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Y10 HB Revision for Test

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
2.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
3.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
4.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
5.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
6.
The drawing shows the structure of what molecule?
a)
A DNA molecule
b)
A lipid molecule
c)
A carbohydrate molecule
d)
A protein molecule
7.
X outlines a(n) ___________.
a)
amino acid
b)
nitrogen base 
c)
nucleotide
d)
nitrogen base pair
8.
Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?
a)

gene, chromosome, nucleus, cell, nucleotide

b)

cell, nucleus, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

c)

nucleotide, chromosome, cell, nucleus

d)

cell, gene, nucleotide, nucleus, chromosome

9.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
10.
What is the significance of the sequence (order) of the Nitrogen Bases in DNA?
a)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the number of chromosomes present in an organism.
b)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the traits that an organism will possess (have).
c)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the gender of an organism.
d)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines whether an organism is abiotic biotic.
11.

Where is DNA found inside cells?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

12.

What are genes?

a)

One strand of DNA

b)

Sections of DNA that code for proteins

c)

Sections of RNA

d)

The section of DNA that codes for hair color

13.

The gender of an individual with XX sex chromosomes is __________ and the gender of someone with XY is _________.

a)

male, female

b)

female, male

c)

male, male

d)

female, female

14.

Many mutations...

a)

Occur randomly

b)

Occur because of bad eating habits

c)

Occur because of lack of exercise

15.

Mutations can be...

a)

Harmful

b)

Beneficial

c)

Neutral

d)

All of the Above

16.

Mutations are...

a)

Changes in the sequence of DNA

b)

Broken chromosomes

c)

Bad genes

17.

What is a type of Mutation?

a)

Deletions

b)

Insertions

c)

Base Substitutions

d)

All of the Above

18.

A substitution mutation occurs when

a)

a base pair is missing from the DNA strand

b)

a base pair is added to the DNA strand

c)

a base pair is replaced with a different base pair

19.

An insertion/additon mutation occurs when

a)

a base pair is missing from the DNA strand

b)

a base pair is added to the DNA strand

c)

a base pair is replaced with a different base pair

20.

A deletion mutation occurs when

a)

a base pair is missing from the DNA strand

b)

a base pair is added to the DNA strand

c)

a base pair is replaced with a different base pair

21.

This is considered the most harmful type of gene mutation. It occurs when the codon reading frame is shifted and creates a chain reaction of errors in amino acids.

a)

Duplication

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

22.

This type of mutation occurs when part of a chromosome is added "backwards" meaning the genes would be read in reverse order.

a)

Insertion

b)

Inversion

c)

Translocation

d)

Deletion

23.

This type of mutation occurs when part of a chromosome is broken off and incorrectly added to a different chromosome.

a)

Insertion

b)

Inversion

c)

Translocation

d)

Deletion

24.

When one base or part of a gene is incorrectly removed from a section of DNA or RNA it is a ______ mutation.

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Translocation

d)

Frameshift

25.

This type of mutation occurs when a section of chromosome is doubled or repeated.

a)

Duplication

b)

Substitution

c)

Inversion

d)

Frameshift

26.

Which type of mutation is USUALLY more deadly/dangerous for an individual?

a)

Gene/DNA mutation

b)

Chromosomal mutation

27.

Which chromosome contains more genes?

a)

The X chromosome

b)

The Y chromosome

c)

They are homologous, so they contain the same amount of genes.

28.

What would the genotype be of a colorblind male?

a)

XNY

b)

XNYn

c)

XnY

d)

XnYn

29.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)
To look at families
b)
To make determinations about the offspring
c)
To track traits in families
d)
Nothing
30.

what chromosome(s) do males inherit from their fathers?

a)

the X

b)

Both the X and Y

c)

the Y

d)

Neither the X and Y

31.

Where do daughters get their X chromosomes?

a)

two from each parent

b)

only from their fathers

c)

one from each parent

d)

only from their mothers

32.

Fragile-X syndrome is a recessive sex-linked disorder located on the X chromosome.


Study the pedigree. What is the Genotype of #3?

a)

XHXh

b)

XhXh

c)

XHXH

d)

XHY

33.
Which of the following is a circular DNA from bacteria that can hold a foreign gene?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
34.
Which of the following is a protein that acts as DNA scissors?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
35.
A restriction enzyme is used to cut both the gene of interest and the plasmid at the restriction sites.
a)
True
b)
False
36.

What is the most logical sequence of steps for creating recombinant DNA?

I) Insert the recombinant DNA molecule back into a bacteria cell and let it reproduce.

II) Cut the plasmid DNA and human DNA using restriction enzymes.

III) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells and locate a human gene of interest.

