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Biology Semester 2 Final 21-22

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
2.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
3.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
4.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)

double strand

b)

single strand

5.
The backbone of DNA is made up of _______ & ________ units. 
a)

deoxyribose (sugar) & base

b)

deoxyribose (sugar) & phosphate

c)
base & phosphate
d)
phosphate & phosphate
6.

Which bonds of a DNA strand are weak bonds, which are easily broken to allow for replication?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Covalent bonds

c)

Ionic bonds

d)

Noncovalent bonds

7.
What type of bond holds together the nitrogenous bases in DNA?
a)
covalent
b)
hydrogen
c)
ionic
d)

carbon

8.

What are the nitrogenous bases of DNA? Select all that apply.

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Thymine

9.

Which component (s) of the DNA molecule make up the interior of the structure (are found inside of the 2 backbones)?

a)

Nitrogenous bases

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Phosphate group

10.

How does RNA differ from DNA?

a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
11.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
12.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

13.

RNA has what base that is instead of thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

14.

Which RNA carries the message?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

15.

DNA controls the cell by instructing it when and how to make different

a)

nucleotides

b)

proteins

c)

fatty acids

d)

carbohydrates

16.

What is a gene?

a)

A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein

b)

The portion of the chromosome that does not get transcribed

c)

A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein

d)

The collection of your chromosomes

17.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
18.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
19.

DNA polymerase and helicase are

a)

lipids

b)

enzymes

c)
sugar
d)
starch
20.

Which enzyme is needed to join nucleotides to create a new strand of DNA in DNA replication?

a)
DNA helicase
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA replicase
d)
DNA polymerase
21.
Which enzyme is needed to unwind and unzip the double helix in order to make a copy of it?
a)
DNA helicase
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA replicase
d)
DNA polymerase
22.
The mRNA codon UGA would correspond with which tRNA anticodon?
a)
ACT
b)
ACU
c)
UCU
d)
ACA
23.
What is this a picture of?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
pRNA
24.
An RNA molecule is
a)
double helix
b)
always double stranded
c)
usually double stranded
d)
single stranded
25.
How many bases are in one codon?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
26.

Which 2 processes are involved in protein synthesis?

a)

Translation and Meiosis

b)

Transcription and Translation

c)

Meiosis and Mitosis

d)

None of these

27.
If the mRNA sequence is AGA UUU CGA GCC,
what is the complementary tRNA anticodons?
a)
AGA TTT CGA GCC
b)
UCU AAA GCU CGG
c)
TCT AAA GCT CGG
d)
UCU AAA CGA GGG
28.
Where in the cell does translation take place?
a)
Nucleus
b)
DNA
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Ribosome
29.
What are the building blocks of proteins?
a)
amino acid
b)
fatty acid
c)
nucleotide
d)
lipid
30.

Chain of amino acids is called...

a)

Amino Acid

b)

Polypeptide

c)

Monomer

d)

Polymer

e)

Protein

31.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
32.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
33.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
34.
DNA travels outside of the nucleus.
a)
true
b)
false
35.
Messenger RNA carries a copy of the DNA code.
a)
true
b)
false
36.

Blue eyes

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

37.
Alternative forms of a gene are called
a)
Alleles
b)
Homozygous
c)
DNA
d)
Genetics
38.
The allele combinations
a)
genetics
b)
mitosis
c)
genotype
d)
phenotype
39.
Hair colour is an example of
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
40.
What is called when a organism has  two different alleles for a trait. Tt or Rr
a)
Heterozygous
b)
Homozygous
c)
Domozygous
d)
Thermozygous
41.
What is called when a organism has two identical alleles for a trait. TT or tt. RR or rr
a)
Heterozygous
b)
Homozygous
c)
Domozygous
d)
Thermozygous
42.
In a certain species of plant, the color purple (P) is dominant to the color white (p).
According to the Punnett Square, what is the probability of an offspring being purple?
a)
25%
b)
0%
c)
100%
d)
50%
43.
What is the purpose of mitosis?
a)

to grow, replace, and repair body cells

b)
to create sex cells
c)
to create 2 different cells
d)
to create haploids
44.

What is the purpose of meiosis?

a)

to grow, replace, and repair body cells

b)
to create sex cells
c)

to create cancer fighting cells

d)

to create DNA and RNA

45.

