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Microbiology Quiz

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Microorganisms that live in or on another organism without causing it harm, and they may even provide benefits are called as

a)

Pathogen

b)

Commensal

c)

Parasite

d)

Fungi

2.

Health disorder caused by a successful invasion, multiplication, and establishment of pathogenic microorganisms and/or harmful microbial products on or within the host's body cells or system is called

a)

Disease

b)

Infectious disorder

c)

Infection

d)

None of the above

3.

These are the causative agents of an infectious disease except

a)

Edible Mushrooms

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Virus

e)

Helminths

4.

Facultative anaerobes are the microorganisms which can

a)

Live in the presence of oxygen

b)

Live in the absence of oxygen

c)

Live in the presence and absence of oxygen

d)

None of the above

5.

Which of the following microorganism requires a living host cell to survive and replicate?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Parasite

d)

Virus

6.

Unicellular fungi which reproduce asexually by budding are called as

a)

Molds

b)

Yeast

c)

Helminths

d)

Protozoa

7.

Which staining technique is commonly used to detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

a)

Gram stain

b)

Acid-fast stain

c)

Capsule stain

d)

Endospore stain

8.

Which staining technique is commonly used to differentiate the bacteria based on cell wall?

a)

Gram stain

b)

Acid-fast stain

c)

Capsule stain

d)

Endospore stain

9.

An organism that lives on or within another living form (host) and derives nourishment from it is called as

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Parasite

d)

Virus

10.

A microbial detection technique used to study the morphology, motility and staining reaction of bacteria is called as

a)

Microscopy

b)

Culture method

c)

Biochemical tests

d)

Serology

11.

A media with no agar in it is called as

a)

Solid media

b)

Semi solid media

c)

Liquid media

d)

Biphasic media

12.

A media with an enrichment source other than the normal sources present is called as an

a)

Basal media

b)

Enriched media

c)

Selective media

d)

Differential media

13.

Blood agar is an example of

a)

Basal media

b)

Enriched media

c)

Selective media

d)

Differential media

14.

Mac Conkey agar is an example of

a)

Basal media

b)

Enriched media

c)

Selective media

d)

Differential media

15.

Which test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species

a)

Catalase test

b)

Oxidase test

c)

MR test

d)

Coagulase test

16.

Tests performed using the clear liquid that separates from the blood when it is allowed to clot is called as

a)

Microscopy

b)

Culture method

c)

Biochemical tests

d)

Serology

17.

Which of the following is not is a health beneficial product of a microbe

a)

Vaccines

b)

Streptokinase

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Probiotics

18.

Which test is used to identify the mixed acid fermentation reaction of the bacteria

a)

Catalase test

b)

Oxidase test

c)

Methyl red test

d)

Voges Proskauer test.

19.

Acid fastness of the bacteria is due to the presence of

a)

Mycolic acids

b)

Peptidoglycan

c)

Lipid

d)

None of the above

20.

An example of serological test

a)

PCR test

b)

Oxidase test

c)

ELISA

d)

Urease test

21.

The infectious disease triad includes

a)

Pathogen agent

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Immunity

d)

None of the above

22.

An illness caused by a pathogen often with noticeable symptoms is called as

a)

Infection

b)

Infectious disease

c)

Communicable disease

d)

None of the above

23.

An infection with no obvious symptoms is called as

a)

Primary infection

b)

Secondary infection

c)

Clinical infection

d)

Subclinical infection

24.

An infection that originates in an individual when admitted in a healthcare facility is called as

a)

Clinical Infection

b)

Nosocomial infection

c)

Opportunistic infection

d)

None of the above

25.

Choose the correct order of chain of infection

a)

Pathogen - Reservoir - Portal of exit - Mode of transmission - Portal of entry - Susceptible host

b)

Pathogen - Reservoir - Portal of entry - Mode of transmission - Portal of exit - Susceptible host

c)

Susceptible host - Pathogen - Reservoir - Portal of exit - Mode of transmission - Portal of entry

d)

Pathogen - Mode of transmission - Reservoir - Portal of exit - Portal of entry - Susceptible host

26.