IV) Sticky ends cause the plasmid DNA to hydrogen-bond to the human DNA fragments.

a)

I, II, IV, III,

b)

III, II, IV, I

c)

II, III, IV, I

d)

III, IV, I, II

37.
Which of the following is an enzymatic protein that acts as DNA glue?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
38.
What is a genome?
a)
The complete haploid amount of genetic material present in a cell or organism
b)
A garden ornament 
c)
The sum of all human material.
d)
A totally unique set of genetic material not shared with anything else
39.
What year was the Human Genome Project (HGP) started?
a)
1990
b)
1999
c)
2003
d)
1987
40.
The main goal of the Human Genome Project (HGP) was to:
a)
Identify the unique parts of each person's DNA.
b)
Identify genes responsible for human diseases.
c)
Identify genes responsible for human behavior.
d)
Determine the entire sequence of human DNA.
41.
What is DNA sequencing?
a)
The total of genes carried by an individual or cell
b)
Coding genes in order to identify single nucleotide polymorphisms
c)
Deciphering the functions of various parts of the human genome
d)
The process of identifying the order of the bases in DNA
42.
The genomes of two unrelated humans are ___% the same.
a)
90.0
b)
0.1%
c)
78%
d)
99.9%
43.
Identify an application of genetic sequencing below:
a)
Improved and more accurate diagnosis of inherited disorders due to single genes
b)
Providing personalised medication and treatment depending on the genetic combination
c)
Determine evolutionary relationships between species
d)
All of the above
44.

The Human Genome Project was completed between....

a)

1990-1999

b)

1990-2000

c)

1990-2003

d)

1990-2013

45.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
46.
Biologists need additional copies of a DNA fragment. What tool should they use?
a)
Gel Electrophoresis
b)
PCR
c)
Restriction enzymes
d)
This isn't possible
47.

(GAAT) (GAAT) (GAAT) (GAAT) is an example of:

a)

restriction fragments.

b)

DNA fingerprinting.

c)

PCR.

d)

STR.

48.

Name a method of separating molecules, such as DNA, based on their size

a)

electrophoresis

b)

restriction enzymes

c)

STR

d)

PCR

49.
Which man is the father of this baby?
a)
Father 1
b)
Father 2
c)
Father 3
d)
None of them
50.
DNA is recovered from a suspected dead soldier.  Which Parents are the likely parents of the soldier?
a)
Parents C and D
b)
Parents E and F
c)
Parents A and B
d)
Parents G and H
51.

The parents of a new baby believe they brought the wrong child home from the hospital. Gel electrophoresis was performed using DNA samples from the parents and the child. A section of the gel

electrophoresis results is shown below. Which conclusion is valid based on the gel electrophoresis results?

a)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information is identical to that of the father.


b)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information does not match that of either parent.

c)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information came from both parents.


d)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information matches only that of the mother.

52.

To produce desired protein _____________ should be taken from any source like human, animal and plant.

a)

recombinant DNA

b)

Target DNA

c)

plasmid

d)

ligase

53.
A ____________ is required to transfer genes from one organism to another.
a)
vector
b)
reverse transcriptase
c)
transport molecule
d)
genetic probe
54.
Which of the following accurately describe the steps of recombinant DNA technology using bacteria?
a)
plasmid & genes are cut --> cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected
b)
cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> plasmid & genes are cut -->bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected
c)
plasmid & genes are cut -->bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected-->cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria
d)
cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply 
55.

Which type of stem cell can only differentiate into different types of blood cells?

a)

Embryonic stem cell

b)

Adult stem cell

56.

Which two of the options below are advantages of using adult stem cells rather than embryonic stem cells?

a)

Adult stem cells won’t cause rejection as they’re taken from the patient themselves

b)

Adult stem cells have to be extracted from the bone marrow which is very painful

c)

Adult stem cells can only differentiate into a few cell types

d)

Adult stem cells are taken from the patient so are not in limited supply

57.

Stem cells are ____________________.

a)

cells that grow uncontrollably

b)

undifferentiated cells that can turn into other types of cells

c)

the first cells of a new living organism (fertilized egg)

d)

specialized cells that do one job

58.
Stem cells can be obtained from _________.
a)
embryos
b)
some adult tissues
c)
umbilical cord blood
d)
all of the above
59.
Stem cells are used to __________.
a)
make clones
b)
create new species of animals
c)
make babies
d)
grow different types of tissues
60.
What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?
a)
Embryonic can differentiate into more cell types than adult
b)
Adult only turn into blood, while embryonic turn into many things.
c)
Adult can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic
d)
Adult grow bigger than embryonic
61.
What does "multipotent" mean?
a)
able to divide and make one kind of cell
b)
able to divide and make all different types of cells
c)
able to divide and make multiple (but not all) types of cells 
d)
cannot divide
62.

Why is the use of embryonic stem cells controversial?

a)

The embryos are destroyed in the process of extracting the stem cells.

b)

People consider their use as destroying a life.

c)

They are taken from little kids, which is painful.

d)

They are put into a different person.

63.

Which is something that can stem cells can repair/cure?

a)

sports injuries

b)

certain diseases like Parkinson's disease, multiple sclerosis, and diabetes

c)

bone marrow in cancer patients

d)

all of the above

64.

