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Worksheets

EOC Content Focus

Total questions: 197

Worksheet time: 31hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The 3 parts of the Cell Theory are...?

a)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from other cells

b)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of dance and vibes in living things

All cells are destroyed from other aliens

c)

All living things are composed of Jell-O

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from factories in Canada

d)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells do karate and practice eating whole pies in their free time

All cells are produced from other cells

2.

Joe tells Gabby his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtle would drown. I know this because my uncle is a fisherman, and he told me this information. Gabby tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Why does Joe’s idea not meet the requirements to be a scientific theory?

a)

Joe’s idea is already a scientific law.

b)

Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence.

c)

Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments.

d)

Joe and his uncle are not scientists.

3.

Lilly was trying to explain to her friend the difference between a theory and a law in science. She used the theory of plate tectonics and the law of superposition as examples. Lilli explained the difference by using non-scientific language. Which statement could Lilly use to correctly describe the difference between a theory and a law in science?

a)

A theory describes a natural event, while a law explains it.

b)

A theory explains a natural event, while a law predicts it.

c)

A theory explains a natural event, while a law describes it.

d)

A theory predicts a natural event, while a law explains it.

4.

Before a scientific theory is accepted and supported, it has

a)

been tested by only one scientist.

b)

been published in scientific journals.

c)

been tested many times by different scientists.

d)

been approved by the International Committee of Scientists.

5.

What distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell? (How do you tell them apart) Hint: There's 3 ways (Check all 3)

a)

Central Vacuole

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Chloroplasts

6.

Cellular Respiration occurs within me and I am in BOTH plant and animal cells. I am a....

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi Body

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Mitochondria

7.

Photosynthesis takes place within me. I am a...

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Chlorine

d)

Chloroplast

8.

I decide what goes in and out of the cell. I am fluid like and found in BOTH plant and animal cells. I am a...

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Golgi Apparatus

9.

I am found in a plant cell and I provide a "central" and LARGE amount of storage. I am a...

a)

Central Vacuole

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Central Membrane

d)

Mitochondria

10.

Animal and Plant Cells are...

a)

Shopkoytes

b)

Eukaryotes

c)

Prokaryotes

d)

The building blocks of non-living things

11.
Has nucleus
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
12.
Where is the DNA found in a prokaryotic cell? 
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm 
b)
in the nucleus 
13.
Where is the DNA found in a eukaryotic cell? 
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm 
b)
in the nucleus 
14.
Which of the following is a prokaryote?
a)
Animal cell
b)
Bacterial cell
c)
Virus
d)
Plant cell
15.
The major function of ribosomes is to
a)
Make fats
b)
Synthesize protein
c)
Digest protein
d)
Make sugars
16.

Nuclear envelope is found only in those cells that have a nucleus (Duh!). Examples are animal and plant cells which are both

a)

semikaryotic

b)

prokaryotic

c)

eukaryotic

d)

fullkaryotic

17.
Which structures are found in ALL cells?
a)
cell membrane and cytoplasm
b)
chloroplasts and mitochondria
c)
a cell wall and nucleus
d)
chloroplasts and cell wall
18.
 What is the difference between the cell wall and the cell membrane?
a)
There is no difference
b)
The cell membrane is found ONLY in animal cells, whilst the cell wall is found ONLY in plant cells 
c)
The Cell wall is found ONLY in plant cells
d)
The cell wall is found ONLY in animal cells
19.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
20.
A cell membrane has pores that allow certain materials to pass through. This is a type of cell membrane.
a)
Permeable
b)
In high concentration
c)
At equilibrium
d)
In low concentration
21.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.) 
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
22.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
23.

Which enzyme is responsible for unzipping the double helix during DNA replication?

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

24.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides during DNA replication?

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

25.

Replicate the following DNA strand (DNA to DNA): GTA - ATT - CGC

a)

GAT - TAA - GCG

b)

CAT - TAA - GCG

c)

CAT - TAA - GGG

d)

CTT - TAA - GCG

26.

What are three ways that DNA & RNA differ?

a)

DNA has thymine, RNA has uracil

b)

Both are a nucleic acid

c)

The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, the sugar in RNA is ribose

d)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single strand

27.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
28.

