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EOY Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define velocity.

a)

speed of an object in a given direction

b)

rate at which an object changes velocity

c)

an object's overall change in position

d)

an object will continue in a state of motion until acted on by an outside force

2.

Write the equation for velocity.

a)

d / t

b)

vf - vi / t

c)

ma

d)

mg

3.

A student walks 0.5 miles south to school in 15 minutes. What is the student's velocity?

a)

0.03 m/s

b)

7.5 m/s

c)

30 m/s

d)

15.5 m/s

4.

Define acceleration.

a)

speed of an object in a given direction

b)

rate at which an object changes velocity

c)

an object's overall change in position

d)

an object will continue in a state of motion until acted on by an outside force

5.

Write the equation for acceleration.

a)

d / t

b)

vf - vi / t

c)

ma

d)

mg

6.

A student is running 10 m/s. The student accelerates to a final velocity of 20 m/s in 10 seconds. What is the student's acceleration?

a)

1 m/s2

b)

200 m/s2

c)

20 m/s2

d)

.5 m/s2

7.

Define displacement.

a)

speed of an object in a given direction

b)

rate at which an object changes velocity

c)

an object's overall change in position

d)

an object will continue in a state of motion until acted on by an outside force

8.

A student leaving school walks 2.5 miles north and then 1 mile south. What is the student's displacement?

a)

1.5 miles N

b)

1.5 miles S

c)

3.5 miles N

d)

3.5 miles S

9.

Define force.

a)

speed of an object in a given direction

b)

a push or pull exerted on an object

c)

an object's overall change in position

d)

an object will continue in a state of motion until acted on by an outside force

10.

Write the equation for force.

a)

d / t

b)

vf - vi / t

c)

ma

d)

mg

11.

What is the unit for force?

a)

newtons

b)

joules

c)

hertz

d)

m/s

12.

How much force is needed to accelerate a 44 kg box at 2 m/s2?

a)

88 N

b)

22 N

c)

42 N

d)

46 N

13.

Define free-fall.

a)

a downward movement due to gravity only

b)

rate at which an object changes velocity

c)

an object's overall change in position

d)

an object will continue in a state of motion until acted on by an outside force

14.

A box exerts 50 N of force on the floor, how much force is the floor exerting back on the box?

a)

50 N

b)

25 N

c)

100 N

d)

75 N

15.

Acceleration due to gravity equals:

a)

9.81 m/s2

b)

100 m/s2

c)

6.02 m/ss

d)

19.53 m/s2

16.

What is the force on a 66 kg person free falling from an airplane?

a)

647.46 N

b)

6.73 N

c)

.14 N

d)

66 N

17.

What is the net force of the box?

a)

50 N right

50 N up

b)

100 N left

100 N down

c)

50 N left

50 N down

d)

100 N right

100 N up

18.

Define inertia.

a)

a downward movement due to gravity only

b)

rate at which an object changes velocity

c)

an object's overall change in position

d)

an object will continue in a state of motion until acted on by an outside force

19.

What factor affects inertia?

a)

mass

b)

distance

c)

boiling point

d)

charge

20.

The momentum in a closed system is conserved, meaning the momentum is constant if no external forces are acting on the object.

This statement is the:

a)

Law of Conservation of Momentum

b)

Law of Conservation of Mass

c)

Law of Conservation of Energy

d)

Law of Conservation of Inertia

21.

What is magnetism?

a)

speed of an object in a given direction

b)

rate at which an object changes velocity

c)

the force exerted by magnets when they attract or repel each other

d)

an object will continue in a state of motion until acted on by an outside force

22.

What is the source of all magnetism?

a)

the motion of electric charges

b)

speed of an object

c)

a push or pull exerted on an object

d)

the moon

23.

What two factors affect the amount of gravity between two objects?

a)

mass & distance

b)

mass & density

c)

distance & density

d)

density & charge

24.

Define electrostatic force.

a)

the motion of electric charges

b)

the attractive or repulsive forces between particles caused by their electric charges

c)

a push or pull exerted on an object

d)

speed of an object

25.

Two charged objects have a repulsive electrostatic force of 2 N. The charge of one of the objects doubles, what is the new force?

a)

2 N

b)

4 N

c)

8 N

d)

1 N

26.

