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STAAR Review Major Grade

Total questions: 171

Worksheet time: 3hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which organic macromolecules are composed of chains of amino acids that join to form the structural components of organisms?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
proteins
d)
lipids
2.
Which is the only structure you would expect to see when examining a prokaryotic cell with a compound microscope?
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
cell membrane
d)
mitochondria
3.
Which cell part is present in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
4.

The ability to maintain a stable internal environment is called ________________.

a)

Metabolism

b)

Mitosis

c)

Heterozygous

d)

Homeostasis

5.
What is the capsid of a virus?
a)
the disease it causes
b)
the receptors to which it binds
c)
the genetic material
d)
its protein coat
6.
What is one way that a lysogenic infection differs from a lytic infection?
a)
A lysogenic virus does not act on bacteria as a lytic virus does.
b)
A lysogenic virus can remain in the host DNA for a longer period without becoming active.
c)
A lysogenic virus contains RNA instead of DNA.
d)
A lysogenic virus directs the production of new viruses right away.
7.
Which of the following is a possible result of a disruption in the cell cycle?
a)
cancer
b)
photosynthesis
c)
cellular respiration
d)
protein synthesis
8.

Cell have several mechanisms for regulating their internal environments. Which of these mechanisms involved in maintaining homeostasis requires energy?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

passive transport

9.
This cell is undergoing mitosis.  What stage of mitosis is shown?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
10.
This diagram shows the cell cycle.

Which of the following activities occur in the S phase?
a)
Replication of the DNA
b)
Growth of the cell
c)
Formation of the mitotic spindle
d)
Breakdown of the nuclear membrane
11.
Which of the following macromolecules are a prominent part of animal tissues that function in insulation, helping animals conserve heat?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
12.
a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Interphase

13.
The diffusion of water through a semi-permeable membrane is called?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Cell wall
c)
Diffusion
d)
Respiration
14.
An animal cell placed in a hypertonic (salty) solution will
a)
Shrink
b)
Swell
c)
Stay the same
15.

A student produces a labeled drawing of a virus for a presentation. The student states that the capsid has a function similar to the nuclear membrane found in animal cells.

a)

Both transport proteins throughout the structures.

b)

Both provide energy for activities in the structures.

c)

Both protect genetic information for the structures.

d)

Both code for the proteins needed for reproduction of the structures.

16.

The diagram shows molecules that a mitochondrion uses and produces during a cellular process.

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

CHO

d)

ATP

17.

In a study of physical endurance, researchers observed significant increases in the heart rates and breathing rates of participants immediately after they engaged in strenuous exercise.


Which statement best explains the increase in the heart rate and the breathing rate during exercise?

a)

The water concentration in the blood increases.

b)

Body cells require increased oxygen as energy is expended.

c)

Muscle cells increase in temperature and require fluid to reduce the temperature.

d)

An increase in muscle activity causes increases in glucose levels in red blood cells.

18.

Which table shows two steps of DNA replications?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
What type of cell is shown?
a)
Eukaryotic because it has a nucleus
b)
Eukaryotic because it lacks a nucleus
c)
Prokaryotic because it has a nucleus
d)
Prokaryotic because it lacks a nucleus
20.
What is the name and importance of the molecule shown in the picture?
a)
fatty acid tail; makes up the fat found in butter
b)
phospholipid; makes up cellular membranes
c)
triglyceride; makes up animal lard
d)
cellulose; makes up the cell walls of plants
21.
What is the end result of mitosis
a)
2 cells that are identical to the parent cell
b)
2 cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
c)
4 cells that are identical to the parent cell
d)
4 cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
22.
A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which has occurred?
a)
The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
b)
The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
c)
The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
d)
The excess water has moved out of the gums.
23.
Which pair of structures best shows that plant cells have functions different from animal cells?
a)
Cytoplasm and mitochondria
b)
Chloroplasts and cell wall
c)
Ribosome and golgi
d)
Nucleus and cell membrane
24.
The concentration of water is higher in the soil than in plant root cells. Water moves into root cells of a plant by...
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
25.
What are two types of passive transport?
a)
endo and exocytosis 
b)
cookies and milk
c)
active and passive 
d)
Osmosis and diffusion
26.
A saltwater fish is accidentally placed in a freshwater aquarium in a few short hours it sadly died. Which explains why this occurred?
a)
The cells of the fish body were dehydrated by the quick loss of water. 
b)
The cells of the fish quickly absorbed massive amounts of water and it ended up killing the fish.  
c)
The fish hated the new decor in the freshwater tank. 
d)
It was just its time. 
27.
Passive transport requires no
a)
concentration gradients
b)
osmosis
c)
motion
d)
energy
28.
This cell organelle helps organisms maintain homeostasis by controlling what substances may enter or leave cells.
a)
vacuole
b)
nucleus
c)
cell membrane
d)
cell wall
29.
What is the first step of the virus reproduction cycle?
a)
The viruses genetic material (DNA) starts to take over the functions of the cell
b)
The host cell bursts open, releasing the new viruses
c)
The virus injects its genetic material into the cell
d)
A virus attaches to the surface of a host cell
30.
Which is bigger, a bacteria or a virus?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
31.
Reasons that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
32.

