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WorksheetsPharm II Exam 4
Total questions: 94
Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A patient is prescribed somatotropin for short stature. What would the nurse explain as the way this medication works?
a)
Somatostatin analog
b)
Stimulate tissue growth
c)
Synthetic form of T4
d)
Kills part of the thyroid
2.
A patient is prescribed desmopressin and asks the nurse what this medication is used for? SATA
a)
Coagulation disorter
b)
Cardiac arrest
c)
Nocturnal enuresis
d)
First-line DI
3.
A patient is prescribed a course of prednisone. What education would the nurse provide regarding the daily dosage? SATA
a)
Caution with diabetes, may need extra insulin
b)
Immediately report a fever or signs of infection
c)
Caution with HTN, may further elevate BP
d)
This medication must be taken lifelong
e)
Females must take Ca & Vit D
4.
A patient is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. What potential medications would the nurse anticipate the patient being prescribed?
a)
Levothyroxine
b)
Diuretics
c)
Methimazole
d)
Octreotide
e)
Somatotropin
5.
A nurse is preparing education about treatment options for Cushing disease. What medications would the nurse discuss that are indicated for this disease? SATA
a)
Ketoconazole
b)
Cosyntropin
c)
Prednisone
d)
Pasireotide
e)
Octreotide
6.
A patient is prescribed calcitriol. The nurse knows this is used to treat what conditions?
a)
Osteoporosis
b)
Hypercalcemia
c)
Hypocalcemia
d)
Paggetts disease
e)
Hypokalemia
7.
A nurse is educating a patient on their newly prescribed metformin. What side effect would the nurse advise the patient to anticipate when starting this medication?
a)
Tachycardia
b)
Diarrhea
c)
Hypoglycemia
d)
Weight gain
e)
Hypokalemia
8.
A patient is being treated with glipizide and the nurse is warning about potential drug interactions. What specific interaction should the nurse educate the patient regarding?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Antibiotics
c)
Green leafy vegetables
d)
Aspirin
9.
A nurse is giving a patient instructions on their new prescription for Pioglitazone. What black box warning might the nurse caution the patient about? SATA
a)
Contrainidicated in NAFLD
b)
Cannot be taken in pregnancy
c)
Contraindicated in HTN
d)
Contraindicated in HF
e)
High risk for fractures
10.
A patient asks how their prescription for an SGLT-2 inhibitor works to help their diabetes. The nurse explains that the drug works in what way?
a)
Increase insulin sensitivity
b)
Slow down digestion of carbohydrates
c)
Stimulates pancreas to produce more insulin
d)
Increases glucose excretion by kidneys
11.
A charge nurse is asked which insulins can be given via the IV route. The nurse knows the correct answer is what?
a)
Glulisine
b)
NPH
c)
Regular insulin
d)
Glargine
e)
Degludec
12.
What is the effect of glucagon on blood glucose levels?
a)
Increase blood glucose level
b)
Decrease blood glucose level
c)
Prevents blood glucose level from changing
13.
What are the symptoms of hyperglycemia? SATA
a)
Polyphagia
b)
Polyuria
c)
Polydipsia
d)
Pyrexia
e)
Polyarthritis
14.
What is the first route for treatment of hypoglycemia?
a)
IV
b)
IM
c)
PO
d)
SC
15.
What is first line oral pharmaceutical for the treatment of type two DM?
a)
Exenatide
b)
Glargine
c)
Glipizide
d)
Metformin
16.
Which medication is a GLP-1 agonist?
a)
Repaglinide
b)
Exenatide
c)
Metformin
d)
Glipizide
17.
NPH can be mixed with which types of insulin? SATA
a)
Rapid acting
b)
Short acting
c)
Intermediate duration
d)
Long duration
18.
What are the possible routes for administration of octreotide (sandostatin)?
a)
IV
b)
IM
c)
PO
d)
SC
19.
What should you monitor in a patient with DI/SIADH?
a)
Heartrate
b)
Blood pressure
c)
Blood sugar
d)
Fluid volume
e)
Temperature
20.
What are symptoms of a thyroid storm? SATA
a)
Fever
b)
Moon face
c)
Buffalo hump
d)
Exophthalmos
e)
Irritability
21.
