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Biotech Final Exam Review

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Wheat plants that produce the most grain are bred together to produce more grain. What is this an example of?

a)

transgenic breeding

b)

selective breeding

c)

mutagenesis

d)

recombinant organisms

2.

Which government agency would most likely conduct research on preventing an outbreak of a disease?

a)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b)

Centers for Disease Control (CDC)

c)

National Institute for Health (NIH)

d)

United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

3.

The collaborative, international project that aimed to sequence all of the bases of human DNA was called

a)

The ENCODE Project

b)

The Human Genome Project

c)

1000 Genome Project

d)

HapMap

4.

Cotton that is pest resistant due to containing the Bt genes is and example of:

a)

  transgenic crop

b)

genetically engineered enzyme

c)

primer designed crop

d)

monoclonal crop

5.

Which of the following is an example of medical or pharmaceutical biotechnology?

a)

using DNA analysis to identify poached organisms

b)

inserting a gene for making human insulin into a bacterium to allow it to start producing insulin used to manage diabetes

c)

inserting a gene into crops to make it disease resistant

d)

identification of endangered species through DNA fingerprinting

6.

Which government agency conducts and funds biomedical research?

a)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b)

Centers for Disease Control (CDC)

c)

National Institute of Health (NIH)

d)

United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

7.

Biotechnology is _________________

a)

the study and manipulation of living things to make products or services for human benefit.

b)

  the combination of different species DNA to make products or services for human benefit.

c)

  technology created to manipulate human DNA.

8.

Scientific research whose main purpose is to enrich the scientific knowledge base is __.

a)

applied science

b)

pure science

c)

protease

d)

efficate science

9.

How is recombinant chymosin produced?

a)

It is extracted from the stomachs of nursing calves.

b)

It is extracted from plants that naturally produce it.

c)

The gene for chymosin is taken from a cow and added to yeast cells.

d)

It is cultured by using a starter from previous batches of cheese.

10.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
11.

An animal cell has the following except a/an...

a)

Nucleus

b)

Lysosome

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

12.

A sperm cell requires a significant amount of ATP to move through its environment.  Which structures would be responsible for producing that ATP?

a)

mitochondria

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

chloroplasts

13.

If a cell's lysosomes were damaged, which of the following would most likely occur?

a)

The cell would produce more proteins than it needs.

b)

The cell would have chloroplasts that would appear yellow instead of green.

c)

The cell would be less able to break down wastes in the cytoplasm.

d)

The cell would produce less ATP than it needs.

14.

Insulin is a protein that is produced in the cells of the pancreas. It leaves these cells and travels through the blood stream to collect extra sugar from the blood and take it to the liver. In which cell structure would hemoglobin be produced?

a)

attached ribosomes

b)

free ribosomes

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

nucleus

15.

These rectangular cells contain a nucleus and small organelles called chloroplasts. This information lets you know that these are

a)

prokaryotic cells

b)

bacteria cells

c)

plant cells

d)

animal cells

16.
What kind of cell is this?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
17.

A single-celled organism that lacks a membrane-bound nucleus, mitochondria, or any other membrane -bound organelle is called a/an:

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Nucleus

18.

Several enzymes are involved in the process that converts solar energy into chemical energy while using carbon dioxide and water. Where are these enzymes located in the cell?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

chloroplast

c)

cytoplasm

d)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

19.

The structure labeled "G" is responsible for storing food, water and waste. What is the name of structure "G"?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplast

c)

central vacuole

d)

nucleus

e)

cell membrane

20.
A species of salamander has 14 chromosomes in its cells. How many will be in a new eye cell?
a)
7
b)
14
c)
28
d)
56
21.

What are the two parts of the chromosome that are labeled with "?" called?

a)

sister chromatids

b)

genes

c)

mutations

d)

pathogens

22.
Which of the following shows the correct order for mitosis
a)
Prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase
b)
telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
23.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
24.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
25.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
26.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
27.

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate?

a)
M
b)
G1
c)
S
d)
G2
28.

During which phase of the cell cycle would anaphase occur?

a)
M
b)
G1
c)
S
d)
G2
29.

During which phases of mitosis is this structure visible in this exact shape?

a)

prophase and metaphase

b)

metaphase and anaphase

c)

anaphase and telophase

d)

interphase and telophase

30.

During which phase of the cell cycle would metaphase occur?

a)
M
b)
G1
c)
S
d)
G2
31.

How many nucleotides are depicted in the image?

a)

36

b)

1

c)

6

d)

12

32.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
33.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

34.

If a person suffers from a disorder where their DNA fragments are unable to fill in the missing slots in between the fragments of the lagging strand, they would most likely have a disorder that affects which enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

35.

Chargaff's rules state that....

a)

The amount of A's always = the amount of C's and the amount of T's always = the amount of G's.

b)

The amount of A's always = the amount of A's and the amount of C's always = the amount of C's.

c)

The amount of A's always = the amount of G's and the amount of C's always = the amount of T's.

d)

The amount of A's always = the amount of T's and the amount of C's always = the amount of G's.

36.

In the diagram, what is structure #1?

a)

Topisomerase

b)

Primase

c)

Helicase

d)

Single stranded binding protein

37.

A gene is analyzed. It is determined that 30% of the nitrogen bases are adenine. What percent of the nitrogen bases would be composed of guanine?

a)

70%

b)

30%

c)

35%

d)

20%

38.

Which of the following explains why DNA can fit into the nucleus of a cell?

a)

DNA decondenses to form chromatin, which is small enough to fit inside of the nucleus.

b)

DNA winds around histone proteins to form nucleosomes. The nucleosomes wind up to form a chromosome.

c)

Nucleosomes wind around histones to form chromatin. This chromatin will then wind up to form a centriole.

d)

Chromosomes wind around chromatin to form a nucleosome.

39.

What is the mRNA sequence that complements the following DNA sequence: TAT-AAA-CGC-TAG-GCA

a)

ATA-TTT-GCG-ATC-CGT

b)

AUA-UUU-GCG-AUC-CGU

c)

TAT-AAA-CGC-TAG-GCA

d)

UTU-TTT-GCG-UTC-CGT

40.

What process is happening in the diagram?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

dna replication

d)

mitosis

41.

The process of transcription takes place ________, and the process of translation takes place _________.

a)

in the cytoplasm; on the nuclear membrane

b)

In the nucleus; at a chloroplast

c)

in the nucleus; at a ribosome

42.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
43.

If the mRNA codons read ACA-GUA-GAA-UUG-AUC, what amino acids make up the protein sequence?

a)

Cys-Val-Gly-Ser-Stop

b)

Cys-His-Leu-Asn-Stop

c)

Thr-Val-Glu-Leu-Iso

d)

None of the above

44.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
45.

What term describes when mRNA is read 3 consecutive letters (bases) at a time and it codes for a single amino acid?

a)

Codon

b)

Anticodon

c)

Polypeptide

d)

Gene

46.

What is the mRNA sequence that complements the following DNA sequence: TAT-AAA-CGC-TAG-GCA

a)

ATA-TTT-GCG-ATC-CGT

b)

AUA-UUU-GCG-AUC-CGU

c)

TAT-AAA-CGC-TAG-GCA

d)

UTU-TTT-GCG-UTC-CGT

47.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
48.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA makes RNA which produces protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
49.
Which enzyme is responsible for matching the mRNA bases to the DNA template during transcription?
a)
DNA Ligase
b)
Ligase
c)
DNA Polymerase
d)
RNA Polymerase
50.
For 3 amino acids to be coded for, how many nitrogen bases are needed?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
6
d)
9
51.

The DNA sequence ATC-AGC-GCT-GGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

52.

Why do we add detergent or soap to the squished strawberries?

a)

to break up the cell walls

b)

to dissolve the nuclear membrane and cell membrane

c)

to clean the strawberry

d)

to isolate the DNA

53.
What layers must be breached to access the DNA?
a)
cell membrane, nuclear membrane  and cell wall
b)
Cell Wall only
c)
mitochondria
d)
ribosomes
54.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
55.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel electrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
56.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
57.

How many fragments resulted from the cut above?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

58.

From where does Taq polymerase come?

a)

Bacteria that live in hydrothermal vents/hot springs (very hot environments).

b)

Cambodia

c)

The rain forest

d)

The CDC

59.

What happens in the denaturation step of PCR?

a)

The DNA nucleotides are broken apart.

b)

The base-pairing rules for DNA are reversed.

c)

The double-stranded DNA is separated into two single strands of DNA.

d)

The DNA is returned to its natural setting.

60.

What is the purpose of the Extension step of PCR?

a)

To create the primers.

b)

To extend the time it takes to produce DNA.

c)

To allow Taq polymerase to create the complementary strands of DNA.

61.
Why does PCR require a specific type of polymerase?
a)
Taq polymerase can withstand the range of temperatures in PCR without denaturing.
b)
Taq polymerase is the most inexpensive type of polymerase.
c)
Taq polymerase is the most common type of polymerase.
d)
A specific type of polymerase is unnecessary.
62.

After two rounds of PCR, how many DNA molecules would be present?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

63.
A dominant trait shows up __________.
a)
only when two dominant alleles are present
b)
only when one dominant allele is present
c)
when at least one recessive allele is present
d)
when at least one dominant allele is present
64.

This is a pedigree that follows blue eyes which is a recessive trait. What is the genotype of the mother (circle) in generation 1?

a)

Aa

b)

AA

c)

aa

d)

A?

65.

This is a pedigree that follows blue eyes which is a recessive trait. What is the genotype of the father (square) in generation 1?

a)

Aa

b)

AA

c)

aa

d)

A?

66.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross two speckled flowers.

a)

1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

d)

1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue

67.

Jim has type AB blood. His dad could be type O.

a)

True

b)

False

68.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
69.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
70.

Grey fur (G) is dominant over white fur (g) and Black eyes (B) are dominant over red eyes(b).


A male rabbit GGbb crossed with a female rabbit with ggBb.


What percent would be expected to have grey fur and black eyes?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

100%

d)

0%

71.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?

R = round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

72.