What are the three main parts of a nucleotide?

a)

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

b)

phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base

c)

phosphate, sulfate, and nitrate

d)

adenine, thymine, and uracil

33.

In DNA, adenine pairs with _______, while guanine pairs with _______.

a)

uracil / cytosine

b)

thymine / uracil

c)

thymine / cytosine

d)

adenine / guanine

34.

What is the name of the sugar in DNA?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

ribose

c)

glucose

d)

galactose

35.

Which nitrogen base does RNA have instead of thymine?

a)

adenine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

uracil

36.

The process in which a section of DNA is used to produce a copy of mRNA is called:

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

mutation

d)

inheritance

37.

What is the funtion of tRNA?

a)

contains codons and carries an amino acid to the ribosome

b)

carries a sugar to the ribosome

c)

contains anticodons and carries an amino acid to the ribosome

d)

carries an amino acid to the nucleus

38.

What type of mutation is shown in the diagram?

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

no change

39.

What is the process shown in the diagram?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

mutation

d)

transformation

40.

Trisomy 21 is also known as:

a)

Edward Syndrome

b)

Patau Syndrome

c)

Down Syndrome

d)

Turner Syndrome

41.

Eight components present in nucleic acids are listed in the box.

a)

1, 3, 5, and 6 only

b)

3 and 5 only

c)

2 and 4 only

d)

3, 4, 7, and 8 only

42.

Mice have two unlinked allele pairs that affect fur color. The table shows how allele pairs affect fur color. The term “agouti” describes fur with pigmentation that changes in each hair from the shaft to the tip, giving the fur a banded appearance. Mice with the aa allele pair are albino, regardless of the second allele-pair combination.

a)

116\frac{1}{16}

b)

316\frac{3}{16}

c)

416\frac{4}{16}

d)

916\frac{9}{16}

43.
Exposure to the building material asbestos has been linked to certain types of cancers. Asbestos causes mutations in the p53 gene, which controls tumor suppression. Which statement best explains why people with cancer due to asbestos exposure do not pass the mutation on to their offspring?
a)
The mutation occurred in gametic cells.
b)
The mutation occurred in somatic cells.
c)
The mutation is recessive.
d)
The mutation is sex-linked
44.

A segment of a DNA strand is shown.

a)
b)
c)
d)
45.
In humans blood type is determined by the A, B, and O alleles. The A and B alleles are codominant to each other and dominant over the O allele. An individual with the AO genotype and an individual with the BO genotype can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes?
a)
O only
b)
A or B only
c)
A, B, or O only
d)
A, B, AB, or O
46.
A mutation in which types of cells would only affect the organism and not future generations?
a)
Egg cell and liver cell
b)
Sperm cell and egg cell
c)
Nerve cell and brain cell
d)
Sperm cell and lung cell
47.

In cattle the allele for cloven hooves (H) is dominant over the allele for mule-foot hooves (h). The phenotype for each trait is shown in this picture.

a)

0.25

b)

0.5

c)

0.75

d)

1

48.
Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?
a)
The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.
b)
The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.
c)
The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.
d)
The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand.
49.
Which sequence of complementary DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG?
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
50.
Which of the following monomers are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
51.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
52.
The two strands of nitrogenous bases in DNA are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
53.