What type of circuit does the image represent?

a)

parallel

b)

series

27.

What type of circuit does the image represent?

a)

parallel

b)

series

28.

What type of circuit does the image represent?

a)

parallel

b)

series

29.

What type of circuit does the image represent?

a)

parallel

b)

series

30.

Define convection.

a)

the transfer of thermal energy in a fluid by the movement of warmer and cooler fluids

b)

the transfer of thermal energy through collisions between the particles that make up matter

c)

the transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

d)

the process of waves spreading out as a result of passing through a narrow space

31.

Define conduction.

a)

the transfer of thermal energy in a fluid by the movement of warmer and cooler fluids

b)

the transfer of thermal energy through collisions between the particles that make up matter

c)

the transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

d)

the process of waves spreading out as a result of passing through a narrow space

32.

Define radiation.

a)

the transfer of thermal energy in a fluid by the movement of warmer and cooler fluids

b)

the transfer of thermal energy through collisions between the particles that make up matter

c)

the transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

d)

the process of waves spreading out as a result of passing through a narrow space

33.

Which method can occur in a vacuum?

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

diffraction

34.

What is constructive interference?

a)

when waves meet “in phase”

b)

when waves meet “out of phase”

c)

when a wave bounces back from a boundary of one medium to another

d)

when a wave spreads out when passing through a narrow space

35.

What is destructive interference?

a)

when waves meet “in phase”

b)

when waves meet “out of phase”

c)

when a wave bounces back from a boundary of one medium to another

d)

when a wave spreads out when passing through a narrow space

36.

Define reflection.

a)

when a wave bounces back from a boundary of one medium to another

b)

the bending of waves as they pass into another medium

c)

the transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

d)

the process of waves spreading out as a result of passing through a narrow space

37.

Define refraction.

a)

when a wave bounces back from a boundary of one medium to another

b)

the bending of waves as they pass into another medium

c)

the transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

d)

the process of waves spreading out as a result of passing through a narrow space

38.

Define diffraction.

a)

when a wave bounces back from a boundary of one medium to another

b)

the bending of waves as they pass into another medium

c)

the transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

d)

the process of waves spreading out as a result of passing through a narrow space

39.

The image represents:

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

40.

The image represents:

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

41.

The image represents:

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

42.

Define renewable energy.

a)

comes from natural resources that 

are naturally replenished

b)

comes from natural resources 

that are not naturally replenished

c)

transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

d)

objects then do not allow heat to be transferred through them very well

43.

Define nonrenewable energy.

a)

comes from natural resources that 

are naturally replenished

b)

comes from natural resources 

that are not naturally replenished

c)

transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

d)

objects then do not allow heat to be transferred through them very well

44.

solar energy

a)

renewable

b)

nonrenewable

45.

wind energy

a)

renewable

b)

nonrenewable

46.

nuclear energy

a)

renewable

b)

nonrenewable

47.

geothermal energy

a)

renewable

b)

nonrenewable

48.

A common disadvantage for renewable energy is the high cost.

a)

true

b)

false

49.

Horizontal rows are called:

a)

periods

b)

groups

c)

ionics

d)

covalents

50.

Vertical columns are called:

a)

periods

b)

groups

c)

ionics

d)

covalents

51.

What determines the identity of an atom?

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

valence electrons

d)

mass

52.

What determines the chemical behavior of an atom?

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

valence electrons

d)

mass

53.

Group #1 =

a)

alkali metals

1 valence electron

b)

alkaline earth metals

2 valence electrons

c)

halogens

7 valence electrons

d)

noble gases

8 valence electrons

54.

Group #2 =

a)

alkali metals

1 valence electron

b)

alkaline earth metals

2 valence electrons

c)

halogens

7 valence electrons

d)

noble gases

8 valence electrons

55.

Group #17 =

a)

alkali metals

1 valence electron

b)

alkaline earth metals

2 valence electrons

c)

halogens

7 valence electrons

d)

noble gases

8 valence electrons

56.

Group #18 =

a)

alkali metals

1 valence electron

b)

alkaline earth metals

2 valence electrons

c)

halogens

7 valence electrons

d)

noble gases

8 valence electrons

57.

Which group of metals is the most reactive?