If two erminette (heterozygous) chickens were crossed, what is the probability that they would have a black chick? ____%

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

73.

Given the crossover frequency of each of the following genes, construct a chromosome map.  

Gene    Frequency of Crossover

A-C            30%

B-C            45%

B-D            40%

A-D            25%

a)

A - B - C - D

b)

B - D - A - C

c)

B - A - D - C

d)

C - A - D - B

74.

The recombination frequency between gene F and gene G is 10.4%, the recombination frequency between gene F and gene H  is 8.0%, and the recombination frequency between gene G and gene H is 18.4%. Which is the correct arrangement of these genes?  

a)

FGH

b)

FHG

c)

HFG

75.
GMO stands for
a)
genetically made organism
b)
genetically modified organism
c)
gene manipulated organism
d)
Genetic mutant organism
76.

A new variety of rice called golden rice has been genetically modified to have Vitamin A. People in starving countries can eat this rice and receive ample amounts of Vitamin A. Without this rice, people can go blind from Vitamin A deficiency. What word(s) below best describes this rice?

a)

CODIS

b)

antigen

c)

vector

d)

GMOs

77.

What is CODIS?

a)

the US national DNA database

b)

a technology for gene editing

c)

a biotechnology company that specializes in GMOs

d)

an international database agreement dictating use of biotechnology

78.

A working copy of a gene is added directly to the cells of a patient in order to treat a disease. This is called:

a)

pharmacogenomics

b)

transgenesis

c)

gene therapy

d)

cell therapy

79.

The therapy for cancer that involves modifying a patient's own immune cells to be able to recognize and attack cancer cells is:

a)

pharmacogenetics

b)

CAR-T cell therapy

c)

herceptin

d)

TALENS

80.

Pharmacogenetics is:

a)

the study of evolutionary relationship

b)

comparing the similarities and differences in genomes between two species ex: disease and non-disease causing organisms

c)

the use of an individual's genomic information in the choice of drug types and dosage for treatment of disease.

d)

the use of statistics and computer technology to analyze gene sequencing data.

81.

A technique that removes, disrupts, or corrects faulty elements of DNA within a gene rather than replace the gene with a working copy is called __.

a)

gene therapy

b)

gene editing

c)

cell therapy

d)

STR

82.

Allison gets a genetic test and finds out that she has a variant of the BRCA1 gene that increases her risk of developing breast or ovarian cancer. Her doctor recommends that she begins getting annual mammograms and pelvic exams. This is an example of:

a)

gene therapy

b)

personalized medicine

c)

cell therapy

d)

genomic pharmacology

83.

True or False: Vaccines are always made from live, attenuated viruses.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Instead of deciding on cancer treatments purely based on where the cancer is located, scientists have been able to develop treatments that target cancer based on the mutations present. This is possible because of what project?

a)

ClinVar

b)

1000 Genomes

c)

TCGA

d)

International HapMap

85.

A clinician has a patient with a rare mutation in their genome. Which project would provide information about how common this particular mutation is among the world's population?

a)

HapMap

b)

ENCODE

c)

ClinVar

d)

Human Genome Project

86.

A clinician has a patient with a rare mutation in their genome. Which project provided the reference sequence to which this patient's genome is compared?

a)

TCGA

b)

ENCODE

c)

ClinVar

d)

Human Genome Project

87.
What is a way to become immune to a disease without first having the disease?
a)

Antibiotics

b)
Anti-retroviral drugs
c)
Vaccinations
d)
Exposure Therapies
88.

Why do we need a new flu vaccine every year?

a)

Influenza mutates quickly and new strains result

b)

Our bodies rid themselves of the vaccine yearly

c)

When it gets warm outside, vaccines do not work anymore

d)

Cooler temps often cause vaccines to mutate and not be effective

89.
What is the first step of the virus reproduction cycle?
a)

The viruses genetic material (DNA) starts to take over the functions of the cell.

b)

The host cell bursts open, releasing the new viruses.

c)

The virus injects its genetic material into the cell .

d)

A virus attaches to the surface of a host cell.

90.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
91.
What is one way that a lysogenic infection differs from a lytic infection?
a)
A lysogenic virus does not act on bacteria as a lytic virus does.
b)
A lysogenic virus can remain in the host DNA for a longer period without becoming active.
c)
A lysogenic virus contains RNA instead of DNA.
d)
A lysogenic virus directs the production of new viruses right away.
92.
Viruses are exceptions to the cell theory, but they have some characteristics of living things. What is one of these characteristics?
a)
they contain chlorophyll
b)
they reproduce by mitosis
c)
they contain genetic material
d)
they are made up of many specialized cells
93.
This infectious viral disease has many symptoms, from chills, fever, and aching muscles to coughing and sneezing to nausea and vomiting. The symptoms show up within 2-7 days after the cell is infected.  This is an example of?
a)
Lytic Cycle
b)
Lysogenic Cycle
c)
Meiosis
94.

True or False: A virus in the lysogenic state can be forced into the lytic cycle due to certain stressors.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Which of the following is NOT caused by a virus?

a)

flu

b)

COVID-19

c)

common cold

d)

strep throat

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