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Worksheets

Therapy 5 Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Is S. aureus gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

2.

Are acinetobacter species gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

3.

Is Enterococcus faecium gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

4.

Are enterobacter species gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

5.

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

6.

Are Klebsiella species gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

7.

Are Proteus species gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

8.

Is Streptococcus pneumoniae gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

9.

Is Escherecia coli gram positive or negative? If negative, fermenter or non-fermenter?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

fermenter

d)

non-fermenter

10.

To which drug class does cefazolin belong?

a)

1st gen cephalosporin

b)

2nd gen cephalosporin

c)

3rd gen cephalosporin

d)

penicillin

11.

To which drug class does doxycycline belong?

a)

tetracycline

b)

fluoroquinolone

c)

carbapenem

d)

macrolide

12.

To which drug class does amoxicillin belong?

a)

1st gen cephalosporin

b)

aminopenicillin

c)

penicillin

d)

carbapenem

13.

To which drug class does gentamicin belong?

a)

aminoglycoside

b)

fluoroquinolone

c)

cyclic glycopeptide

d)

macrolide

14.

To which drug class does linezolid belong?

a)

oxazolidinone

b)

fluoroquinolone

c)

tetracycline

d)

carbapenem

15.

To which drug class does ciprofloxacin belong?

a)

fluoroquinolone

b)

tetracycline

c)

cyclic glycopeptide

d)

macrolide

16.

To which drug class does ceftriaxone belong?

a)

1st gen cephalosporin

b)

2nd gen cephalosporin

c)

3rd gen cephalosporin

d)

penicillin

17.

To which drug class does imipenem-cilastatin belong?

a)

carbapenem

b)

macrolide

c)

tetracycline

d)

penicillin

18.

To which drug class does daptomycin belong?

a)

tetracycline

b)

macrolide

c)

cyclic glycopeptide

d)

aminoglycoside

19.

To which drug class does azithromycin belong?

a)

tetracycline

b)

macrolide

c)

cyclic glycopeptide

d)

aminoglycoside

20.

What is the brand/generic for azactam?

a)

aztreonam

b)

merrem

c)

zosyn

d)

rocephin

21.

What is the brand/generic for meropenem?

a)

merrem

b)

zyvox

c)

flagyl

d)

linezolid

22.

What is the brand/generic for cefepime?

a)

merrem

b)

maxipime

c)

rocephin

d)

bactrim/septra

23.

What is the brand/generic for levaquin?

a)

levofloxacin

b)

ciprofloxacin

c)

moxifloxacin

d)

metronidazole

24.

What is the brand/generic for piperacillin-tazobactam?

a)

zosyn

b)

unasyn

c)

flagyl

d)

levaquin

25.

What is the brand/generic for zyvox?

a)

linezolid

b)

tetracycline

c)

zosyn

d)

unasyn

26.

What is the brand/generic for sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim?

a)

bactrim/septra

b)

merrem

c)

azactam

d)

ampicillin/sulbactam

27.

What is the brand/generic for rocephin?

a)

ceftriaxone

b)

cefepime

c)

cefazolin

d)

cephalexin

28.

What is the brand/generic for ampicillin/sulbactam?

a)

zosyn

b)

unasyn

c)

flagyl

d)

levaquin

29.

What is the brand/generic for flagyl?

a)

metronidazole

b)

ceftriaxone

c)

cefepime

d)

aztreonam

30.

Choose the commonly used carbapenems with activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

a)

imipenem-cilastatin

b)

meropenem

c)

imipenem

d)

ertapenem

31.

Aztreonam has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

32.

Colistin has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

33.

Polymixin B has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

34.

Daptomycin has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

35.

Vancomycin has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

36.

Quinupristin-dalfopristin (Synercid) has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

37.

Linezolid has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

38.

Tedizolid (Sivextro) has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

39.

Clindamycin has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

40.

Dalbavancin (Dalvance) has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

41.

Oritavancin (Orbactiv) has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

42.

Telavancin (Vibativ) has only gram _______ coverage.

a)

positive

b)

negative

43.

What is the drug class of choice for MSSA? 2 answers are acceptable.

a)

penicillinase resistant PCNs

b)

1st gen cephalosporin

c)

aminopenicillins

d)

3rd gen cephalosporins

44.

What is the drug of choice for Enterococcus species? (2)

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ampicillin

c)

dicloxacillin

d)

oxacillin

45.

Select the beta-lactams with activity against CREs.

a)

ceftazidime/avibactam (Avycaz)

b)

cefiderocol (Fetroja)

c)

meropenem/vaborabactam (Vabomere)

d)

imipenem-cilastatin/relabactam

e)

piperacillin/tazobactam

46.

Tigecycline does not cover which 3 pathogens?

a)

P. aeruginosa

b)

Proteus

c)

Providencia

d)

MSSA

e)

MRSA

47.

Which of the following are called respiratory fluoroquinolones?

a)

levofloxacin

b)

ciprofloxacin

c)

moxifloxacin

d)

gemifloxacin

e)

gatifloxacin

48.

Which pathogen is covered by the respiratory fluoroquinolones?

a)

S. pneumoniae

b)

P. aeruginosa

c)

Proteus

d)

Providencia

49.