A patient with hypothyroidism would have what lab results?
a)
High T3, Low T4
b)
Low T3, TSH, T4
c)
High TSH, Low T4
d)
High TSH, High T4
22.
What is an important point with PTU?
a)
Cannot be taken in pregnancy
b)
Must check blood glucose prior to administration
c)
Must eat a meal within 10 minutes of administration
d)
Must check ALT and AST
23.
What must be given with calcium?
a)
Vitamin D
b)
Vitamin K
c)
Magnesium
d)
Potassium
24.
What condition is caused by excess of ADH?<br />
a)
DI
b)
SIADH
c)
Cushings
d)
Addisons
25.
Cosyntropin is used to diagnose what condition?
a)
DI
b)
SIADH
c)
Cushings
d)
Addisons
26.
Symptoms of this condition include a moon phace and buffalo hump?
a)
DI
b)
SIADH
c)
Cushings
d)
Addisons
27.
What is required by the body to produce thyroid hormones?
a)
Calcium
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Iodine
d)
Sodium
e)
Glucagon
28.
Exopthalmos and pyrexia are symptoms associated with what condition?
a)
Acromegaly
b)
SIADH
c)
Addisons
d)
Thyroid storm
29.
Calcitonin impacts the serum calcium level by which mecahnisms? SATA
a)
Increases GI tract absorption of Ca
b)
Increases kidney excretion of Ca
c)
Increases Ca deponsit into bones
d)
Decreases GI tract absorption of Ca
e)
Decreases kidney excretion of Ca
30.
What is the normal range for FBG?
(a)
31.
Hypoglycemia is a blood glucose lower than (a)
32.
This treatment is the least preferred for hypoglycemia because it is slower and expensive<br />
a)
Oral glucose tubes
b)
IV D50
c)
SC insulin
d)
IM glucagon
33.
This is the cause of type 1 diabetes<br />
a)
Pancreas not producting insulin
b)
Cells are resistant to insulin
c)
Insulin take awhile to enter cells
d)
Blood glucose is too low
34.
What is an adverse effect of Smatotropin?
a)
Tachycardia
b)
Diarrhea
c)
Hyperglycemia
d)
Weight gain
e)
Hypokalemia
35.
What drug is second line for DI?
a)
Methyprednisolone
b)
Octreotide
c)
Pasireotide
d)
Levothyroxine
e)
Vasopressin
36.
This drug has a BB warning not be used for weight loss
a)
Methyprednisolone
b)
Octreotide
c)
Pasireotide
d)
Levothyroxine
e)
Vasopressin
37.
Which drug may cause hyperglycemia and require higher doses of insulin?
a)
Methyprednisolone
b)
Octreotide
c)
Pasireotide
d)
Levothyroxine
e)
Vasopressin
38.
Which medication can be used to treat acromegaly and diarrhea?
a)
Methyprednisolone
b)
Octreotide
c)
Pasireotide
d)
Levothyroxine
e)
Vasopressin
39.
Which drug is indicated to treat Cushins disease?
a)
Methyprednisolone
b)
Octreotide
c)
Pasireotide
d)
Levothyroxine
e)
Vasopressin
40.
Which drug class must be used cautiously in patients with HTN?
a)
Steroids
b)
Thyroid hormone
c)
Thioamide
d)
Somatostatin analog
e)
Growth hormone
41.
Which drug class works by blocking the synthesis of thyroid hormones?
a)
Steroids
b)
Thyroid hormone
c)
Thioamide
d)
Somatostatin analog
e)
Growth hormone
42.
You must check a patient's TSH level every few weeks when staring this therapy with this class of drugs
a)
Steroids
b)
Thyroid hormone
c)
Thioamide
d)
Somatostatin analog
e)
Growth hormone
43.
Methimazole and Propylthiouracil are in which drug class?
a)
Steroids
b)
Thyroid hormone
c)
Thioamide
d)
Somatostatin analog
e)
Growth hormone
44.
This drug class is parenteral only
a)
Steroids
b)
Thyroid hormone
c)
Thioamide
d)
Somatostatin analog
e)
Growth hormone
45.
What is the name of an antifungal drug used to treat Cushings disease?
(a)
46.