A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Protein Synthesis

54.
What process is occurring in this photo?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
mRNA is matching with amino acids
d)
tRNA is transcribing the DNA
55.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA?
a)
 Met-Pro-Val-Stop
b)
Met-Pro-Arg-Stop
c)
 Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
56.
What is transcription?
a)
When DNA is turned into RNA
b)
When RNA is turned into proteins
c)
When proteins are turned into DNA
d)
When proteins are turned in RNA
57.
Which is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?
a)
RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded
b)
RNA contains Uracil, DNA doesn't
c)
DNA has to stay in the nucleus, RNA doesn't
d)
RNA has extra proteins attached and DNA doesn't
58.
Which is the organelle that makes proteins?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Rough ER
d)
Golgi Apparatus
59.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
60.

Which type of mutation is MOST LIKELY to cause the greatest disruption?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Silent

c)

Point

61.

Failure of homologous chromosomes

to separate during meiosis.

Results in gametes with either one extra or one missing chromosome.

a)

Translocation

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

62.
What are the building blocks of proteins called?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Amino Acids
63.
Why is the order of amino acids so important?
a)
The order of amino acids dictates what shape the protein will fold into.
b)
It is not important. The protein folding chamber will force the protein to fold into the correct shape.
64.
Long tongues (T) are dominant to short tongues in green tree frogs.  What is the probability that two frogs that are heterozygous for long tongues could produce offspring with short tongues?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
65.
Why is crossing over important?
a)
Increases the number of genes that can be inherited
b)
Increases genetic variation
c)
Decreases the occurrence of genetic diseases
d)
Decreases the number of genes that can be inherited
66.
Purple is dominant to white. A heterozygous purple flower is crossed with a white flower. What are the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring?
a)
100% Pp (purple)
b)
50% Pp (purple); 50% pp (white)
c)
75% Pp (purple); 25% pp (white)
d)
25% PP, 50% Pp, 25% pp
75% purple, 25% white
67.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
68.
T4 - Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What percentage of the offspring of the cross BbTt x BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
69.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
70.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms.

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 3

d)

Organism 4

71.

The white cattail is a hybrid species of plant that is a result of the cross between the broad-leaved cattail and the narrow-leaved cattail. Over time, the white cattail has established itself in the wetlands of Midwestern states.


Which of these explains the success of the white cattail?

a)

Favorable genes from parental generations provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species.

b)

Hybridization produces offspring traits that allow different species to survive in extreme environments.

c)

Inherited traits passed on from parental generations make hybrid species more susceptible to disease.

d)

Hybrid species display more adaptations due to their reduced genetic diversity.

72.
Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, which of the following best describes fitness?
a)
Being able to escape from predators
b)
Being among the strongest organisms in a population
c)
Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring
d)
Being able to survive long enough to reach the adult stage
73.

The relationships among different orders of millipedes are shown in the cladogram.

a)

Stemmiulida is more closely related to Merocheta than Penicillata is to Merocheta.

b)

Spirostreptida is more closely related to Glomerida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomerida

c)

Polyzoniida is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomeridesmida.

d)

Merocheta is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Glomerida is to Glomeridesmida.

74.

The image shows part of the humerus bone in different genera of primates.

a)

The primates lived in similar environments.

b)

The primates shared a common ancestor.

c)

The primates interbreed with similar organisms in a population.

d)

The primates had diets that consisted of similar types of foods.

75.

The diagram illustrates the activity of vesicles during a cellular process.


Which statement best explains the function of the vesticles

a)

Delivering packaged materials to the Golgi apparatus for protein synthesis

b)

Exchanging genetic information between the Golgi apparatus of separate cells

c)

Extracting portions of the Golgi apparatus to be regenerated for growth within the cell

d)

Transporting packaged molecules from the Golgi apparatus to be released out of the cell

76.

A new predator of rabbits has been introduced within an ecosystem. This new predator runs faster than the native predators of rabbits.


Which statement describes what will most likely occur in the rabbit population due to the introduction of the predator?

a)

The rabbits will mutate their genes and express genes that increase their speed.

b)

Slower rabbits will develop stronger legs and pass this trait to their offspring.

c)

Rabbits will mate and produce offspring with a different species that has faster runners.

d)

Faster rabbits will survive and reproduce increasing the average speed of the rabbit population.