An exact copy of a cell/organism is produced...

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

46.

Unique and different offspring is a result of

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

47.

Results in 2 identical daughter cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis & Meiosis

48.

Results in diploid daughter cells (chromosome number remains the same as parent cell)

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis & Meiosis

49.

Results in 4 different (non-identical) daughter cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis & Meiosis

50.

Results in haploid daughter cells (chromosome number is half the amount of the parent cell)

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis & Meiosis

51.

Which of the following does not increase genetic variations?

a)

Crossing over

b)

Random assortment of chromosomes

c)

Mutations during DNA replication

d)

Mitosis

52.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
53.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
54.
this image is an example of
a)
codominance
b)
dominance
c)
incomplete dominance
55.
In some carnations, flower color exhibits codominance.  Identify the correct genotypes for red, white, and speckled carnations.
a)
Red = RR, white = rr, speckled = Rr
b)
Red = RR, white = WW, speckled = rw
c)
Red = RR, white = ww, Speckled = Rw
d)
Red = RR, white = WW, speckled = RW
56.

In some carnations, flower color exhibits codominance. When crosses, Red (R) and white (W) flowers make speckled flowers (RW) that show both colors. Complete a cross between 2 speckled flowers and find the genotype percentage.

a)

0 RR: 100% RW: 0 WW

b)

50% RR: 50% RW: 0 WW

c)

25% RR: 50% RW: 25% WW

d)

0 RR: 50% RW: 50% WW

57.
When we say that a woman is a carrier for a genetic disease or disorder it means that
a)
she has 1 gene, but not the disorder
b)
she has 2 genes for the disorder
c)
she can pass the gene only to male children
d)
she can pass the gene only to female children
58.
If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be 
a)
sex-linked trait
b)
polygenic trait
c)
codominant trait
d)
incomplete dominance trait
59.

Which sex chromosomes do females have?

a)

XX

b)

XY

60.

Which sex chromosomes do males have?

a)

XX

b)

XY

61.

Hemophilia is an x-linked recessive trait. Which genotype represents a carrier female?

a)

XHXH

b)

XHXh

c)

XhXh

d)

XHT

e)

XhY

62.

What would the genotype of a sex-liked recessive colorblind male?

a)

XNY

b)

XNYn

c)

XnY

d)

XnYn

63.

A grizzly bear survives because he is well-adapted to his environment. When he reproduces he passes on those traits to his offspring, this process is called

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Random mutations

d)

Variations in a species

64.

Which of the following are evidence of common ancestry?

a)

Comparing Anatomy

b)

Studying Embryos

c)

Fossil Record

d)

All of these

e)

DNA Similarities

65.

A gene pool consists of

a)

all of the genes, including all the different alleles, that are present in a population

b)

some of the genes, including the different alleles, that are present in a population

c)

all of the genes that are present in all populations

d)

all of the genes, including all the different alleles, that are present in all populations

66.

The number of times a particular allele appears in a gene pool is known as the

a)

population of the allele

b)

relative percentage of the allele

c)

frequency of the allele

d)

evolution of the allele

67.

Evolution can be defined as a ____________

a)

change in the frequency of an allele in a population over time

b)

change in the frequency of reproduction in a population

c)

change in the frequency of an allele in an individual

68.
Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...
a)
random chance
b)
natural selection
c)
non-random mating (sexual selection)
d)
artificial selection
69.

What is a mutation?

a)

A change in a chromosomal region.

b)

A negative change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA.

c)

A change in one base pair in DNA.

d)

Any change in the sequence of DNA.

70.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
71.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
72.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
73.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
74.
According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
75.

An inherited trait that helps those organisms that have it to survive

a)

niche

b)

structure

c)

characteristic

d)

adaptation

76.

individuals with alleles for an extreme type are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

genetic drift

77.

the selection pressure favors the extreme phenotypes, dividing the population into 2 distinct groups

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

geographic selection

d)

disruptive selection

78.

Individuals with intermediate traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

disruptive selection

79.

Tall kelp have a distinct advantage over shorter kelp in receiving needed sunlight in their ocean environment

a)

directional selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

sexual selection

e)

artificial selection

80.

Aspen trees that are over 25 m tend to blow over in high winds; aspen that are under 15 m don't get enough sun

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

81.