DNA replication is semiconservative because it results in two DNA molecules,

a)

each one with two original strands

b)

each one with two new strands

c)

each one with one new strand and one original strand

d)

one with two new strands and the other with two original strands

29.
order of replication
a)
3, 4, 2, 1
b)
3, 1, 4, 2
c)
2, 1, 4, 3
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
30.

DNA replication results in

a)

2 completely new DNA molecules

b)

2 DNA molecules that each contain a strand of the original

c)

1 new DNA molecule and 1 old

d)

1 new molecule of DNA

31.

What type of bond holds the nitrogen bases together?

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

c)

hydrogen

32.

This image is of what?

a)

lipid

b)

nucleotide

c)

amino acid

d)

DNA

33.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

34.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
35.

What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Amino Acids

36.

ATT-TGA-GCC- Original

ATT-GAG-CC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

37.

Original DNA: CAT GAT CCA

New DNA: CAT TGA TCC A

What mutation occurred?

a)

deletion

b)

substitution

c)

tranverse

d)

insertion

38.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
39.
Mutated DNA sequences that can be passed from parent to offspring --
a)
occur in somatic cells (body cells)
b)
occur in gametic cells (sex cells)
c)
are rejected by meiosis
d)
only occur if the parent is exposed to harmful substances
40.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

41.

What do gene mutations change?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Proteins

d)

Lipids

42.

Why are mutations good?

a)

They are random

b)

They are caused by random errors in DNA

c)

They are rare

d)

They are a source of genetic variation

43.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
44.
Which of these lists presents the stages of the cell cycle in the correct order?
a)
interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase
c)
mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis
d)
interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis
45.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
46.

A chromosome is packaged

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

47.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

48.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

49.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

50.

Nuclear membrane breaks down, spindle fibers form describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

51.

Spindle fibers attach, centrioles line chromosomes in the center of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

52.

Centrioles pull the chromosomes apart towards the opposite sides of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

53.

In which phase does a cell spend most of its life?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

54.

for growth and repair

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

55.
Most of the cells in the human body are produced by
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
56.

Ends with diploid number of chromosomes

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

57.

Involves crossing over

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

58.

Produces four cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

59.

involves 1 division of nucleus

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

60.

produces identical daughter cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

61.

forms gametes

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

62.

begins with diploid parent cell

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

63.
the two halves of the doubled chromosome structure 
a)
centromeres
b)
sister chromatids
c)
spindle
d)
tissues
64.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
65.

Looking at your cell cycle drawing, what are the two major parts of the cell cycle?

a)

mitosis

b)

cell division

c)

DNA replication

d)

interphase

66.

What is the order of the phases in interphase?

a)

G1, S, G2

b)

S, G1, G2

c)

G1, G2, S

d)

S, G2, G1

67.

Throughout the cell cycle, there are checkpoints that

a)

inspect the cells to make sure they are developing normally

b)

send the cells to resting states

c)

check on the cells to make sure they are there

d)

inspect the cells for accuracy

68.

These checkpoints are responsible for preventing _____________cells from continuing to make more of themselves.

a)

cancerous

b)

noncancerous

c)

small

d)

good

69.

Whenever the cell cycle malfunctions and the checkpoints cannot control the cells, ________________can develop.

a)

covid

b)

cancer

c)

cure

d)

corona

70.

Cancer refers to

a)

controlled cell growth and replication

b)

garbage

c)

more garbage

d)

uncontrolled cell growth and replication

71.

Tumors (that lead to cancer) can be __________ and ___________

a)

blue and maroon

b)

good, bad

c)

bred, mast

d)

benign, malignant

72.

_____________________is the tumor that can metastasize (spread).

a)

Benign

b)

Malignant

73.

Mutations, toxins, radiation, the sun, and some pathogens are possible ______________for cancer.

a)

causes

b)

helpers

c)

steps

d)

chemicals

74.

Genetic factors such as _______________are a frequent cause of cancer.

a)

mitosis

b)

the sun

c)

mutations

d)

DNA

75.

Can prolonged sun exposure lead to cancer?

a)

Yes

b)

No

76.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
77.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
78.