77.

A dichotomous key for identifying fish is shown.

a)

Glassy sweeper and squirrelfish

b)

Glasseye snapper and spotted eagle ray

c)

Spotted goatfish and bandtail puffer

d)

Peacock flounder and glassy sweeper

78.

The aye-aye lemur is a mammal that feeds mostly on insect larvae that live inside trees. The aye-aye lemur has a specialized middle finger that is long and thin. The aye-aye lemur moves along a tree branch and taps the branch with its specialized finger. When the aye-aye lemur hears a difference in the echo, it will tear open the bark with its teeth until the insect tunnel is exposed. The aye-aye lemur then uses its specialized finger to reach the insect larvae and remove it.

a)

Limited availability of water

b)

Competing for mates

c)

Large numbers of natural predators

d)

Food sources that are hard to find

79.
Many tree frog populations are threatened due to habitat loss. In an effort to promote conservation, tree frogs may be bred in captivity. A zoo acquired male and female tree frogs from two different populations. In the zoo, the tree frogs were able to successfully mate within their own population, but breeding attempts between the two populations were unsuccessful. Based on this information, which statement correctly describes the relationship between the two populations of tree frogs?
a)
They are in the same species but different kingdoms.
b)
They are in the same class but different phyla.
c)
They are in the same family but different orders.
d)
They are in the same genus but different species.
80.
Which of these is required for natural selection?
a)
All individuals of a population must be identical.
b)
There must be a small number of individuals in a population.
c)
There must be variation among the members of
d)
An individual must be forced out of its natural habitat.
81.
The legs of crocodiles and mice have similar bone structures and develop in a similar way.  What type of structures are the leg bones?
a)
homologous structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
fossilized structures
d)
vestigial structures
82.
The chart shows the embryos and adult forms of animals from different classification groups.  What do the embryos suggest about these three animals?
a)
The animals are not related.
b)
The animals share a common ancestor and are therefore related
c)
Fish are more closely related to humans than are chickens.
d)
Fish and chickens ar closely related, but humans are not related to either fish or chickens.
83.
The standardized system for naming organism is known as binomial nomenclature.  What two pieces of information are used to name and identify organisms using this system?
a)
genus and species
b)
class and genus
c)
class and species
d)
domain and kingdom
84.
The genetic variation that leads to evolution can occur when genes from one population are introduced into the gene pool of a different population.  This process is known as
a)
mutation
b)
crossing over
c)
natural selection
d)
gene flow
85.
Which of these processes is most likely to increase the genetic diversity that plays a role in evolution?
a)
binary fission
b)
cell division
c)
asexual reproduction
d)
sexual reproduction
86.

The ___________ record provides evidence for evolution by showing how species have changed over time.

a)

fossil

b)

time

c)

embryological

d)

analogous structure

87.

A ___________ structure in two different species has the same developmental and evolutionary history, but serves different functions in the two species.

a)

analogous

b)

embryology

c)

homologous

d)

fossil

88.

_________ structures had an ancestral use, but serve no function now.

a)

analogous

b)

vestigial

c)

homologous

89.

Which description BEST describes gradualism?

a)

speciation occurs slowly and continuously over time

b)

speciation occurs during short bursts

c)

species show little change over time

d)

fossils in the lower strata are younger and the higher strata

90.

Which term best describes punctuated equilibrium?

a)

speciation occurs slowly and continuously over time

b)

species show little change over time

c)

fossils in the lower strata are younger than fossils in the higher strata

d)

speciation occurs during quick bursts

91.

This type of selection is due to selective breeding by humans.

a)

directional

b)

disruptive

c)

stabilizing

d)

artificial

92.

The endosymbiotic theory states that eukaryotic cells evolved from smaller prokaryotes living inside and coevolving with larger prokaryotes.

a)

true

b)

false

93.

A eukaryotic, multicellular autotroph would be part of kingdom ______________

a)

animalia

b)

fungi

c)

plantae

d)

protista

94.

Archaebacteria are unicellular prokaryotes that live in ____________ environments.

a)

stable

b)

cold

c)

hot

d)

extreme

95.

Based on the DNA sequences shown, the unknown species is most closely related to ________.

a)

Species I

b)

Species II

c)

Species III

d)

Species IV

96.