Infertility is best defined as?

a)

inability to conceive with multiple sex partners

b)

inability to conceive for 9 months of unprotected intercourse when both partners are under 30 years old

c)

state of involuntary childessness

d)

inability to conceive after 1 full year of unprotected sex

65.

Why are the embryos kept in a warm place before insertion?

a)

So they don't die due to being cold.

b)

To imitate the body temperature of the mother

c)

They need the right temperature to develop

d)

To heat up the petri dish.

66.

Why are several embryos introduced into the uterus?

a)

To increase the chance that at least one will survive.

b)

Because the family wants to have several children.

c)

So that the embryos don't get trapped and die.

d)

To make it easier to detect that the woman is pregnant.

67.

What does IVF stand for?

a)

In vitro fertilisation

b)

Insert viable foetus

c)

Internal variable fertilisation

d)

Internal vitro fertilisation

68.

A vaccination

a)

Is a type of white blood cell that eats bacteria

b)

Protects your body via needle or capsule

c)

Causes your body to react as if it had met a pathogen

d)

Is made up of collagen, and can be in the form of gelatine

69.

Which kind of vaccine is made of a weakened, living version of a virus?

a)

Subunit Vaccines

b)

Inactive Vaccines

c)

DNA/RNA Vaccines

d)

Live Attenuated Vaccines

70.

Which type of vaccine is made by inserting genes that code for antibodies into the patient?

a)

Subunit Vaccines

b)

Inactive Vaccines

c)

DNA/RNA Vaccines

d)

Live Attenuated Vaccines

71.

Which pathogen is non-living?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Parasite/Protist

e)

They are all alive

72.

These send electrical impulses to neighbouring neurons.

a)

Synapses

b)

Axon

c)

Dendrites

d)

Nucleus

73.

This transfers electrical impulse signals from the cell body to the synapse.

a)

Axon

b)

Nucleus

c)

Dendrites

d)

myelin sheath

74.

Number 1

a)

Synapses

b)

Myelin sheath

c)

Axon

d)

Dendrites

75.

Number 3

a)

Synapses

b)

Myelin sheath

c)

Axon

d)

Dendrites

76.

Number 5

a)

Synapses

b)

Soma

c)

Nucleus

d)

Dendrites

77.

Number 6

a)

Synapses

b)

Soma

c)

Nucleus

d)

Dendrites

78.

The Medulla does all of these except?

a)

breathing

b)

swallowing

c)

thinking

d)

digestion

79.

Which part of the brain is in charge of the sight, hearing, speech and learning?

a)

cerebelum

b)

brainstem

c)

cerebrum

d)

diencephalon

80.

Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating body's balance and posture?

a)

cerebelum

b)

brainstem

c)

cerebrum

d)

diencephalon

81.
What are functions of the skeleton?
a)
Protection
b)
Blood cell production
c)
Movement
d)
All of these
82.
Which of these is a long bone?
a)
Femur
b)
Patella
c)
Scapula
d)
Carpal
83.
What is another name for the kneecap?
a)
Patella
b)
Tibia
c)
Fibia
d)
scapula
84.

How many vertebrae are in the neck?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

7

d)

12

85.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

86.

What bone is highlighted? (hint: inside of your leg)

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Femur

d)

Humerus

87.

From wrist to fingertip, what is the order of bones?

a)

Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

b)

Phalanges, metacarpals, carpals

c)

Carpals, phalanges, metacarpals

d)

Metacarpals, carpals, phalanges

88.
The human skeleton can be subdivided into two parts, what part is made up of the skull, sternum, vertebral column and rib cage?
a)
appendicular
b)
axial
89.

What muscle attaches to the bone and produces movement?

a)

skeletal muscle

b)

cardiac muscle

c)

smooth muscle

d)

visceral muscle

90.

What muscle makes up the heart?

a)

involuntary muscle

b)

smooth muscle

c)

cardiac muscle

d)

voluntary muscle

91.

What type of muscle makes of the walls of our internal organs?

a)

smooth muscles

b)

voluntary muscle

c)

striated muscle

d)

cardiac muscle

92.

__________________ anchors the the muscle to bone

a)

aponeurosis

b)

fascia

c)

tendons

d)

ligament

93.
a)

Latissmius Dorsi

b)

Erectors

c)

Deltoids

d)

Abdominal

94.
a)

Tricep

b)

Deltoid

c)

Hamstring

d)

Biceps

95.
a)
Trapezius
b)
Gluteals
c)
Deltoid
d)
Hamstring
96.
a)
Hamstrin
b)
Quadricep
c)
Tibialis Anterior
d)
Gastrocenmius
97.
a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Hamstring

c)

Quadricep

d)

External Oblique

98.
a)
Pectoral
b)
Tricep
c)
Bicep
d)
Deltoid
99.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Gastronecmius
d)
Satorius
100.
a)
Latissimius Dorsi
b)
Trapezius
c)
Triceps
d)
Erectors

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