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

58.

Which group of nonmetals is the most reactive?

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

59.

Which group is unreactive?

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

60.

How many electrons are in full octet?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

61.

What group would oxygen bond with to fill the octet?

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

62.

An ionic bond is between:

a)

metal & nonmetal

b)

metal & metal

c)

nonmetal & nonmetal

d)

metal & gas

63.

The motion of a solid is:

a)

vibrating

b)

sliding

c)

colliding

64.

The motion of a liquid is:

a)

vibrating

b)

sliding

c)

colliding

65.

The motion of a gas is:

a)

vibrating

b)

sliding

c)

colliding

66.

The energy of a solid is:

a)

low

b)

medium

c)

high

67.

The energy of a liquid is:

a)

low

b)

medium

c)

high

68.

The energy of a gas is:

a)

low

b)

medium

c)

high

69.

Write the equation for density.

a)

d / t

b)

vf - vi / t

c)

m / v

d)

mg

70.

Determine the density of an object with a mass of 20 kg and a volume of 5 cm?

a)

100 kg / cm3

b)

4 kg / cm3

c)

0.25 kg / cm3

d)

10 kg / cm3

71.

Define buoyancy.

a)

how much mass is packed into a given volume

b)

the ability or tendency to float in water or some other fluid

c)

positive and negative ions being pulled apart

d)

a push or pull exerted on an object

72.

Object A has a density of 10 g/cm3 and Object B has a density of 20 g/cm3. Which object would have more buoyancy?

a)

Object A

b)

Object B

73.

What is a physical change?

a)

a change in a substance that does not involve a change in the identity of the substance

b)

a change in which one or more substances are converted into different substances

74.

What is a chemical change?

a)

a change in a substance that does not involve a change in the identity of the substance

b)

a change in which one or more substances are converted into different substances

75.

If water changes between a solid, liquid, or gas, this is considered which type of change?

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

76.

How can you increase the rate of solubility of solids in water? Select all that apply.

a)

increase temperature

b)

decrease surface area

c)

increase stirring

d)

increase pressure

77.

Define dissociation.

a)

how much mass is packed into a given volume

b)

the ability or tendency to float in water or some other fluid

c)

positive and negative ions being pulled apart

d)

a push or pull exerted on an object

78.

The mass of a reaction must remain constant from reactants to products.

This statement is the:

a)

Law of Conservation of Momentum

b)

Law of Conservation of Mass

c)

Law of Conservation of Energy

d)

Law of Conservation of Inertia

79.

How can we determine if a chemical equation is balanced?

a)

the reactants and products have the same charge

b)

the number of atoms on the reactants side is the same as the number of atoms on the products side

c)

the coefficients on the reactants side are the same as the coefficients on the products side

d)

the subscripts are the same on the reactants side and the products side

80.

Balance the following equation:

___ Ca + ___ AlN → ___ Ca3N2 + ___ Al

a)

3, 2, 1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

3, 3, 2, 2

d)

2, 1, 2, 3

81.

Which side of the chemical equation is the reactants?

a)

left

b)

right

82.

Which side of the chemical equation is the products?

a)

left

b)

right

83.

Define fusion reactions.

a)

the process of splitting a nucleus to create smaller nuclei and neutrons

b)

the process of combining nuclei to create a larger nucleus

84.

Define fission reactions.

a)

the process of splitting a nucleus to create smaller nuclei and neutrons

b)

the process of combining nuclei to create a larger nucleus

85.

Define isotope.

a)

atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons

b)

positively-charged particle

c)

negatively-charged particle

d)

objects that do not allow heat to be transferred through them very well

86.

How many neutrons does carbon-14 have?

a)

14

b)

8

c)

6

d)

10

87.

How many neutrons does uranium-238 have?

a)

146

b)

238

c)

92

d)

100

88.

How many neutrons does chlorine-36 have?

a)

19

b)

36

c)

7

d)

17

89.

What gaseous compound directly led to the depletion of the ozone layer?

a)

chlorofluorocarbons

b)

amino acids

c)

chlorine gas

d)

hydrocarbons

90.

Batteries disposed of improperly can contaminate the soil and water with:

a)

metals

b)

acids

c)

oil

d)

greenhouse gases