Based on the map shown, which organisms are more closely related?

a)

1 and 4

b)

2 and 6

c)

7 and 8

d)

2 and 3

97.

Which beetles are more fit for the environment?

a)

Green beetles

b)

Brown beetles

98.

Based on the cladogram, the chimp will be more closely related to the _________.

a)

Hagfish

b)

Salamander

c)

Lizard

d)

Mouse

99.

Based on the dichotomous key, which organism is purple and has a pointy hump?

a)

Deerus octagis

b)

Deerus humpis

c)

Derus purplinis

d)

Derus deafus

100.

Which organisms belong to the kingdom bacteria?

a)

Organisms 1 and 2

b)

Organisms 3 and 4

c)

Organisms 1 and 4

d)

Organisms 2 and 3

101.
What biomolecule do enzymes belong to? 
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Nucleic Acid
d)
Protein
102.
Which biomolecule is a main source of quick energy?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
103.
What is the function of a nucleic acid?
a)
Stores genetic information
b)
Stores energy
c)
Quick source of energy
d)
Builds structures
104.

Which biomolecule helps form muscles?

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Lipids

105.
What elements are common to all 4 biomolecules?
a)
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
b)
Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus
c)
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
d)
Carbon, Hydrogen, Phosphorus
106.
A monomer is ...
a)
a single atom
b)
a building block for polymers
c)
a single element
d)
is an inorganic molecule
107.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
108.
All living things contain what element?
a)
helium
b)
sodium
c)
copper
d)
carbon
109.

How does most of the water needed by the plant get into its leaves?

a)

It enters through the stomata

b)

The roots absorb it and then it travels up the xylem

c)

It's made during a chemical reaction in the stem

d)

