their water, but Species 2 needs more salt than Species 1.

d)

Species 1 can sprout only in water with a low salt concentration, but Species 2 is not affected by the salt concentration.

81.

Which organisms in the food web shown above compete for the same food source in this environment?

a)

Grasshoppers and snakes

b)

Hawks and frogs

c)

Frogs and snakes

d)

Decomposers and grasses

82.

The Couch’s spadefoot lives in Texas and has the characteristics listed below.

The Couch’s spadefoot is adapted to a certain type of environment. Which of these resources is most likely scarce in this environment?

a)

Soil

b)

Sunlight

c)

Water

d)

Oxygen

83.
Animals from two different species utilize the same source of nutrition in one area. It is most accurate to say that the animals…
a)
will learn to get along
b)
will compete for food
c)
will die because there will not be enough food for both of them
d)
will learn to eat different foods
84.

This diagram shows the variety of organisms that live in different tide zones. Mussels are common organisms that compete for space in intertidal (middle) tide zones. If all of the mussels were removed from zone A, which organisms would likely compete for the space in Zone A?

a)

Periwinkle and Limpets

b)

Sea lettuce and Chiton

c)

Sea urchins and Hermit crabs

d)

Rock louse and Periwinkle

85.

When the hare population increased, what happened to the lynx population?

a)

It increased.

b)

It decreased.

c)

It stayed the same.

86.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all  _____  parts of the environment
a)
alive
b)
biotic 
c)
abiotic
d)
living
87.
This graph shows ....
a)
When one population inceases, the other decreases. 
b)
When one population decreases, the other inceases. 
c)
When one population increases, the other increases instantly. 
d)
When one population increases, the other increases shortly after. 
88.
Field mice eat corn. Which would most likely happen if the field mouse population grew?
a)
There would be more corn to feed the field mice.
b)
There would be less corn due to the mice eating it.
c)
The habitat would get overpopulated because the mice woudl eat too much.
89.

This graph shows....

a)

when the biotic factor increases the population increases immediately.

b)

the biotic factor constantly decreasing.

c)

the abiotic factor constantly increasing

d)

There is a delay of several months for the population to increase following an increase in the abiotic factor.

90.
An ecological “niche” can be defined as…
a)
The inorganic, nonliving aspects of a given area
b)
The specific environment an organism inhabits
c)
The various habitats an organism may inhabit
d)
The role an organism plays in its ecological community
91.
A foreign insect is introduced into the Texas. It eats a lot of leaves, and trees start to become leafless. Many different animals feed on the new insect, but even they cannot control its numbers. Eventually, trees begin to die. Why would a rapid increase of the new insect population cause certain species of herbivores to vanish or be fewer in number?
a)
They would not have enough to eat. 
b)
They would not have enough space to live.
c)
They would not have tree bark to eat.
92.

What is an organism that is brought into a new habitat and begins to outcompete and threaten the original organisms?

a)

invasive species

b)

a bionic species

c)

big meanie

d)

superbug

93.

Snowshoe hares are related to rabbits and live in cold regions. In warm weather, they have a brown coat and spend many hours feeding on vegetation. To avoid predators they either remain still and try to blend into their habitat, or use their powerful hind legs to flee. What change brought about by the winter season would help these animals avoid predators in the snowy climate?

a)

Their bodies slow down and require less food.

b)

They spend more of the day sleeping.

c)

Their brown fur changes to white.

d)

They must search longer to find vegetation.

94.

A diagram of the anatomy of a catfish is provided. Catfish have dorsal fin spines, which help defend against predators, and caudal fins, which help to propel the fish through the water. A swim bladder controls how high or low the fish sits in the water and gills allow the fish to breathe by taking oxygen out of the water. Catfish spend most of their lives at the bottom of freshwater lakes and streams. What catfish trait may change (over many generations) if the pond habitat in which it lives becomes significantly deeper?

a)

Dorsal fin

b)

Caudal fin

c)

Swim bladder

d)

Gills

95.

The Dead Sea has a salt concentration of 33which makes it inhospitable for aquatic plants and animals. During rainy seasons, the concentration of salt decreases and some kinds of algae begin to grow. What changes could be expected when the salt concentration returns to normal?

a)

Increased algae growth

b)

Plant life flourishes

c)

Algae dies off

d)

Animals return to the area

96.

The Venus Fly Trap (Dionaea muscipula) is a plant, and like all other green plants, gets its energy from the Sun through photosynthesis. This plant, however, catches flies and breaks down their bodies using chemicals to meet its needs. Which environmental condition has led to this adaptation?

a)

Excessive insect populations

b)

Soil with few nutrients

c)

Low atmospheric oxygen

d)

Increased average daily temperatures

97.

Three-toed tree sloths are mammals which live in the jungle trees of Central and South America. The majority of a sloth’s diet consists of leaves and buds from trees. As rainforest habitats are being destroyed, how will these organisms most likely be affected?

a)

Most sloths will become carnivores.

b)

The sloth population will likely decrease.

c)

Some sloths will start to hibernate.

d)

A cave-dwelling population will appear.

98.

Some individuals of the species, Crocodylus niloticus, the Nile Crocodile, have been found living in caves deep underground. The cave dwelling population of crocodiles is thriving, while their counterparts living outside the caves have been almost completely eliminated. Which of the following changes most likely led to these crocodiles relocating to a new habitat?

a)

Temperatures have steadily increased over time.

b)

The food sources of these animals are more scarce.

c)

Expansion of the habitat has led to less competition.

d)

Annual rainfall levels have changed greatly.

99.

Lions and cheetahs prey on wildebeests that graze in the grasslands of the African savanna. What likely effect would increased rainfall over several rainy seasons have on the populations of wildebeests, lions, and cheetahs?

a)

All three populations would increase.

b)

The wildebeests populations would decrease, and the lion and cheetah populations would increase.

c)

The wildebeests would increase, and the lion and cheetah populations would decrease.

d)

All three populations would decrease.

100.

DDT is a pesticide that was once widely used to control agricultural pests and mosquitoes. However, this pesticide caused the eggshells of certain birds, including the brown pelican, to become fragile and thin. The adults would then accidentally crush the eggs while trying to incubate them.

What happened to the brown pelican populations as a result of DDT use by humans?

a)

The populations increased much more slowly

b)

The populations decreased as fewer eggs survived long enough to hatch.

c)

The populations remained stable over time.

d)

The populations increased as pelicans laid more eggs so that more offspring would survive.

101.

Scientists are studying the effects of climate change on the Baltic Sea. Some scientists predict that if current trends continue, the Baltic Sea will become less salty, and it will contain less dissolved oxygen. As a result of these changes, the Baltic Sea will have less biodiversity.

Which statement best explains why biodiversity of the Baltic Sea could decrease if these changes occur?

a)

Fewer types of plants and animals are found in warm water than in cool water.

b)

Plants and animals adapted for living in saltwater will grow more slowly in water that has less salt.

c)

Plants and animals adapated for living in saltier conditions will not be able to survive and reproduce.

d)

Animals adapted for living in warm water will eat all the plants and animals adapted for living in cool water.

102.

the ability of an ecosystem to stay healthy & productive over time

a)

sustainability

b)

environmental change

c)

adaptations

103.

differences between members of the same species

a)

variation

b)

selective breeding

c)

abundance

104.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all  _____  parts of the environment
a)
alive
b)
biotic 
c)
abiotic
d)
living
105.
Due to several days of downpours the rivers have overflowed their banks causing localized flooding.
a)
This is a long term impact.
b)
This is a short term impact.
106.

Causes changes in DNA of the organism causing adaptations.

a)

Short term impact

b)

Long term impact

107.
Affects organism immediately
a)
Short term impact
b)
Long term impact
108.

What is an example of how organisms respond to short term changes in the environment?

a)

Animals tend to eat a lot more.

b)

Animals will hibernate.

c)

Animals must be able to adapt to a new environment.

d)

Animals will go extinct or die due to the short term change.

109.

What kind of environmental change is shown in the picture above?

a)

Short term

b)

Long term

110.

What two environmental changes can be found in this image?

a)

pollution and climate change

b)

climate change and urbanization

c)

deforestation and pollution

d)

urbanization and deforestation

111.

which one of these is a solution that can help resolve/reduce global warming? Select all that apply.

a)

Reuse, Reduce and Recycle!

b)

Share a ride, ride the bus, bike to school!

c)

Plant a tree!

d)

Blow into the air to produce more Carbon Dioxide in order to help plants live longer!

112.
(8.11C) Some scientists studying aquatic plants notice that flooding often leads to a decrease in the rate of photosynthesis among aquatic plants. Flooding causes more sediment to be suspended in the water. The increased sediment concentration decreases the amount of light that reaches the plants. Why does a decreased rate of photosynthesis lead to a decrease in a plant population?
a)
Less water is available for absorption.
b)
Less tissue is available for plant growth.
c)
Less energy is available for reproduction.
d)
Less soil is available for leave development.
113.
Copper compounds are used to control the growth of algae and other aquatic plants. Copper interferes with photosynthesis in these organisms. What would be the most likely result of an accidental spill of these compounds in an aquatic environment?
a)
Fish would grow larger than usual
b)
Zooplankton would increase
c)
Plants would increase in size and decrease in number
d)
The plant populations would be reduced
114.
Which process is responsible for carrying fertilizers that have been applied to crops into bodies of water, such as a river?
a)
Runoff
b)
Evaporation
c)
Ocean Currents
d)
Tectonic Plate movement
115.
What do we call the land area that supplies water to a river system?
a)
runoff
b)
recharge
c)
watershed
d)
valley
116.
What are all the factors that affect the amount of runoff?
a)
area receives, type of soil, shape of land, vegetation
b)
air, water, ice, dirt
c)
type of percipitation , shape of land, vegetation
117.
How can we protect the coral reef even if we don't live near it?
a)
Don't do anything
b)
Go diving and take fish out
c)
Don't throw anything in the ocean
d)
Clean the reefs with soap
118.
Who causes the most damage to coral reefs?
a)
Whales
b)
Fish
c)
Boats
d)
Humans
119.
a man made, underwater structure that promotes the growth of reef dwelling aquatic organisms.
a)
Corral reefs
b)
Artificial reefs
c)
organisms
d)
food
120.
taking more fish out of an ecosystem than can be replaced by the reproductive rates of the remaining populations.
a)
extint
b)
fishing
c)
over fishing
d)
over population
121.
Humans often change ecosystems as a result of population growth, consumption, and technology. Which of the following exemplifies a way in which humans modify ecosystems? 
a)
factory and automotive emissions causing acid rain 
b)
redirecting and storing freshwater behind dams 
c)
cutting down trees to build new buildings and roads 
d)
all of these
122.
Approximately 75 percent of the Earth's surface is covered in water. So why is water considered such a precious resource?
a)
The greenhouse effect is causing most of the world's freshwater to be trapped in the atmosphere
b)
Only a small fraction of the Earth's water is freshwater available for drinking and irrigation
c)
Each year, more freshwater is being trapped in icecaps located at the North and South Poles
d)
Global warming caused by greenhouse gas emissions will likely cause Earth's oceans to evaporate
123.
What do we call the land area that supplies water to a river system?
a)
runoff
b)
recharge
c)
watershed
d)
valley
124.
A manatee is a water-dwelling herbivore on the list of endangered species. If manatees were to become extinct, what would be the most likely result in areas where they had lived?
a)
Certain producer organisms would become more abundant in the area.
b)
Other manatees would move into the area and restore balance.
c)
Predators in the area would have more food to eat.
d)
The area would not be affected.
125.
Scientists are concerned about overfishing of shark populations. Sharks feed on rays and rays feed on scallops. Without sharks, rays consume all the scallop beds. This situation demonstrates that: 
a)
humans can improve an ecosystem by removing predators.
b)
humans can upset an ecosystem by removing species.
c)
reducing the shark population increases the quantity of scallops that can be taken.
d)
sharks are not important for the stability of the ecosystem.
126.
A change in temperature can affect an environment.
a)
True
b)
False
127.
The population size that an environment can feed and support.
a)
Population
b)
Environment
c)
Carry capacity
128.
Overuse of chemical pesticides can cause damage to the soil.
a)
True
b)
False
129.
Currently sharks are on a rapid decline due to overfishing. If sharks go extinct will this affect the biodiversity of the ocean?
a)
No, sharks are not important.
b)
No, sharks will only affect the seal populations.
c)
Yes, it will disrupt the entire food chain in the ocean.
d)
Yes, but only a little.