Modern corn plants are the descendants of teosinte, a wild corn plant that has been selectively bred for over 1000 years.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

82.

Bacteria that are too large cannot obtain nutrients efficiently and bacteria that are too small cannot compete for those nutrients successfully

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

83.
RNA is read in sections called:
a)
Triplets
b)
Genes
c)
Codons
d)
Genes
84.

What amino acid does the mRNA sequence "AAA" code for?

a)

Lysine (Lys)

b)

Glycine (Gly)

c)

Tyrosine (Tyr)

d)

Alanine (Ala)

85.

What amino acid does the mRNA sequence GUG code for?

a)

Serine (Ser)

b)

Valine (Val)

c)

Histidine (His)

d)

Cystine (UGU)

86.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
87.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
88.

The probability of an organism surviving and reproducing

a)

Variation

b)

Species

c)

Fitness

d)

Gene

89.

Severe population reduction reduces the gene pool

and increases the rate of genetic drift. Woolly mammoths became extinct. Elephants survived.

a)

Gene Pool

b)

Bottleneck Effect

c)

Founders Effect

d)

Gene Frequency

90.

What is one of the main sources of genetic variation in a population? (think about the rock pocket mouse)

a)

mutations

b)

random chance

c)

gene flow

d)

genetic drift

91.

Structures that are no longer used, like a dolphins pelvic bones, are called:

a)

analogous structures

b)

homologous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

identical structures

92.

A small group of squirrels gets separated from the rest of the population due to a large flood. These squirrels, now confined to this new island, begin to start a new population.

a)

Genetic drift

b)

Gene flow

c)

Bottleneck effect

d)

Founder effect

93.
Scientists use radioactive decay to measure...
a)
relative time
b)
absolute time
c)
half-lives
d)
time of day
94.
How does absolute age differ from relative age?
a)
only absolute dating indicates which rock is older than another
b)
only absolute dating finds the age in years
c)
only relative dating finds the age in years
95.
Which type of dating method can be used on rock layers by applying the Law of Superposition?
a)
relative dating
b)
absolute dating
c)
radioactive dating
d)
radiometric dating
96.

Evolution can be defined as a ____________

a)

change in the frequency of an allele in a population over time

b)

change in the frequency of reproduction in a population

c)

change in the frequency of an allele in an individual

97.

An extensive drought in the plains threatens wildebeest, giraffe, zebra, and springbok populations.

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

98.

Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?

a)

human activities

b)

unusual weather

c)

competition

d)

natural disaster

99.

Which of the following are examples of a density independent factors?

a)

forest fire

b)

seasonal cycles

c)

storms

d)

disease

100.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

competition for resources

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

natural disasters

101.

A species that plays a critical role in the health, maintenance, growth, or definition of an ecosystem.

a)

keystone

b)

invasive

c)

engineer

d)

predator

102.

a species that is not native to a particular region and has no natural predators and little competition

a)

consumer species

b)

producer species

c)

invasive species

d)

adapted species

103.

A population is

a)

a group of similar species in different areas

b)

a group of the same species in the same geographic area.

c)

a group of several species in the same geographic area

d)

a group of several species along with their abiotic factors in a small area.

104.

A community is

a)

Several different populations scattered across several states.

b)

Several different organisms in the same geographic area

c)

One type of organism in the same geographic area

d)

Several different populations in the same geographic area

105.

Why is biodiversity in an ecosystem so important?

a)

Because it can help humans where to determine good places to develop farm land.

b)

Because places that have a healthy biodiversity are unaffected by major disturbances.

c)

Because having a high biodiversity allows ecosystems to withstand major changes.

d)

Because having a high biodiversity allows for fewer opportunities of competition for similar resources.

106.
Producers get their energy from the ______.
a)
water
b)
Sun
c)
eating animals
d)
eating plants
107.
What is the name of the organism at the beginning of every food chain?
a)
producers
b)
consumers
c)
herbivores
d)
carnivores
108.
Which organisms are the consumers?
a)
deer and squirrel
b)
flowers and deer
c)
deer and mushrooms
d)
squirrel and mushrooms
109.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
110.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
111.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat or used by the organism for survival?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
112.
In the energy pyramid here, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
113.
If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?
a)
10 Kcal
b)
1 Kcal
c)
100 Kcal
d)
1000 Kcal
114.
Birds live in the decidious forest.  
a)
habitat
b)
niche
115.
The lion lives on the savanna. 
a)
habitat
b)
niche
116.
The lion is a carnivore. 
a)
habitat 
b)
niche
117.
Birds parent their offspring. 
a)
habitat 
b)
niche
118.
the role an organism plays in the environment. 
a)
habitat 
b)
niche
119.