Which drug is used to suppress the thyroid prior to surgery?
a)
Iodine 131
b)
Levothyroxine
c)
PTU
d)
Potassium iodide
e)
Methimazole
47.
Which medication can cause hypothyroidism?
a)
Iodine 131
b)
Levothyroxine
c)
PTU
d)
Potassium iodide
e)
Methimazole
48.
Which medication is synthetic vitamin D and works by helping the body utilize calcium?
a)
Calcium
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Calcitriol
d)
Calcitonin
49.
This medication is used to treat hypercalcemia, osteoporosis, and Paggett’s disease
a)
Calcium
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Calcitriol
d)
Calcitonin
50.
Which of the following should be given to a patient taking prednisone? SATA
a)
Calcium
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Calcitriol
d)
Calcitonin
51.
Which medications should be given 30 min before a meal? SATA
a)
Lispro
b)
Regular
c)
NPH
d)
Detemir
52.
Which medications can last up to 24h? SATA
a)
Lispro
b)
Regular
c)
NPH
d)
Detemir
53.
Which medication is cloudy and should be drawn up second?
a)
Lispro
b)
Regular
c)
NPH
d)
Detemir
54.
Which drug is a rapid insulin with an onset of 15-30 min and should be given 5-10 min before a meal?
a)
Lispro
b)
Regular
c)
NPH
d)
Detemir
55.
This insulin has an onset of 30-60 minutes<br />
a)
Lispro
b)
Regular
c)
NPH
d)
Detemir
56.
Which type of insulin can be given IV in the ER or ICU?
a)
Rapid acting
b)
Short acting
c)
Intermediate duration
d)
Long duration
57.
Which type of insulin is given once daily?
a)
Rapid acting
b)
Short acting
c)
Intermediate duration
d)
Long duration
58.
Which type of insulin peaks in 2-4h and lasts for 5-8h?
a)
Rapid acting
b)
Short acting
c)
Intermediate duration
d)
Long duration
59.
Which type of insulin cannot be mixed with NPH?
a)
Rapid acting
b)
Short acting
c)
Intermediate duration
d)
Long duration
60.
What type of insulin is Glargine?
a)
Rapid acting
b)
Short acting
c)
Intermediate duration
d)
Long duration
61.
What type of insulin is Glulisine?
a)
Rapid acting
b)
Short acting
c)
Intermediate duration
d)
Long duration
62.
Which medications are long acting? SATA
a)
Aspart
b)
Glulisine
c)
Detemir
d)
Glargine
e)
Degludec
63.
Which medications are rapid acting?
a)
Isophane
b)
Lispro
c)
Glulisine
d)
Glargine
e)
Aspart
64.
Which long acting insulin is given with dinner or at bedtime every day?
a)
Aspart
b)
Glulisine
c)
Detemir
d)
Glargine
e)
Degludec
65.
Which long acting insulin lasts up to 42 hours?
a)
Aspart
b)
Glulisine
c)
Detemir
d)
Glargine
e)
Degludec
66.
Which rapid acting isulin is given 15 min before a meal or within 20 min after starting a meal?
a)
Isophane
b)
Lispro
c)
Glulisine
d)
Glargine
e)
Aspart
67.
What are indications of insulin? SATA
a)
DI
b)
DM
c)
Acute hyperkalemia
d)
PCOS
e)
NAFLD
68.
Which are correct points with insulin administration? SATA
a)
Most common complication is hypoglycemia
b)
Must monitor potassium level when treating DKA
c)
Rotate injection sites to prevent lipohypertrophy
d)
NPH can be mixed with short and long acting insulin
e)
Teach s/s of hypoglycemia like twitching and convulstions
69.
Which medications can cause weight loss? SATA
a)
Metformin
b)
Liraglutide
c)
Glipizide
d)
Repaglinide
e)
Rosiglitazone
70.
Which medications have an AE of hypoglycemia? SATA
a)
Metformin
b)
Liraglutide
c)
Glipizide
d)
Repaglinide
e)
Rosiglitazone
71.
Which medication has a BB warnng for thyroid cancer?
a)
Metformin
b)
Liraglutide
c)
Glipizide
d)
Repaglinide
e)
Rosiglitazone
72.