Ability of a pathogen to cause an infection is called as

a)

Infectiousness

b)

Infectivity

c)

Pathogenicity

d)

Virulence

27.

Ability of a pathogen to produce severe disease is called as

a)

Infectiousness

b)

Infectivity

c)

Pathogenicity

d)

Virulence

28.

Humans who carry the pathogen and spreads it but is not infective are called as

a)

Cases

b)

Carriers

c)

Inanimate objects

d)

None of the above

29.

Host in which the parasite attains maturity or passes its sexual stage is called as

a)

Obligate host

b)

Transport host

c)

Intermediate host

d)

Primary host

30.

Direct transmission includes

a)

Droplet

b)

Fomite

c)

Biological vectors

d)

Unclean hands

31.

Latent period is from the

a)

Entry of pathogen to start of infectivity

b)

Entry of pathogen to first symptom

c)

Start of infectivity to end of infectivity

d)

First symptom to clinical recovery

32.

Incubation period is from the

a)

Entry of pathogen to start of infectivity

b)

Entry of pathogen to first symptom

c)

Start of infectivity to end of infectivity

d)

First symptom to clinical recovery

33.

Period of infectivity is from the

a)

Entry of pathogen to start of infectivity

b)

Entry of pathogen to first symptom

c)

Start of infectivity to end of infectivity

d)

First symptom to clinical recovery

34.

Time interval between the receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host is called as

a)

Communicable period

b)

Generation time

c)

Period of clinical illness

d)

Convalescent phase

35.

Transmission from lower vertebrates to higher vertebrates are called as

a)

Zooanthroponoses

b)

Anthropozoonoses

c)

Amphixenoses

d)

None of the above

36.

Transmission from higher vertebrates to lower vertebrates are called as

a)

Zooanthroponoses

b)

Anthropozoonoses

c)

Amphixenoses

d)

None of the above

37.

Interchangeable transmission from lower vertebrates to higher vertebrates or vice versa are called as

a)

Zooanthroponoses

b)

Anthropozoonoses

c)

Amphixenoses

d)

None of the above

38.

Epidemic is the

a)

Occurrence of disease in a defined population or areas with a frequency which clearly in excess of the normal expectation

b)

Constant presence of a infection agent within a given geographic area or population group without importation from outside.

c)

Cases which occur irregularly, haphazardly from time to time and generally in frequently

d)

Occurrence of an infection worldwide and affecting a large number of people

39.

Endemic is the

a)

Occurrence of disease in a defined population or areas with a frequency which clearly in excess of the normal expectation

b)

Constant presence of a infection agent within a given geographic area or population group without importation from outside.

c)

Cases which occur irregularly, haphazardly from time to time and generally in frequently

d)

Occurrence of an infection worldwide and affecting a large number of people

40.

Sporadic is the

a)

Occurrence of disease in a defined population or areas with a frequency which clearly in excess of the normal expectation

b)

Constant presence of a infection agent within a given geographic area or population group without importation from outside.

c)

Cases which occur irregularly, haphazardly from time to time and generally in frequently

d)

Occurrence of an infection worldwide and affecting a large number of people

41.

Pandemic is the

a)

Occurrence of disease in a defined population or areas with a frequency which clearly in excess of the normal expectation

b)

Constant presence of a infection agent within a given geographic area or population group without importation from outside.

c)

Cases which occur irregularly, haphazardly from time to time and generally in frequently

d)

Occurrence of an infection worldwide and affecting a large number of people

42.

Susceptible population can be controlled from contacting an infection using which strategy

a)

Eradication of the agent

b)

Elimination of vectors

c)

Immunization

d)

None of the above

43.

A process by which all microbial forms including the spores are destroyed are called as

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sterilization

c)

Asepsis

d)

None of the above

44.

Which of the radiation used in sterilization has the highest penetrating powers

(a)  

45.

Obial forms including the spores are destroyed are called as

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sterilization

c)

Asepsis

d)

None of the above

46.

Which of the radiation used in sterilization has the highest penetrating powers

a)

X rays

b)

UV rays

c)

Gamma rays

d)

None of the above

47.

Filtration technique removes most of the bacteria except

a)

Mycobaterium

b)

Mycoplasma

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Streptococcus

48.

The temperature of hot air oven at which sterilization takes place is

a)

1600C for 1 hour

b)

1210C for 15 - 20 mins

c)

1610C for 2 hours

d)

1620C for 2 hours

49.

Metals, glassware, powders can be sterilized using

a)

Autoclave

b)

Water bath

c)

Hot air oven

d)

ETO chamber

50.

What is the technique used to inactivate the harmful bacteria in the milk.

a)

Pasteurization

b)

Boiling

c)

Tyndallization

d)

None of the above

51.

Autoclave is a type of

a)

Dry heat sterilization

b)

Moist heat sterilization

c)

Chemical method of sterilization

d)

None of the above

52.

What is the temperature at which the sterilization is achieved in an autoclave?

a)

1600C for 1 hour

b)

1210C for 15 - 20 mins

c)

1610C for 2 hours

d)

1620C for 2 hours

53.

They sterilization efficiency of an autoclave can be checked using

a)

Thermocouples

b)

Autoclave tape

c)

Browne's tube

d)

All of the above

54.

Autoclave uses which principle to achieve sterilization

a)

Moist heat sterilization

b)

Latent heat of condensation

c)

Both a & b

d)

Dry heat sterilization

55.

Which method alkylates the DNA molecule thereby inactivating the microorganism

a)

Autoclave

b)

Hot air oven

c)

Ethylene oxide chamber

d)

Tyndallization

56.

Activated alkaline glutaraldehyde (2%) is used in

a)

MDR cases

b)

COVID cases

c)

TB cases

d)

None of the above

57.

Disinfectant's ability is affected by the following except

a)

Dirt

b)

Time

c)

Concentration

d)

Surface

58.

Which disinfectant is used as floor cleanser

a)

Phenol

b)

Hexachlorophene

c)

Triclosan

d)

None of the above

59.

An example of an iodophore is

a)

Betadine

b)

Lysol

c)

Chlorine

d)

None of the above

60.

Which alcohol is most commonly used as disinfectants

a)

Methanol

b)

Ethanol

c)

Propanol

d)

Butanol

61.

Silver sulfadiazine is used in

a)

Wound dressings

b)

Ophthalmic solutions

c)

Reservoir to kill algae

d)

None of the above

62.

Plastics items can be sterilized using

a)

Autoclave

b)

Hot air oven

c)

Ethylene oxide chamber

d)

Tyndallization

63.

What is the biological indicator used to test the efficiency of autoclave

a)

Browne's tube

b)

Tube containing spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus

c)

Both a & b

d)

None of the above

64.

Phenol uses the principle of

a)

Alkylating the DNA

b)

Injure plasma membrane

c)

Destroy the flagella

d)

None of the above

65.

Resistance which occurs generally in antibiotics of the same family to which the bacteria may not have been exposed are called as

a)

Biological resistance

b)

Clinical resistance

c)

Cross resistance

d)

Multidrug resistance

66.

Resistance exhibited to two or more classes of antibiotics are called as

a)

Biological resistance

b)

Clinical resistance

c)

Cross resistance

d)

Multidrug resistance

67.

A genetic material which carries many different resistant genes is called as

a)

Plasmid

b)

Transposons

c)

Integrons

d)

All of the above

68.

Intrinsic resistance is also called as

a)

Natural resistance

b)

Acquired resistance

c)

Selective pressure

d)

None of the above

69.

Which of the following is a part of acquired resistance

a)

Efflux

b)

Target site modification

c)

Biofilm

d)

Enzyme inactivation

70.

Which of the following is a part of intrinsic resistance

a)

Efflux

b)

Target site modification

c)

Biofilm

d)

Enzyme inactivation

71.

Microorganisms becoming resistant by acquiring cellular targets with reduced affinity for the antibiotic is called as

a)

Modification of target site

b)

Acquisition of new target site

c)

Alternative metabolic pathway

d)

None of the above

72.