The system that contains all living things on Earth.

a)

Biosphere

b)

Atmoshpere

c)

Hydrosphere

d)

Geosphere

120.

Regions of the planet with similar types of life and climates are called

a)

biomes

b)

kingdoms

c)

spheres

d)

systems

121.

What is an ecosystem??

a)

A group of organism of one species

b)

All the living and non-living things that interact in an area

c)

The study of the interaction between living organism and their environment

d)

Soil, water, air and sunliight

122.
Water and food are examples of _____________ for populations
a)
emigration
b)
carrying capacity
c)
limiting factor
d)
immigration
123.
If an area has all the wolves that it can support, the wolf population has reached its _______________________.
a)
limiting factor
b)
carrying capacity
c)
emmigration
d)
immigration
124.
What factor describes when populations increase because animals are moving into a population?
a)
Emigration
b)
Limiting Factors
c)
Immigration
d)
Exponential Growth
125.
This occurs when organisms move out of an ecosystem that is in chaos.
a)
Immigration
b)
Emmigration
c)
Birth Rate
d)
Death Rate
126.
Which option is abiotic?
a)
Plants
b)
Bacteria
c)
Water
d)
Fungi
127.
Which option is biotic?
a)
Plants
b)
Air
c)
Water
d)
Energy
128.
The hydrosphere includes
a)
water
b)
ice
c)
dogs
d)
lava
129.
This volcano is an example of something you would find in the:
a)
Atmosphere
b)
Biosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Geosphere
130.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
131.
Combustion is another word for __________.
a)
Transportation
b)
Respiration
c)
Fossil Fuels
d)
Burning
132.
TRUE or FALSE?
All of the carbon in existence is continually recycled in the carbon cycle.
a)
True
b)
False
133.
What growth pattern describes a population whose growth rate slows or stops following a period of exponential growth?
a)
logistic growth
b)
population growth
c)
exponential growth
d)
predator-prey cycle
134.

Which type of growth is best illustrated by this rabbit population?

a)

exponential

b)

logistic

c)

S-shaped

d)

predator-prey

135.

According to the graph, what is causing the deer population to decrease

a)

They got sick

b)

The wolf population is decreasing

c)

The wolf population increased

d)

They ran out of food

136.

Predator population lags behind prey population because......

a)

Increase in predators leads to decrease in prey

b)

Increase in predators leads to increase in prey

c)

Increase in predators leads to decrease in producers

d)

Increase in producers leads to increase in prey

137.
Which one of these does not add CO2 to the atmosphere?
a)
cooking with gas
b)
planting trees
c)
burning wood
d)
riding in a bus
138.
How do living organisms return carbon to the atmosphere in the carbon cycle?
a)
respiration and photosynthesis
b)
 decomposition and respiration
139.

Which phrase is TRUE about the rates of processes in the carbon cycle?

a)

slow - photosynthesis

b)

fast - sedimentation

c)

slow - combustion

d)

fast - respiration

140.
Deforestation contributes to the greenhouse gasses by
a)
loss of trees that would otherwise remove carbon dioxide from the air
b)
as trees are cut, they release carbon dioxide
c)
increasing the amount of oxygen in the air
141.
Carbon is stored in
a)
trees and other living things
b)
oceans
c)
underground in soil and fossil fuels
d)
all are correct
142.
What is the mixture of gases surrounding the Earth called
a)
atmosphere
b)
carbon
c)
concentration
d)
emissions

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ESS Midterm Review (Units 1 & 2)

141 questions

ESS Midterm Review (Units 1 & 2)

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade

SOL Review Questions 1/3

144 questions

SOL Review Questions 1/3

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

CA1 Review

143 questions

CA1 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

marine end of unit 1

143 questions

marine end of unit 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Review

137 questions

Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Chemistry Final Review

143 questions

Chemistry Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade