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Biology B Semester Review

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the function of DNA?

a)

to provide carbohydrates for cellular functions

b)

provide instructions for making proteins

c)

to fight off infections

d)

allows us to communicate

2.
What nitrogen base pairs with adenine in DNA?
a)
T
b)
U
c)
C
d)
G
3.
A three base code for an amino acid is called a/an
a)
nucleotide
b)
deoxyribose sugar
c)
codon
d)
phosphate
4.
A nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate make up a unit that connects together to make a nucleic acid.  This unit is called a/an
a)
amino acid
b)
nucleotide
c)
hydrogen bond
d)
nucleus
5.
A long chain of amino acids is a/an
a)
protein
b)
nucleic acid
c)
tRNA
d)
mRNA
6.
If a DNA molecule consists of 29% Guanine, how much cytosine will it contain?
a)
29%
b)
58%
c)
21%
d)
I have no idea.
7.
If a DNA molecule contains 44% for A and T combined, how much G will be present?
a)
66%
b)
56%
c)
28%
d)
22%
8.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
ribosome
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
d)
protein
9.
When DNA is copied into mRNA it is called
a)
protein synthesis
b)
translation
c)
transcription
d)
replication
10.
Any change in the DNA is called a/an
a)
mistake
b)
exon
c)
mutation
d)
intron
11.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
12.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
13.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
14.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
ribosome
d)
nucleus
15.

What process is steps 1-3 referring to?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Nucleus

16.

Why must transcription occur where DNA can be found?

a)

because DNA can't leave

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

17.

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

18.

TRANSLATE this RNA sequence: AUGCAAUGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Met-His-Stop

c)

Thr-Glu-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

19.
One human disease is caused by a change in one codon in a gene from GAA to GUA. The disease is a result of 
a)
a mutation
b)
crossing-over
c)
a meiosis error
d)
polyploidy
20.
which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
21.
What molecules do both DNA and RNA contain?
a)
uracil
b)
nucleotides
c)
thymine
d)
deoxyribose
22.
Which of the following best describes how DNA and RNA are similar?
a)
they both contain A and T
b)
They both have a double helix
c)
They are both composed of 5 different nucleotides
d)
they both have C and G
23.
The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
12
d)
20
24.
DNA sequence is ACAGTGC. How would this be coded on mRNA?
a)
TGTCACG
b)
UGUCACG
c)
GUGACAU
d)
CACUGUA
25.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
26.
Which process?
a)
mutation
b)
transcription
c)
respiration
d)
translation
27.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
28.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
29.
In which type of cells will mitosis occur?
a)
egg cells
b)
sperm cells
c)
jail cells
d)
Body cells except the sperm and egg cells
30.
After meiosis is complete, the new cells:
a)
are all identical
b)
are all different
c)
are half identical and half different
d)
are all stretched out
31.
How many daughter cells are produced from meiosis ?
a)
10
b)
6
c)
4
d)
2
32.
Humans have how may chromosomes ?
a)
112
b)
46
c)
8
d)
67
33.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
34.
Name that process
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Mutation
d)
Cell Cycle
35.
In Meiosis if the parent cells has 40 chromosomes, then how many will the daughter cells have 
a)
40
b)
10
c)
20
d)
18
36.
A cat has a total of 38 chromosomes in its body cells.  How many in its gametes?
a)
38
b)
19
c)
76
d)
10
37.

a photograph or picture of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs is a ______________

a)

pedigree

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Venn Diagram

d)

Karyotype

38.
Which sex chromosomes would indicate a typical human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
39.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
40.
The results of the karyotype indicate that an individual has 3 chromosome #21. Which of the following genetic disorders do they have?
a)
Edwards Syndrome
b)
Patau's Syndrome
c)
Down's Syndrome
d)
Klinefelter's Syndrome
41.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
42.
What is the haploid number for this Karyotype?
a)
26
b)
27
c)
52
d)
54
43.

If the Diploid number for carrots is 18, the haploid number is

a)

18

b)

9

c)

27

d)

36

44.

Which term means "same alleles"?

a)

heterozygous.

b)

genes.

c)

homozygous.

d)

DNA.

45.

A genotype is

a)

the physical appearance of an organism.

b)

a made up word for genes.

c)

not even a word.

d)

two alleles that an organism possesses.

46.

This trait is

a)

autosomal recessive.

b)

sex-linked.

c)

autosomal dominant.

47.

If the person is filled in

a)

they don't have the disorder.

b)

they are homozygous dominant.

c)

they are heterozygous.

d)

they are homozygous recessive.

48.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
49.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
50.
What is the probability of a purple-horned unicorn if a heterozygous pink-horned unicorn is crossed with a heterozygous pink-horned unicorn?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
51.
A brown-furred ewok has 12 babies with a black-furred ewok. 9 ewok babies have black fur, while 3 ewok babies have brown fur. What are the probable genotypes of the parents?
a)
BB and bb
b)
BB and Bb
c)
Bb and Bb
d)
Bb and bb
52.
Bob the abominable snowman lives in the snowy Andes mountains. He has white fur, which blends in nicely. He is therefore dismayed when his mate keeps having red-furred babies. What is Bob's likely genotype?
a)
Homozygous Dominant
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Homozygous Recessive
53.
What phenotype would result from crossing a homozygous dominant purple-flowered pea plant with a homozygous recessive white-flowered pea plant?
a)
Pp
b)
Purple
c)
White
d)
PP and pp
54.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
55.
If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)
a)
close relative
b)
early ancestor
c)
unrelated organism
d)
embryological stage
56.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
57.
A remnant or trace of an organism from the past is called a _______.
a)
Ancestor
b)
Skeleton
c)
Fossil
d)
Imprints
58.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
59.
Survival of the fittest or when favorable adaptations reproduce faster is called what?
a)
Evolution
b)
Adaptation
c)
Natural selection
d)
Fossilization
60.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
61.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
62.
If species A and B have very similar genes and proteins, what is probably TRUE?
a)
species A and B share a relatively recent common ancestor
b)
species A evolved independently of species B for a long period
c)
species A is younger than species B
d)
species A is older than species B
63.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
 fitness
64.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
65.
Farmers breed cows to produce high amounts of milk. This is an example of...
a)
Natural Selection 
b)
Variations in a species 
c)

Artificial Selection

d)
inbreeding
66.

According to this phylogenetic tree, which creature is the least related out of all pictured?

a)

Fish

b)

Frog

c)

Salamander

d)

Human

67.

Which group of animals on this tree are most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these are related to birds

68.

What number is the common ancestor of C and D

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

69.

Phylogeny is usually represented by a tree diagram called a _________ - _____

a)

Genetic Line

b)

Phylogenetic Tree

c)

Photographic Queue

d)

Future Babies

70.

What is the common ancestor of Letters A, B, C, D, E?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

71.

Who is the closest relative to the brown bear?

a)

Giant panda

b)

Dog

c)

Lesser panda

d)

Sun bear

72.

individuals with alleles for an extreme type are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

genetic drift

73.

the selection pressure favors the extreme phenotypes, dividing the population into 2 distinct groups

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

geographic selection

d)

disruptive selection

74.

Individuals with intermediate traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

disruptive selection

75.

Aspen trees that are over 25 m tend to blow over in high winds; aspen that are under 15 m don't get enough sun

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

76.

snails with a forward spiral and snails with a backward spiral have an advantage in their environment

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

77.

Fish that produce 40,000+ eggs have greater fitness than fish that produce less than this number

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

78.

Ground finches born following a severe drought tend to have larger beaks (on average) than the previous generation.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

79.

Forming of a new species by evolution from pre-existing species.

a)

Speciation

b)

Extinction

c)

Gradualism

d)

Punctuated equilibrium

80.

When unrelated species evolve similar characteristics because they live in similar environments.

a)

Convergent Evolution

b)

Coevolution

c)

Adaptive Radiation

d)

Divergent Evolution

81.

Two organisms change in response to each other forming a specialized relationship.

a)

Coevolution

b)

Convergent Evolution

c)

Gradualism

d)

Extinction

82.
What is convergent evolution?
a)
evolution toward similar traits in unrelated species
b)
evolution toward different traits in closely related species
c)
elimination of a species from Earth
d)
the rise of two or more species from one existing species
83.
 What type of evolution is demonstrated in this photo?
a)
Coevolution
b)
Convergent evolution
c)
Punctuated evolution
d)
Gradualistic evolution
84.

Hummingbirds have a beak just the right length to reach the nectar in a cardinal flower and as they feed their foreheads bump into the pollen structure. Cardinal flowers are red which hummingbirds can see but bees can’t. Cardinal flower’s pollen structure is just the right length for the hummingbird to pick up pollen as it feeds

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Coevolution

85.

In the ocean surrounding Antarctica, there are fish that survive the cold water by using a molecule made of glycoproteins that circulates the blood and keeps it from freezing. Certain kinds of worms that live in the Arctic ocean also make antifreeze proteins that help them live in icy water.

a)

Convergent Evolution

b)

Divergent Evolution

c)

Coevolution

86.

The beaver in North America and the capybara in South America share a common ancestor, but have evolved over time to look different

a)

Convergent Evolution

b)

Divergent

c)

Coevolution

87.

The Galápagos tortoises share a common ancestor, but have necks of different lengths to best reach the food they need in their environment.

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Coevolution

88.

Whales, sharks, and penguins all have streamlined bodies and fins/flippers for moving in water even though they belong in different classes of animals (mammals, fish, and birds)

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Coevolution

89.
All these organisms share the same
a)
Biome
b)
Population
c)
Community
d)
Habitat
90.
What does every food chain start with? (Even if it's not drawn or written there!)
a)
producers
b)
sun
c)
consumer
d)
decomposers
91.
An organism that needs to eat other organisms to obtain energy is known as a:
a)
Autotroph
b)
Producer
c)
Consumer
d)
Mutualist
92.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
93.
The rabbit in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Decomposer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
94.
Where an organism lives
a)
habitat
b)
niche 
c)
heterotrogh
d)
biosphere
95.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Secondary Consumer
96.
What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a)
energy path
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food pyramid
97.
An illustration that uses arrows to show the MANY possible directions in which matter and energy can pass through the organisms in an ecosystem.
a)
Food chain
b)
Food web
c)
Energy Pyramid
d)
Succession Map
98.
The nonliving aspects of an ecosystem.
a)
Abiotic factors
b)
Biotic factors
99.
The living portions of the ecosystem.
a)
Biotic factors
b)
Abiotic factors
100.
A collection of organisms that make up a community as well as all of the nonliving aspects of the environment.
a)
Population
b)
Community
c)
Habitat
d)
Ecosystem
101.
As you move upward, from level to level, in an energy pyramid, energy _____.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
increases exponentially
102.
What are the Abiotic factors in this image? 
a)
water, sunlight, dirt, air
b)
birds and plants
c)
birds, water, dirt
d)
plants, water
103.

The largest number of individuals that an environment can support long term is...

a)

carrying capacity

b)

emigration

c)

immigration

d)

population density

104.

What happens if a population grows past its carrying capacity?

a)

The population keeps growing

b)

The population starts to die off

c)

The entire species will go extinct

d)

The carrying capacity just increases

105.

This may cause a population to increase

a)

increase of food supply

b)

removal of predators

c)

removal of disease

d)

all of these

106.

What are factors that affect carrying capacity?

a)

Biotic only

b)

Biotic and abiotic

c)

Depends on the ecosystem

d)

Abiotic only

107.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

1000

b)

8000

c)

800

d)

600

108.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

around 500

b)

more than 800

c)

less than 300

d)

around 700

109.
If a disease destroying barley plants in a field swept through an ecosystem, what would happen to the barley eating bird population in the the field ?
a)
The bird population would stay the same
b)
The bird population would infinitely increase
c)
The bird population would decrease
110.

A scientist was studying a population of fish in a pond over a period of 10 years. He observed that the population increased each year for 3 years, and then remained nearly constant for the rest of the study. The best explanation for this observation is that the population had

a)

stopped reproducing

b)

reached carrying capacity

c)

mutated into a different species

d)

run out of food and all died

111.

Which group is not represented in the food web?

a)

producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

decomposers

112.

What do the arrows in the food chain indicate about the flow of energy in an ecosystem?

a)

Energy is continuously recycled by the organisms in an ecosystem.

b)

Energy flows in one direction in an ecosystem, from producers to consumers.

c)

More of the available energy in an ecosystem is given to large animals than to small animals.

d)

Organisms at the end of the food chain receive more energy than those at the beginning.

113.

In this energy pyramid, which organism would most likely be in level 2?

a)

bird

b)

fox

c)

caterpillar

d)

tree

114.

How would the removal of earthworms from the food chain affect the other organisms?

a)

The number of bass will increase.

b)

The number of crayfish will decrease.

c)

The crayfish will get their energy directly from the sun.

d)

The number of bass and ospreys (bird) will increase.

115.

The diagram shows part of an aquatic food web for a stable lake ecosystem in Connecticut. What is the source of energy for the algae?

a)

waves

b)

sunlight

c)

bacteria

d)

rotifers, water fleas and tadpoles

116.

Suppose that a new predator of the rabbit migrated to this ecosystem. What is the most likely initial effect on the other organisms?

a)

More competition among the mice for food

b)

More competition among the hawks for food

c)

Less competition among snakes for food

d)

Less grass available for food

117.

For the food chain shown, which of the following changes would have the most severe consequences?

a)

a drastic decrease in rainfall, causing a drought

b)

the poaching of predatory hawks by game hunters

c)

the introduction of a second predator that eats field mice

d)

a parasitic infestation that reduces the cricket population

118.

The picture shows an energy pyramid. What will most likely happen to the foxes and the wolves if the rabbits are removed?

a)

The foxes will eat more wolves.

b)

The foxes will eat fewer wolves.

c)

There will be more foxes and wolves.

d)

There will be fewer foxes and wolves.

119.

Which of these organisms would most likely be found at the top of an energy pyramid?

a)

clams

b)

sardines

c)

sharks

d)

kelp (seaweed)

120.

A chemical pesticide was applied to an area of this ecosystem by a landowner to control the mouse population. There was a decrease in the mouse population due to the presence of this pesticide. Which one of the following would most likely occur due to this change in the ecosystem?

a)

The amount of grass would decrease.

b)

The snake population would increase.

c)

The rabbit food supply would increase.

d)

The snake food supply would increase.

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