The flowers capture water and deliver it to the leaves

110.
Why do plants conduct photosynthesis?
a)
To make light
b)
To make mitochondria
c)
To make glucose
d)
To release carbon dioxide
111.
What major energy transformation occurs during photosynthesis?
a)
Thermal --> Chemical
b)
Kinetic --> Radiant
c)
Chemical --> Radiant
d)
Radiant --> Chemical
112.
Which organelle in the plant cell performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Nucleus
d)
Cytoplasm
113.
How does carbon dioxide get into the leaves of a plant?
a)
It's absorbed by the roots
b)
It's made in a chemical reaction in the stem
c)
It enters through the stomata
d)
It goes through the flowers
114.
What are the products of photosynthesis (what is made)?
a)
Glucose and Chlorophyll
b)
Glucose and Oxygen
c)
Water and Light
d)
Carbon dioxide and Water
115.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO+ light + H2O --> O+ Sugar
b)
CO+ sugar + H2O --> O+ light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO+ Sugar
d)
CO+ O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
116.
Where does aerobic respiration take place?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
117.
Which type of respiration occurs without the presence of oxygen?
a)
Aerobic 
b)
Anaerobic 
118.
What are the two reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
C6H12O6 & 6CO2
b)
6 CO2 & 6H2O
c)
C6H12O& 6O2
d)
6CO2 & 6O2
119.
The overall goal of cellular respiration is to make:
a)
Glucose
b)
ATP
c)
Oxygen
d)
Water
120.
Which type of fermentation occurs in muscles?
a)
Alcoholic 
b)
Lactic acid
121.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
122.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
123.
The process of cellular respiration 
a)
is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis
b)
is performed by autotrophs and heterotrophs
c)
occurs before plants are able to carry out photosynthesis
d)
occurs only in animals
124.
The area that the substrate fits into on the enzyme is called the:
a)
Active Site
b)
Allosteric Site
c)
DiSulphide Bridge
d)
β-Pleated Sheet
125.
Enzymes catalyze reactions by ___________ Activation Energy.
a)
Increasing
b)
Decreasing
126.
Most enzymes have the ending:
a)
-ase
b)
-ose
c)
-ic acid
d)
-ate
127.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
128.
A student reads this advertisement for a product containing a plant micronutrient that can be added to soil.
Based on this information, the student can conclude that boron is absorbed by plant roots from soil and then —
a)
transported to reproductive tissues by the plant’s shoot system
b)
stored in plant stems until the flowers are pollinated
c)
concentrated in the roots until the plant’s reproductive tissues mature
d)
transported by the phloem to the stomata in leaves, where it attracts pollinators
129.
 A student conducted an investigation to study phototropism in grasses. The only difference between the control group and the experimental group was light conditions. The control group was provided full light, while the experimental group was shaded on one side. The diagrams show the average heights and positions of blades of grass in the investigation.
Which statement best explains why the grass tips of the experimental group bent toward the light?
a)
Water evaporated faster on the side of the plant having full light
b)
Light sensors in the grass tips stimulated a hormone in the shoot system.
c)
The xylem in the root system absorbed more nutrients from the shaded side.
d)
The side facing the light has a greater chance of absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
130.
A student studying interactions between body systems constructs this table. The student plans to fill out the table with phrases that describe an interaction between each pair of systems. 
Which of these phrases could be placed in the position marked with an X? 
a)
Provides nutrients to kidney cells
b)
Provides nutrients to brain cells
c)
Provides nutrients to nerve cells
d)
Provides nutrients to muscle cells 
131.
 Recent studies in bone research indicate that using ultrasound on a broken bone can decrease the healing time by 25%. Which of these are the most basic levels of organization involved when a bone heals? 
a)
Cells and tissue
b)
Cells and organ system
c)
Organ system and organism
d)
Tissue and organ system
132.
The diagram demonstrates a feedback process involving antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH increases the permeability of parts of the nephrons of the kidney, resulting in less water in the urine.
This feedback loop is likely to be activated when — 
a)
the body experiences dehydration
b)
blood glucose levels are stable
c)
body temperature drops
d)
the urinary tract is infected
133.
 The surface of the stomach is lined with epithelial cells called surface mucous cells. These cells produce a thick mucus that coats the epithelium on the inside surface of the stomach. What is the purpose of the mucous coating?
a)
It allows the epithelium to aid in the process of digestion.
b)
It causes the epithelium to expand as food enters the stomach.
c)
It protects the epithelium from the acid content of the stomach.
d)
It traps nutrients inside the epithelium as food passes through the stomach
134.
Which of these best demonstrates mutualism between certain types of bacteria and humans?
a)
Intestinal bacteria obtain nutrients from the gut and produce vitamin K used by humans.
b)
Bacteria become resistant to antibacterial medication that humans use for treatment.
c)
Invasive bacteria at an area of injury produce toxins that damage healthy tissues of the human body.
d)
Bacteria in improperly prepared food is consumed by humans, causing food poisoning.
135.
In the mid-1980s an aggressive strain of algae known as Caulerpa was accidentally introduced into the Mediterranean Sea when a seaside aquarium cleaned out its tanks. The algae contains a toxin that prevents native herbivores from consuming it. Caulerpa quickly spread over the sea floor, crowding out many species including sponges, corals, sea fans, and lobsters. Which statement explains the most likely impact Caulerpa has had on the biodiversity in the Mediterranean Sea?
a)
The presence of Caulerpa within an ecosystem is an indicator of the ecosystem’s health.
b)
The spread of Caulerpa improved the habitat for many species of sea grasses, and increased the biodiversity.
c)
Caulerpa interbred with native species with the same adaptations within the ecosystem.
d)
Caulerpa became dominant within the ecosystem and reduced the biodiversity.
136.

A small town in the piney woods of East Texas has a soccer field composed of native grasses. The soccer field is mowed once a week.


What effect does continual mowing have on the ecology of the field?

a)

Mowing increases the likelihood of nonnative species displacing native species.

b)

Mowing increases the number of species found in the field.

c)

Mowing causes different types of communities to form across the field.

d)

Mowing maintains a low species diversity by inhibiting further succession.

137.

Scientists have observed many types of tropical fish moving beyond their traditional ocean ranges into waters that have historically been more temperate. These fish compete for food with native fish, consuming much from the kelp forests and beds of sea grass.


The expansion of the ranges of tropical fish was most likely caused by —

a)

agricultural runoff that contributes to dead zones in the ocean

b)

global droughts that raise the salt concentration of ocean waters

c)

the rising temperatures of ocean waters

d)

acid rain pollution that lowers the pH of ocean waters

138.