MIC is the

a)

Minimum concentration of the antibiotic required to kill the bacteria

b)

Minimum concentration of the antibiotic required to inhibit the growth of bacteria bacteria

c)

Minimum concentration of the antibiotic required to inactivate the bacteria

d)

None of the above

73.

MBC is the

a)

Minimum concentration of the antibiotic required to kill the bacteria

b)

Minimum concentration of the antibiotic required to inhibit the growth of bacteria bacteria

c)

Minimum concentration of the antibiotic required to inactivate the bacteria

d)

None of the above

74.

MIC and MBC can be found out in which method

a)

Kirby Bauers method

b)

Stokes method

c)

Broth dilution method

d)

All of the above

75.

E test is also called as the

a)

Energy test

b)

Epsilometer test

c)

Efficacy test

d)

None of the above

76.

The preferred media to be used in AST is

a)

Nutrient agar

b)

Blood agar

c)

Muller Hinton agar

d)

Basal media

77.

The initial therapy started for a patient with an infection is

a)

Empirical therapy

b)

Definitive therapy

c)

Prophylactic therapy

d)

None of the above.

78.

The therapy started after the isolation and characterization of the microorganism is called as the

a)

Empirical therapy

b)

Definitive therapy

c)

Prophylactic therapy

d)

None of the above.

79.

The therapy initiated to the person who is exposed or at the risk of exposure to an infection is called as

a)

Empirical therapy

b)

Definitive therapy

c)

Prophylactic therapy

d)

None of the above.

80.

The following are the factors to be noted while prescribing an antibiotic except

a)

History of allergy to antibiotic

b)

Co morbidities like diabetes

c)

Pregnancy

d)

Chronic kidney disease

81.

De-escalation means

a)

Conversion from empirical to definitive therapy

b)

Conversion from definitive to empirical therapy

c)

Usage of dual antibiotic therapy for a patient

d)

None of the above

82.

What do you mean by synergistic antibiotic therapy

a)

Conversion from empirical to definitive therapy

b)

Conversion from definitive to empirical therapy

c)

Usage of dual antibiotic therapy for a patient

d)

None of the above

83.

Initiation of an empirical therapy should be based on

a)

Site of infection

b)

Defining the cost of antibiotic

c)

Both a & b

d)

None of the above

84.

TDM means

a)

Time-Division Multiplexing

b)

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

c)

Treatment Drug Monitoring

d)

None of the above

85.

Infection is an example of

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Acquired Passive Natural Immunity

c)

Acquired Active Natural Immunity

d)

Acquired Passive Artificial Immunity

86.

Major histocompatibility antigen is present on

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Pathogen peptides

c)

All cells in human

d)

T cells

87.

CD4 is a marker for

a)

Cytotoxic T cell

b)

Helper T cell

c)

B cell

d)

Memory cell

88.

Class I MHC molecule is made up of

a)

2 α and 2 β subunits

b)

3 α and 1 β subunits

c)

1 α and 3 β subunits

d)

None of the above

89.

Acute rejection of the graft takes place within

a)

Minutes

b)

Hours to days

c)

Months to years

d)

None of the above

90.

Autograft is

a)

Organ / tissue transplanted between identical twins

b)

Organ / tissue transplanted between different species

c)

Organ / tissue transplanted in the same individual

d)

Organ / tissue transplanted between same species

91.

Cytotoxic T cells take part in

a)

Antibody mediated immune response

b)

Cell mediated immune response

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

92.

Mother's breast milk is an example of

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Acquired Passive Natural Immunity

c)

Acquired Active Natural Immunity

d)

Acquired Passive Artificial Immunity

93.

Skin transplant from thigh area to face of the burn victims is an example of

a)

Isograft

b)

Autograft

c)

Allograft

d)

Xenograft

94.

Grafts transplanted to anatomically different sites are called as

a)

Vital graft

b)

Static graft

c)

Autotrophic graft

d)

Heterotrophic graft

95.

Which is / are considered as an antigen

a)

Bacteria

b)

Dust

c)

Virus

d)

All of the above

96.

Hyperacute rejection of graft is due to

a)

ABO incompatibility

b)

HLA incompatibility

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

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