In anaphase 2, the recombinant chromosome's _______________ ________________ are pulled apart to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

chromatins chromatins

b)

spindle fibers

c)

sister chromatids

d)

sister fibers

79.

In prophase 1, pairs of homologous chromosomes find each other and pair up. What happens next in prophase 1?

a)

The paired up chromosomes exchange DNA parts.

b)

Nothing happens. That is the end of prophase 1.

c)

The chromosomes are separated.

d)

The DNA turns to nucleic acids.

80.
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
a)
It is carried out in all tissues theat require cell replacement
b)
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of an organism
c)
It happens in all of the tissues except the brain and spinal cord
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis
81.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
82.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

e)

Cytokinesis

83.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

e)

Cytokinesis

84.

Enzymes are an example of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

85.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
86.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell.  Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
87.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
88.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
89.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
90.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
91.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
92.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
93.
What is a water molecule composed of?
a)
1 Hydrogen atom and 2 Oxygen atoms
b)
2 Hydrogen atoms and 1 Oxygen atom
c)
3 Oxygen atoms
d)
2 Helium atoms and 1 Oxygen atom
94.
Why can water have no net charge but have slight charges in different parts of the molecule?
a)
The oxygen end is slightly negative and the hydrogen end is slightly positive
b)
The hydrogen end is slightly negative and the oxygen end is slightly positive
c)
The hydrogen and oxygen ends change in polarity
d)
Because it is hydrophobic
95.

The bonds within a molecule of water are _______________ bonds, and the bonds between adjacent molecules of water are ______________bonds.

a)

covalent, ionic

b)

hydrogen, covalent

c)

covalent, hydrogen

d)

ionic, covalent

96.
The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means...
a)
All materials can enter and leave the cell
b)
Certain things can enter while others cannot
c)
The cell manually sorts through all materials
d)
Only certain cells can interact with the cell.
97.
Water is essential for life. Its special properties make water the single most important molecule in plant life. Which of the following properties of water enables it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water expands as it freezes.
b)
Water is an excellent solvent.
c)
Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
d)
Water is able to moderate temperature.
98.

Surface tension is the property of water in which...

a)

water molecules at the surface tend to stick together.

b)

water spills easily.

c)

water tends to be see-through.

99.

Describe COHESION.

a)

Water molecules attracted to other substances.

b)

Water molecules climbing upwards against the force of gravity.

c)

Water molecules dissolving many substances because of its polarity.

d)

Water molecules attracted to other water molecules.

100.

Water is known as the universal __________

a)

solute

b)

solution

c)

solvent

d)

bonder

101.

The substance that does the dissolving is called the

a)

solvent

b)

solute

c)

solution

102.

A biologist is comparing two samples of DNA to find how related the two species are. He is relying on the field of

a)

comparative anatomy

b)

molecular biology

c)

fossil record

d)

biogeography

e)

comparative embryology

103.

A biologist is analyzing leftovers from a hominin species that was recently discovered upon the building of a house. He is relying on the __________________________ to make conclusions about its origin.

a)

comparative anatomy

b)

molecular biology

c)

fossil record

d)

biogeography

e)

comparative embryology

104.

A marine biologist is analyzing the bone structure of a human arm and a whale. She is noticing that the are quite similar in structures, even though they serve different functions. These two structures must be

a)

analogous

b)

vestigial

c)

homologous

d)

heterologous

105.

A whale has a hip joint. What is an explanation for this?

a)

It may be a vestigial structure leftover from an ancestors who actually had hips.

b)

It may be a homologous structure leftover from an ancestors who actually had hips.

c)

It may be a analogous structure leftover from an ancestors who actually had hips.

106.

Choose the correct way to write the scientific name for pigs:

a)

Sus scrofa

b)

Sus scrofa

c)

Sus Scrofa

d)

Susscrofa

107.

Modern classification is based on ______________________________ relationships.

a)

homologous

b)

ecological

c)

genetic

d)

evolutionary

108.

The two-word naming system

a)

binomial naming

b)

binomial nomenclature

c)

monomial nomenclature

d)

dinomial nomenclature

109.