Which medication blocks glucose production in the liver and increases insulin sensitivity?
a)
Metformin
b)
Liraglutide
c)
Glipizide
d)
Repaglinide
e)
Rosiglitazone
73.
Which medication cuases a disulfiram-like reaction to alcohol?
a)
Metformin
b)
Liraglutide
c)
Glipizide
d)
Repaglinide
e)
Rosiglitazone
74.
Which medication can cause weight gain?
a)
Metformin
b)
Liraglutide
c)
Glipizide
d)
Repaglinide
e)
Rosiglitazone
75.
Which of the following medications stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin? SATA
a)
Metformin
b)
Liraglutide
c)
Glipizide
d)
Repaglinide
e)
Rosiglitazone
76.
Which drug class increases the effects of incretin?
a)
Biguanide
b)
GLP-1 agonist
c)
DPP4 inhibitors
d)
SGLT-2 inhibitors
e)
Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
77.
Which drug class works by slowing down the digestion of carbohydrates?
a)
Biguanide
b)
GLP-1 agonist
c)
DPP4 inhibitors
d)
SGLT-2 inhibitors
e)
Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
78.
Which drug class can be used for weight loss and has AE of GI issues and tachycardia?
a)
Biguanide
b)
GLP-1 agonist
c)
DPP4 inhibitors
d)
SGLT-2 inhibitors
e)
Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
79.
Which drug class has a BB warning of lactic acidosis?
a)
Biguanide
b)
GLP-1 agonist
c)
DPP4 inhibitors
d)
SGLT-2 inhibitors
e)
Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
80.
Which medication is SC only?
a)
Exenatide
b)
Pioglitazone
c)
Sitagliptin
d)
Dapagliflozin
e)
Acarbose
81.
Which medication inhibitrs incretin breakdown?
a)
Exenatide
b)
Pioglitazone
c)
Sitagliptin
d)
Dapagliflozin
e)
Acarbose
82.
This medication has been known to cause UTIs in females
a)
Exenatide
b)
Pioglitazone
c)
Sitagliptin
d)
Dapagliflozin
e)
Acarbose
83.
Which medication increases insulin sensitivity?
a)
Exenatide
b)
Pioglitazone
c)
Sitagliptin
d)
Dapagliflozin
e)
Acarbose
84.
Which medications are DPP4 inhibitors? SATA
a)
Linagliptin
b)
Pioglitazone
c)
Sitagliptin
d)
Dapagliflozin
e)
Empagliflozin
85.
Which medications increase glucose excretion by the kidneys? SATA
a)
Empagliflozin
b)
Pioglitazone
c)
Sitagliptin
d)
Dapagliflozin
e)
Rosiglitazone
86.
What effects does incretin have? SATA
a)
Stimulate pancreas to produce insulin
b)
Slows GI absorption of carbohydrates
c)
Lower BG level
d)
Blocks glucagon release
e)
Lowers glucose production in the liver
87.
Which medication is given to a patient with MI to prevent worsening vessel obstruction?
a)
Morphine
b)
Oxygen
c)
Nitroglycerin
d)
ASA
88.
Which medication is given to a patient with MI to if nitroglycerin is not effective?
(a)
89.
Which medication is first-line for angina prevention?
a)
Metoprolol
b)
Nitroglycerin
c)
Morphine
d)
Diltiazem
90.
Which medication for angina works by dilating veins to increase blood supply and cannot be taken with ED meds?
a)
Metoprolol
b)
Nitroglycerin
c)
Morphine
d)
Diltiazem
91.
Nitroglycerin should be given which routes for acute angina? SATA
a)
TD
b)
SL
c)
SC
d)
IM
e)
IV
92.
Which of the following are true for fluoroquinolones? SATA
a)
Inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis
b)
First- line for UTIs
c)
Can cause tendonitis or rupture
d)
Broad spectrum
e)
Narrow spectrum
93.
What blood product is most common for trauma and hypovolemic shock?
a)
FFP
b)
PLTs
c)
PRBCs
d)
LR
e)
IGG
94.
A patient receiving PRBCs begins to have fever, chills, hypotension, and flank pain. What condition is this patient likely experiencing?
a)
Acute hemolytic reaction
b)
Hypovolemic shock
c)
Hypercalcemia
d)
ACS
e)
STEMI
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