In North American forests, two species of birds, nuthatches and brown creepers, forage on the same trees for insects. Brown creepers feed on insects found near the bottom of the tree trunk, while nuthatches feed on insects in the top part of the tree.


The difference in foraging behavior most likely affects the nuthatches and brown creepers by —

a)

allowing the birds to avoid many types of predators

b)

reducing competition between the birds for resources

c)

preventing the birds from interbreeding with each other

d)

establishing dominance between the birds for nesting sites

139.
Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca moths. The moths lay their eggs  in the flowers where  the larvae hatch and eat some of the developing seeds. Both species benefit.  
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Parasitism 
c)
Commensalism 
140.
Which organism do the owl and the weasel compete for in the food web?
a)
Hawk
b)
Spider
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Shrew
141.
Which of the following is a herbivore?
a)
cricket
b)
frog
c)
hawk
d)
shrew
142.
Example of a decomposer
a)
fungus
b)
mouse
c)
plants
d)
frogs
143.

Approximately what percentage of energy is passed on to the next higher level in an energy pyramid?

a)

10%

b)

50%

c)

90%

d)

100%

144.

Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?

a)

Owl (tertiary consumer)

b)

Grasshopper (primary consumer)

c)

Lilypad (autotroph)

d)

Lizard (secondary consumer)

145.

Which statement best describes the role of decomposers?

a)

They convert carbon dioxide and water to glucose.

b)

They break down organic compounds into products used by other organisms.

c)

They release oxygen to the atmosphere.

d)

They provide energy for the synthesis of proteins.

146.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
147.
What is the goal of the pioneer species in Primary Succession?
a)
To kill the dead materials after a disaster
b)
To rebuild soil
c)
To feed Johnny
d)
To put fresh oxygen into the air
148.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
149.
Which of the following is true in a climax community?
a)
the community will constantly evolve and change
b)
if one species dies, a new species will fulfill the same role
c)
They are stable for a long time, with the same species maintaining their population
d)
it goes through a major change called "climax" every few hundred years
150.
What is Ecological Succession?
a)
Competition between plants in a society
b)
A natural disaster such as a flood or fire
c)
The cycle of a tomato plant
d)
The change an ecosystem experiences over time
151.
How many predators does the squid have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
152.
Name the producers in this food web.
a)
seagull and fish
b)
penguin and crab
c)
phytoplankton and seaweed
d)
seaweed and zooplankton
153.

The San Marcos salamander, Eurycea nana, is a light reddish-brown translucent salamander about 2–5 cm in length. E. nana is found only in Spring Lake and a portion of the San Marcos River.


Which human activity would most likely decrease the ability of the salamanders to survive?

a)

Increasing water consumption that decreases the flow of clean water from the springs that feed the river

b)

Public transportation that reduces the number of automobiles that contribute to pollution runoff into the river

c)

Tourism that helps fund the educational programs related to river ecosystem conservation

d)

The addition of a new food source into the river that limits competition for resources

154.

A biomass pyramid of an ecosystem is shown.

a)

Organisms at higher trophic levels have less energy available to them than organisms at lower trophic levels.

b)

Organisms at higher trophic levels require smaller habitats than organisms at lower trophic levels.

c)

Organisms at lower trophic levels provide less energy than organisms at higher trophic levels.

d)

Organisms at lower trophic levels outcompete organisms at higher trophic levels.

155.

The ocean sunfish (Mola mola) is a large, flat fish that spends most of its time in deep water feeding mainly on jellyfish. Sunfish often have many species of copepods, small crustaceans, that bury their heads into the soft tissue of the sunfish. Sunfish will swim to the surface of the water and lie sideways, allowing seabirds to eat the copepods from their skin.

a)

Seabirds: mutualism

Jellyfish: predation

Copepods: parasitism

b)

Seabirds: parasitism

Jellyfish: commensalism

Copepods: predation

c)

Seabirds: predation

Jellyfish: mutualism

Copepods: commensalism

d)

Seabirds: commensalism

Jellyfish: parasitism

Copepods: mutualism

156.
What is happening at 1?
a)
respiration: releasing CO2
b)
decomposing CO2 in the soil
c)
photosynthesis: absorbing CO2
d)
turning CO2 from the atmosphere into organic molecules
157.

As part of the nitrogen cycle, animals acquire some amino acids by doing which of the following?

a)

BREATHING AIR

b)

EATING PLANTS

c)

DRINKING WATER

d)

PRODUCING WASTE

158.
Deforestation by burning has been described as a "double whammy" to the environment, meaning it has 2 negative impacts. Why is this description accurate? 
a)
Forest burning releases CO2 while decreasing oxygen, which disrupts cycles
b)
Deforestation reduces the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere, which depletes the ozone layer
c)
Forest clearing is often followed by land development, which often leads to increased noise pollution
d)
Deforestation increases the number of plant and animal species by destroying habitat
159.

In recent years humans have interfered with the natural balance within deer populations in various ecosystems. The interference includes eliminating predators of the deer. Which of the following statements correctly describes the long-term outcome of this interference?

a)

The deer that are the fastest and most agile will survive and reproduce.

b)

The deer population will be too large to be supported by producers.

c)

Other browsing species will thrive and outcompete the deer.

d)

The producers will evolve into species that are less palatable to the deer.

160.
Hollow, tube-like cells in plants, called xylem and phloem, work together with the leaves and roots to perform what function?
a)
support
b)
germination
c)
transport
d)
fertilization
161.

The cladogram shows the evolution of land plants as indicated by fossil records.

Which discovery would challenge the validity of this cladogram?

a)

A large aquatic vascular plant about 200 million years old

b)

A species of algae that has existed for less than one million years

c)

A moss species that has existed for less than 380 million years

d)

A fossil of a fern more than 425 million years old

162.

Scientists estimate that there are more than 20,000 species of ants. The species range in size from 1 mm long to 38 mm long and live in most environments. The diets of ants range from flowers and seeds to fluids from their own larvae. Ants have been able to successfully inhabit so many different environments because their populations have been able to --

a)

hybridize with other species of insects

b)

adapt to a variety of habitats and food sources

c)

fill niches usually occupied by mammals

d)

occupy habitats that have no other life-forms

163.

Two populations of mice living in the same forest are separated by a large water-filled ditch. After a rainstorm, flooding brings several mice from one population to the other population. When the mice from the first population reproduce with members of the second population, which of the following will likely occur?

a)

All of the offspring will die as a result of reproductive mutations.

b)

The offspring will be forced to leave the second population.

c)

The offspring will be genetically identical to their parent from the first population.

d)

The offspring in the second population will have greater genetic variety.

164.

When a person is suddenly cut by a sharp object, a nervous impulse is sent along a sensory neuron to the spinal cord. The impulse is immediately transmitted through motor neurons to produce a response. Which of the following correctly identifies and describes this response?

a)

It is a conditioned response that occurs only to prevent injury.

b)

It is a learned response that does not occur in infants and small children.

c)

It is a reflex response that causes various muscles to contract in order to move away from the object.

d)

It is a voluntary response that is initiated only after the impulse has been carried to the relevant area in the brain.

165.

The energy pyramid shows the energy made available by producers. (View Image)


Base on the energy flow between trophic levels in an energy pyramid, how much energy would be expected to be found at the secondary consumer level in this pyramid?

a)

100 joules

b)

500 joules

c)

1,000 joules

d)

50 joules

166.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?

a)

ATP Production is inhibited.

b)

Cell division is unregulated.

c)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited.

d)

Antibody Activity is unregulated.

167.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used the eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. (View Image)


Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

168.

The diagram shows cells in different phases of mitosis. A student is trying to find a cell in a particular phase of mitosis. The student is looking for evidence that spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes to ensure that each new nucleus has one copy of each chromosome. (View Image)


Which cell is in the phase of mitosis that the student is searching for?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

169.

The complex carbohydrates pictured (View Image) are made by linking molecules of glucose.


In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely --

a)

contain different chemical elements

b)

form different proteins

c)

carry different nucleotides

d)

perform different functions

170.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both involve the use and release of gases. Which statement correctly identifies the role of gases in the two processes?

a)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

b)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

c)

Cellular respiration uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide, while photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.

d)

Cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

171.

Four common relationships between organisms are listed in the box. (View Image)


Which statements best describe these relationships?

a)

Relationships 1 and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 2 is an example of commensalism.

Relationship 3 is an example of parasitism.

b)

Relationships 1, 2, and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 3 is an example of parasitism.