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DNA/RNA and Genetics

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
2.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
3.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
4.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

5.

What enzyme does transcription use?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

helicase

6.

Which RNA carries the message?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

7.
What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?
a)
phosphate
b)
nitrogenous base
c)
deoxyribose
d)
sugar
8.
If one strand of DNA has the sequence TTACCG, the sequence of the other strand of the same molecule will be
a)
AATGGC
b)
TTACCG
c)
AACGGC
d)
AATGGG
9.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
10.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
11.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
12.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
13.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
14.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
15.

How many nucleotides equal make up a codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

16.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
17.

Nucleic acids are the building blocks of...

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Atoms

d)

Nucleotides

18.

Where does transcription take place in PROKARYOTIC cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

19.

What is the difference between the sugar in DNA and RNA?

a)

In DNA, the sugar is Deoxyribose while in RNA the sugar is Ribose

b)

In DNA, the sugar is Ribose while in RNA the sugar is Deoxyribose

c)

In DNA, it is a 5 carbon sugar while in RNA it is only a 4 carbon sugar.

d)

There is no difference between the sugars

20.

WHERE does TRANSLATION occur?

a)

ribosome

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

cell

21.

Which organelle makes proteins?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplast

22.

The triplets of mRNA read by a ribosome are called _____.

a)

anticodons

b)

coded gene

c)

codons

d)

rRNA

23.

Which type of RNA is the message of the decoded gene from DNA?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rDNA

24.

Which type of RNA is the carrier of amino acids?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

25.

Which type of RNA reads the coded gene and makes a protein?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

26.

What is translation?

a)

the process in which DNA is copied to make another molecule of DNA

b)

the process in which DNA is coded into mRNA

c)

the process in which mRNA is decoded into a protein

d)

the process in which enzymes break down mRNA

27.

What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Phosphate Groups

28.

What is the name of a chain of amino acids?

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

polypeptide

c)

amino acid chain

d)

double helix

29.

Which amino acid matches with the following codon:

GAU

a)

GLU

b)

SER

c)

ASP

d)

ILE

30.

Which amino acid matches with the following codon:

CAC

a)

STOP

b)

HIS

c)

LYS

d)

ARG

31.

Use the mRNA below to select the correct amino acid sequence:

AUG-UCA-AAA-UAG

a)

MET-SER-LYS-STOP

b)

MET-THR-LYS-TYR

c)

LEU-SER-CYS-STOP

d)

ILE-LYS-SER-STOP

32.

True or False: RNA is double stranded.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

What does tRNA stand for?

a)

transition RNA

b)

transcription RNA

c)

transfer RNA

d)

translation RNA

34.

mRNA is read into amino acids during what process?

a)

transcription

b)

transfer

c)

translation

d)

transition

35.

Where would you find the anti-codon?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

ribosome

d)

rRNA

36.

What do tRNA bring to the ribosome?

a)

glucose

b)

fatty acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

amino acids

37.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
38.
Which phase of which process does this picture show?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
39.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA makes RNA which produces protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
40.

When the mRNA sequence leave the nucleus, what organelle does it travel to?

a)

mitochondria

b)

smooth ER

c)

ribosome

d)

vacuole

41.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

42.

What does tRNA "transfer"?

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

AUG

43.

What do amino acids come together to join?

a)

a growing polypeptide chain (protein)

b)

a growing lipid

c)

a growing carbohydrate

d)

a growing nucleic acid

44.

A polypeptide only becomes a functioning protein after it has folded into its exact 3D shape.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

This laboratory procedure is known as

a)

CLONING

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

chromatography

d)

use of a dichotomous key

46.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

47.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

48.

Which chemicals are used to cut DNA into fragments for a gel electrophoresis procedure?

a)

enzymes

b)

molecular bases

c)

hormones

d)

ATP molecules

49.

This technique used to analyze DNA involves the

a)

synthesis of new DNA strands from subunits

b)

separation of DNA fragments based on size

c)

production of genetically engineered DNA molecules

d)

removal of defective genes from DNA

50.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
51.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
52.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
53.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
54.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
55.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel electrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
56.

Once DNA has been extracted from the nucleus of a cell, it is exposed to ______ ______ that act like biochemical scissors to cut the DNA.

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

gel agarose

c)

clotting factors

d)

electric shock

57.
Which two bat species are most closely related?
a)
 Bat 1 and Bat 2
b)
Bat 1 and Bat 3
c)
Bat 2 and Bat 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
58.
What applications can gel electrophoresis be used for?
a)
Parental Testing
b)
Criminal Investigations
c)
Sequence Endangered Species DNA
d)
All of the above
59.
The exact genetic makeup of an organism, such as RR, Tt, PP is its?
a)
phenotype
b)
dominance
c)
genotype
d)
trait
60.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
61.

A circular piece of DNA, found in bacteria, is called:

a)

A plasmid

b)

mRNA

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleotide

62.
When DNA is manipulated and moved from one source to another it is known as
a)
genetic engineering
b)
electrophoresis
c)
gene therapy
d)
GMO
63.
Genes found on DNA contain the instructions for making  
a)
pyrimidines 
b)
pyrimidines
c)
proteins
d)
purines
64.
Any change or mistake in DNA replication can cause a ________  
a)
cancer cell 
b)
virus
c)
disease
d)
mutation
65.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
66.
Which of the following terms refers to the different possibilities of a gene?
a)
chromosome
b)
DNA
c)
Punnett Squares
d)
allele
67.

The process of man choosing organisms with the most desirable traits and mating them is known as

a)

Cloning

b)

Natural selection

c)

Selective breeding

68.
Which term refers to a farmer choosing the best corn from this year to plant next year?
a)
natural selection
b)
selective breeding
c)
genetic engineering
d)
genetic transformation
69.

If the diploid (2n) chromosome number of a

cloned plant is 12, what is the chromosome

number of the plant cell used to produce the

cloned plant?

a)

3

b)

12

c)

6

d)

24

70.

Breeders can increase the genetic variation in a population by introducing __________?

a)

Reductions

b)

Inductions

c)

Mutations

d)

Additives

71.

What is the process of making changes in the DNA code of living organisms?

a)

Selective Breeding

b)

Genetic Engineering

c)

Cell Transformation

d)

Cell Editing

72.

A member of a population of genetically identical cells produced from a single cell is a...

a)

Clone

b)

Plasmid

c)

Mutant

d)

Sequence

73.

Which one of the following statements is an accurate description of genes?

a)

DNA is made of carbohydrates that code for genes

b)

Genes are made of DNA and code for proteins.

c)

Genes are made of proteins that code for nitrogen bases.

d)

Proteins are made of genes and code for DNA

74.

When comparing a skin cell, eye cell, and leg cell; Every cell in each of these structures contains

a)

proteins that are all identical

b)

organelles for the synthesis of glucose

c)

equal amounts of ATP

d)

identical genetic information

75.

Although a liver cell and a muscle cell in a human developed from the same single cell, their appearance and functions are different. This is because the liver cell

a)

expresses different genes than the muscle cell

b)

contains different genes than the muscle cell

c)

lacks the genes found in muscle cells

d)

destroys the muscle cell genes it contains

76.

In the summer, the arctic fox appears brown because its cells produce a dark pigment. However, in the winter, the arctic fox appears white because the dark pigment is not produced. The color change is most likely due to the effect of

a)

poor nutrition on cell growth and development

b)

increased pollution on genetic mutations

c)

environmental conditions on gene expression

d)

different genes produced in the different seasons

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