What does "Philip" stand for in "Dear king Philip came over for great spaghetti"?

a)

phobium

b)

philic

c)

phamily

d)

phylum

110.

The broadest, most inclusive level or classification is

a)

class

b)

kingdom

c)

species

d)

domain

111.

How many domains are there?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

1

d)

2

112.

How many kingdoms are there?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

2

d)

4

113.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
114.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
115.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
116.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
117.
Glycerol and fatty acids are the monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
118.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
119.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
120.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
121.
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Nitrogen are elements in what biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic acid
122.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
123.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
124.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
125.

Energy is released from ATP when:

a)

ATP is exposed to sunlight

b)

a phosphate group is broken

c)

adenine bonds to ribose

d)

a phosphate group is added

126.

What are the products of cellular respiration?

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

glucose

e)

energy

127.

In photosynthesis, what are the two products?

a)

water and oxygen

b)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen and glucose

d)

glucose and ATP

128.

The process that releases energy from food in the presence of oxygen is:

a)

fermentation

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

d)

synthesis

129.

The process that produces glucose using sunlight, water and carbon dioxide is:

a)

cellular respiration

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Osmosis

d)

Photosynthesis

130.

Photosynthesis takes place in the

a)

mitochondria

b)

cytoplasm

c)

chloroplast

d)

stroma

131.

In what organelle does cellular respiration take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chromosomes

c)

lysosomes

d)

nucleus

132.

Why does aquatic life benefit from water's property of expansion upon freezing?

a)

The top layer of an aquatic ecosystem will freeze, expand and float, thus insulating the living organisms in it from the colder temperatures outside the ecosystem.

b)

The bottom layer of an aquatic ecosystem will freeze, expand and float, thus insulating the living organisms in it from the colder temperatures outside the ecosystem.

c)

The top layer of an aquatic ecosystem will freeze, expand and sink, thus insulating the living organisms in it from the colder temperatures outside the ecosystem.

133.

Which kingdoms have some organisms that can make their own food (autotrophic)?

a)

Animalia

b)

Plantae

c)

Protista

d)

Fungi

134.
Fungi are a type of...
a)
decomposer
b)
producer
135.
Mold, yeast, and mushrooms all belong to the Kingdom _______.
a)
Archaebacteria
b)
Fungi
c)
Eubacteria
d)
Protista
136.

What eukaryotic kingdom is for organisms that are plant-like, animal-like and fungi-like?

a)

Protista

b)

Plantae

c)

Animalia

d)

Bacteria

e)

Fungi

137.

Which kingdom matches the following: multicellular, cell wall?

a)

Plantae

b)

Animalia

c)

Protista

d)

Fungi

138.
Which of these are the ingredients NEEDED for life to form?
a)
organic macromolecules
b)
atoms
c)
methane 
d)
inorganic molecules
139.

Miller and Urey's experiment suggests that...

a)

organic compounds necessary for life (amino acids) could have arisen from simpler compounds

b)

the sun powers all life

c)

primitive compounds can be made from super complex compounds

d)

applied pressure can form polypeptides

140.

Miller/Urey and other scientists studying the origin of life have shown that:

a)

Formation of life on early Earth required material from space

b)

Simple cells can be produced in a laboratory using spontaneous generation

c)

Oxygen and water were present in the atmosphere to support life

d)

Organic molecules like amino acids and nucleotides could be produced from abiotic/inorganic molecules

141.

The theory of endosymbiosis explains

a)

how eukaryotic cells develop prom prokaryotic cells

b)

how prokaryotic cells develop prom eukaryotic cells

c)

how bacteria live

d)

why cells rely on one another

142.
___________________ evolved after RNA
a)
amino acids
b)
atoms
c)
DNA
d)
molecules
143.

The theory of endosymbiosis is about

a)

simple microorganism engulfing other simple microorganisms and learning to live together

b)

how prokaryotic cells develop prom eukaryotic cells

c)

simple microorganism engulfing other simple microorganisms and self-destructing

d)

life having to come from life

144.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the organism knew it needed that trait, survives, and passes it on.

145.

The more genetic variation a population has,

the more likely it is for some individuals to

a)

evolve

b)

migrate

c)

survive

d)

mutate

146.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
147.

A squirrel had a litter of 4 pups in late winter. Her stash of food was destroyed due to deforestation. As a result, her pups struggled to survive. Due to a limited amount of food, only one pup survived.

Which condition of natural selection is described above?

a)

Reproductive advantage

b)

Variation

c)

Heritability

d)

Overproduction

148.

During a cold winter in a small ecosystem, a squirrel had a litter of pups. Only those born with thicker fur were able to survive. The following summer, a population of squirrels with thicker fur was observed.

Which condition of natural selection is described above?

a)

Reproductive advantage

b)

Variation

c)

Heritability

d)

Overproduction

149.

Which is Heterozygous?

a)

Tt

b)

BB

c)

ff

d)

Dominant

150.

What are the chances of heterozygous genotypes in offspring?

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

1 in 4

d)

75%

151.
What is the genotypic ratio here
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
152.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
153.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
154.
In certain species of plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant to white flowers (p). If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what will be the phenotype of the offspring?
a)
100% purple flowers
b)
100% white flowers
c)
75% white flowers, 25% purple flowers
d)
25% white flowers, 75% purple flowers
155.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Recessive inheritance

156.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
157.

Codominance ________________

a)

is a situation in which both alleles are equally strong and both alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype

b)

is a situation in which the dominant allele is stronger than the recessive allele, but both alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype

c)

is a situation in which the recessive alleles are stronger than the dominant allele, within which the recessive alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype

d)

none of the answers are correct.

158.

Codominance occurs in calico cats, which allows for the Black and Tan colors to show. What percentage of the offspring represented in this P square will be calico (black and tan spotted)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

159.
What is 1 significant issue with many Genetically Modified Organisms?
a)
They are too expensive to be useful
b)
Take a long time to make
c)
May affect other organisms in their environment
d)
Might evolve more quickly
160.

In the United States, there has been relatively little experimentation involving the insertion of genes from other species into human DNA. What is one reason for the limitations of these experiments?

a)

The subunits of human DNA are different from the DNA subunits of other species.

b)

Inserting foreign DNA into human DNA would require using completely new techniques.

c)

Human DNA always promotes human survival, so there is no need to insert foreign genes into it.

d)

There are many ethical questions to be answered before inserting foreign genes into human DNA.

161.

Which of these is the correct definition of genetic modification/genetic engineering?

a)

Choosing individuals to mate based on desired characteristics

b)

Observing genetic changes in populations over time based on adaptive traits

c)

Extracting stem cells to differentiate into specialized tissues

d)

Altering the DNA of an organism at the molecular level

162.
An egg cell leaves the _______________ and goes into the fallopian tube.
a)
Testicle
b)
Ovary
c)
Uterus
d)
Scrotum
163.
The meeting of a sperm and ovum.
a)
Intercourse
b)
Implantation
c)
Conception
d)
Fertilization
164.
The nesting of a fertilized egg in the wall of the uterus.
a)
Implantation
b)
Fertilization
c)
Conception
d)
Menstruation
165.
Where a baby grows and develops for approximately 9 months.
a)
Stomach
b)
Bladder
c)
Vagina
d)
Uterus
166.

______ implants itself into the lining of the uterus.

a)

blastual

b)

gastrula

c)

blastocyst

d)

morula

167.

A temporary organ which provides food to the foetus is called ___________.

a)

embryo

b)

amniotic fluid

c)

amnion

d)

placenta

168.

The embryo is attached to the placenta by the _____________________.

a)

amnion

b)

umbilical cord

c)

vein

d)

oviduct

169.

The fluid found in the amnion

a)

amniotic fluid

b)

placenta

c)

umbilical cord

170.
What does not produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
171.
The shrew provides energy for the _______?
a)
cricket
b)
grasshopper
c)
frog
d)
snake
172.

How much energy is lost by other means at each trophic level?

a)

90%

b)

10%

c)

100%

d)

5%

173.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
174.

A strip mining company wants to lease some land that is currently part of a national park. They promise to reclaim the land should any minerals be mined from the area, and they are willing to pay top dollar for the rights. As an ecologist, what factors would you raise with the local government?

a)

the increased traffic in the area

b)

the new jobs that would be created

c)

management of the land after the company leaves

d)

the threat to local biodiversity

175.