Which drug only has anaerobic coverage?

a)

metronidazole

b)

ciprofloxacin

c)

daptomycin

d)

vancomycin

e)

azithromycin

50.

Which of the following drug classes have atypical coverage?

a)

tetracyclines

b)

macrolides

c)

pleuromutilins

d)

fluoroquinolones

e)

aminopenicillins

51.

Which macrolide has the highest potential for GI adverse effects?

a)

azithromycin

b)

erythromycin

c)

clarithromycin

52.

Tetracyclines are contraindicated in children up to 8 years and pregnant women due to this adverse reaction

a)

tooth/bone discoloration

b)

inhibits normal growth patterns

c)

arthralgia/myalgia

d)

GI adverse effects

53.

Drug class with potential CNS side effects (eg. confusion) that are more likely to occur in elderly patients

a)

fluoroquinolones

b)

carbapenems

c)

macrolides

d)

tetracyclines

54.

Which beta-lactam class is most likely to cause seizures?

a)

carbapenems

b)

penicillins

c)

cephalosporins

d)

monobactams

55.

What is the unique adverse of rifampin?

a)

red/orange discoloration of sweat, urine, tears

b)

seizures

c)

BBW for tooth and bone discoloration

d)

nephrotoxicity

56.

What is the most common adverse reaction associated with colistin or polymixin B?

a)

nephrotoxicity

b)

hepatotoxicity

c)

ototoxicity

d)

fetal harm

57.

Which of the following are in the BBW for plazmomicin?

a)

nephrotoxicity

b)

ototoxicity

c)

neuromuscular toxicity

d)

fetal harm

e)

hepatotoxicity

58.

This agent has the potential to cause thrombocytopenia. which is more common with >2 weeks of therapy:

a)

linezolid

b)

erythromycin

c)

plazomicin

d)

sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

59.

Drug that frequently causes arthralgias/myalgias, limiting its clinical utility:

a)

quinupristin-dalfopristin

b)

tygecycline

c)

erythromycin

d)

linezolid

60.

This antibiotic has one of the highest potentials for GI effects (occurs in up to 30% of cases)

a)

tygecycline

b)

synercid

c)

erythromycin

d)

linezolid

61.

Which drug is inactivated by pulmonary surfactant and therefore should not be used for pneumonia?

a)

daptomycin

b)

vancomycin

c)

piperacillin-tazobactam

d)

dalbavancin

62.

Which medication has minimal systemic absorption and should only be used for the treatment of C. difficile infection?

a)

oral vancomycin

b)

fidaxomicin

c)

daptomycin

d)

metronidazole

e)

IV vancomycin

63.

Why is unfractionated heparin contraindicated for up to 5 days after the administration of oritavancin?

a)

artificially prolongs aPTT for up to 120 hours

b)

INR is falsely elevated

64.

This IV agent rapidly distributes into the periphery and should not be used for the treatment of bacteremia

a)

tigecycline

b)

doxycycline

c)

ampicillin/sulbactam

65.

Choose the drug classes that have potential to cause QTc prolongation, and therefore should be used cautiously with other QTc prolonging drugs

a)

fluoroquinolones

b)

macrolides

c)

pleuromutilins

d)

lipoglycopeptide

e)

aminoglycopeptide

66.

Rifampin is a strong inducer of which isoenzymes?

a)

3A4

b)

1A2

c)

2C9

d)

2C19

e)

2D6

67.

Which agents have a very long half-lives, allowing for infrequent administration (one or two doses for entire treatment course)?

a)

dalbavancin

b)

oritavancin

c)

vancomycin

d)

erythromycin

68.

Which agent should be avoided in patients with a G6PD deficiency?

a)

sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

b)

ampicillin/sulbactam

c)

oritavancin

d)

fidaxomicin

69.

Which drug classes have the potential to increase the effects of warfarin?

a)

fluoroquinolones and macrolides

b)

nitroimidazole

c)

folate antagonist

d)

tetracyclines

e)

glycylcyclines

70.

These drug classes should not be administered with Ca, Fe, Mg, Al containing compounds due to potential for decreased absorption

a)

fluoroquinolones

b)

tetracyclines

c)

macrolides

71.

What is the drug class of choice for treatment of ESBLs?

a)

carbapenems

b)

penicillins

c)

monobactams

d)

fluoroquinolones

72.

Which beta-lactams are active against many MDR Pseudomonas isolates?

a)

ceftolozane/tazobactam

b)

ceftazidime/avibactam

c)

imipenem-cilastatin/relabactam

73.

ESBLs are identified by resistance to which drug classes?

a)

1st gen cephalosporins

b)

2nd gen cephalosporins

c)

3rd gen cephalosporins

d)

monobactams

e)

tetracyclines

74.

If double covering for P. aeruginosa, it is recommended to use an antipseudomonal beta-lactam plus what?

a)

aminoglycosides

b)

fluoroquinolones

c)

tetracyclines

d)

macrolides

e)

monobactams

75.

Does this quiz include all but Sheet 7 numbers 1-4 and 10 because they were too long and should you study them separately from this?

a)

yes

b)

yes again to make sure you actually do it