The presence of wastes, such as plastic bags and motor oil, in lakes and streams miles away from developed areas suggests that

a)

ecosystems are interconnected and human action can alter ecosystem equilibrium.

b)

recycling programs have failed to conserve biotic resources.

c)

natural processes can alter ecosystem stability.

d)

direct harvesting practices have led to irreversible destruction of ecosystems.

176.

Which of these are cons of non-renewable resources such as burning of fossil fuels?

a)

harm to the environment

b)

pollution

c)

loss of biodiversity

d)

gain of biodiversity

177.

The end result of ecological succession is usually a(n)

a)

A.land biome.

b)

B.aquatic biome.

c)

C.unstable community.

d)

D.climax community.

178.

Natural disturbances, such as fires or hurricanes, can result in

a)

A.parasitism.

b)

B.competition.

c)

C.commensalism.

d)

D.succession.

179.

. Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

a)

A.lichens growing on rocks following a volcanic eruption

b)

B.grasses growing after a forest fire

c)

C.oak trees replacing pine trees in a forest

d)

D. non-native species introduced into a climax community

180.

How is primary succession different from secondary succession?

a)

Primary succession starts with soil.

b)

Secondary succession start with bare rock.

c)

Primary succession starts with bare rock, with lichens and moss.

d)

Fire is an example of primary succession.

181.

Which of the following best

describes biodiversity

a)

A. a diverse Biology class

b)

B. variety of all life on earth

c)

C. a variety of plants

d)

D. a variety of animals

182.
The maximum number of individuals that a particular environment can support is called _______.
a)
community
b)
survivorship
c)
biotic potential
d)
carrying capacity
183.
Under ideal conditions with unlimited resources, a population will have ________.
a)
linguistic growth
b)
experimental growth
c)
exponential growth
d)
logistic growth
184.

Select all density-dependent factors

a)

parasitism

b)

fire

c)

flood

d)

disease

e)

mutualism

185.

In this Food Web Pyramid which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?

a)

Herbivore

b)

Carnivore

c)

Omnivore

d)

Secondary Consumer

186.
Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?
a)
Owl
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Lilypad
d)
Mouse
187.

Carbon is released in the environment due to

a)

cellular respiration

b)

combustion

c)

photosynthesis

d)

transpiration

188.

Transpiration is similar to evaporation because it involves the release of

a)

carbon dioxide as gas through a leaf's stomata

b)

oxygen as gas through a leaf's stomata

c)

nitrogen as gas through a leaf's stomata

d)

water as water vapor through a leaf's stomata

189.

a renewable resource is ....

a)

a resource that forms much more slowly than it is consumed

b)

a natural resource that can be replaced at the same rate at which it is consumed

c)

any natural material that is used by humans

190.

Choose ALL of the renewable resources

a)

sun

b)

coal

c)

wind

d)

fossil fuels

e)

Earth (geothermal)

191.
Sustainable means
a)
using a lot of energy
b)
being able to last for a long time by creating as much as you use
c)
Being able to cause a stain
192.

The _________________ is a complex reproductive organ that contains a pistil and a stamen among other parts.

a)

fruit

b)

cone

c)

seed

d)

flower

193.

A seed may be housing an _______________ or an unfertilized _________________.

a)

ovule; embryo

b)

ovule; pollen

c)

spore; pollen

d)

embryo; ovule

194.

Pollination refers to

a)

The fusing of the ovule with the ovary.

b)

The transfer of pollen from the stigma to the anther.

c)

The fusing of pollen and ovule and the creation of an embryo.

d)

The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma/pollen tube.

195.

Fertilization refers to

a)

The fusing of the ovule with the ovary.

b)

The transfer of pollen from the stigma to the anther.

c)

The fusing of pollen and ovule and the creation of an embryo.

d)

The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma/pollen tube.

196.

Xylem transports

a)

Water

b)

Food

197.
How do invasive plants damage the environment?
a)
Compete with native species
b)
Change plant community
c)
Alter diversity
d)
All of these

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