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nervous system drugs

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 11hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

neurotransmitter during times of stress

(a)  

2.

neurotransmitter during normal body functioning

(a)  

3.

all are sympathetic response except for:

a)

dilates pupil

b)

stimulates saliva to flow

c)

dilates bronchioles

d)

inhibits peristalsis and secretion

e)

contracts bladder

4.

all are parasympathetic response except for:

a)

relaxes bladder

b)

inhibits flow of saliva

c)

constricts pupils

d)

constricts bronchioles

e)

stimulates peristalsis and secretions

5.

Alpha 1

a)

Increase force of heart contraction

Increases blood pressure

Dilates pupils

Decreases salivary gland secretion

Increases urinary bladder relaxation and urinary sphincter contraction

b)

Produces hypotension

Decreases GI motility and tone

c)

Increases myocardial contraction and heart rate

Increases renin secretion (from kidneys) which then increases blood pressure.

d)

Dilates bronchioles

Promotes GI relaxation

Relaxes uterine muscles causing decreasing in uterine contraction

Promotes increase in blood sugar through glycogenolysis in liver

Increases blood flow in skeletal muscles

6.

Alpha 2

a)

Produces hypotension

Decreases GI motility and tone

b)

Increase force of heart contraction

Increases blood pressure

Dilates pupils

Decreases salivary gland secretion

Increases urinary bladder relaxation and urinary sphincter contraction

c)

Increases myocardial contraction and heart rate

Increases renin secretion (from kidneys) which then increases blood pressure.

d)

Dilates bronchioles

Promotes GI relaxation

Relaxes uterine muscles causing decreasing in uterine contraction

Promotes increase in blood sugar through glycogenolysis in liver

Increases blood flow in skeletal muscles

7.

Beta 1

a)

Increases myocardial contraction and heart rate

Increases renin secretion (from kidneys) which then increases blood pressure.

b)

Produces hypotension

Decreases GI motility and tone

c)

Increase force of heart contraction

Increases blood pressure

Dilates pupils

Decreases salivary gland secretion

Increases urinary bladder relaxation and urinary sphincter contraction

d)

Dilates bronchioles

Promotes GI relaxation

Relaxes uterine muscles causing decreasing in uterine contraction

Promotes increase in blood sugar through glycogenolysis in liver

Increases blood flow in skeletal muscles

8.

Beta 2

a)

Dilates bronchioles

Promotes GI relaxation

Relaxes uterine muscles causing decreasing in uterine contraction

Promotes increase in blood sugar through glycogenolysis in liver

Increases blood flow in skeletal muscles

b)

Increases myocardial contraction and heart rate

Increases renin secretion (from kidneys) which then increases blood pressure.

c)

Increase force of heart contraction

Increases blood pressure

Dilates pupils

Decreases salivary gland secretion

Increases urinary bladder relaxation and urinary sphincter contraction

d)

Produces hypotension

Decreases GI motility and tone

9.

inactivates the action of norepinephrine through reuptake, through enzyme transformation or degradation or through diffusion away from the neuron so that the increase in the heart rate and increase in bp will not be prolonged whenever there is a sympathetic action

a)

Monoamine Oxidase

b)

Cathecol-O-Methyltransferase

c)

Cholinergic blockers

d)

Adrenergic blockers

e)

Cholinergic agonist

10.

stimulates the receptor, which are alpha 1, beta 1 and beta 2 (have similar sympathetic action)

(a)  

11.

It is not the receptors that are stimulated but the release of norepinephrine

(a)  

12.

alpha 1 drugs

a)

Midodrine

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Clonidine

d)

Methyldopa

e)

Terbutaline

13.

alpha 2 drugs

a)

Clonidine

b)

Methyldopa

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Midodrine

e)

Isotharine

14.

if you give adrenergic drugs PO, you have to offer it with food to prevent nausea and vomiting, or to lessen GI upset

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Beta 1 Drugs

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Albuterol

c)

Isotharine

d)

Terbutaline

16.

beta 2 drugs

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Albuterol

c)

Isotharine

d)

Terbutaline

17.

beta 1 and beta 2 drugs

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Metaproterenol

c)

Ritodrine

d)

Epinephrine

e)

Norepinephrine

18.

alpha and beta drugs

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Ephedrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Dopamine

e)

Pseudoephedrine

19.

allergy: rashes, skin problems

(a)  

20.

allergy: anaphylaxis

(a)  

21.

mixed drugs for nasal congestion

a)

Ephedrine

b)

Pseudoephedrine

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Albuterol

22.

The drugs for Parkinson's disease are just the precursors of dopamine but not dopamine itself.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Carbidopa, Levodopa

a)

Dopaminergics

b)

Dopamine Agonists

c)

MAO-B Inhibitors

d)

COMT Inhibitors

e)

Anticholinergic s-Antiparkinso ns

24.

Decrease symptoms, very effective in the early course of disease

a)

Amantadine, Bromocriptine, Pramipexole

b)

Selegiline HCl, Rasagiline

c)

Entacopone, Tolcapone

d)

Cogentin, artane

e)

Carbidopa, Levodopa

25.

Inhibits catabolic enzymes of dopamine, extends action of dopamine

a)

Selegiline HCl, Rasagiline

b)

Carbidopa, Levodopa

c)

Amantadine, Bromocriptine, Pramipexole

d)

Entacopone, Tolcapone

e)

Cogentin, artane

26.

COMT Inhibitors

a)

Entacopone, Tolcapone

b)

Cogentin, artane

c)

Carbidopa, Levodopa

d)

Amantadine, Bromocriptine, Pramipexole

e)

Selegiline HCl, Rasagiline

27.

Decrease tremors, but contraindicated in myasthenia gravis

a)

Cogentin, artane

b)

Carbidopa, Levodopa

c)

Amantadine, Bromocriptine, Pramipexole

d)

Selegiline HCl, Rasagiline

e)

Entacopone, Tolcapone

28.

alpha 1 antagonist

a)

Decreases blood pressure

Causes reflex tachycardia

Constricts pupils

Suppresses ejaculation

Reduces contraction of bladder neck

b)

Decreases heart rate

Reduces force of myocardial contraction

c)

Constricts bronchioles

Contracts uterus

Inhibits glycogenolysis which lowers blood sugar

29.

beta 1 antagonist

a)

Decreases heart rate

Reduces force of myocardial contraction

b)

Decreases blood pressure

Causes reflex tachycardia

Constricts pupils

Suppresses ejaculation

Reduces contraction of bladder neck

c)

Constricts bronchioles

Contracts uterus

Inhibits glycogenolysis which lowers blood sugar

30.

beta 2 antagonist

a)

Constricts bronchioles

Contracts uterus

Inhibits glycogenolysis which lowers blood sugar

b)

Decreases blood pressure

Causes reflex tachycardia

Constricts pupils

Suppresses ejaculation

Reduces contraction of bladder neck

c)

Decreases heart rate

Reduces force of myocardial contraction

31.

Antidote for norepinephrine and dopamine

a)

Tolazoline

b)

Phentolamine mesylate

c)

Doxazosin mesylate

d)

Prazosin

e)

Terazosin

32.

ALPHA ADRENERGIC BLOCKERS

a)

Tolazoline

Phentolamine

Doxazosin

Prazosin

Terazosin

b)

Carteolol

Penbutolol

Propranolol

Nadolol

Pindolol

c)

Carvedilol

Labetalol

33.

prevent migraine because it decreases the release of norepinephrine

a)

Timolol

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Atenolol

d)

Betaxolol

34.

BETA ADRENERGIC BLOCKERS

a)

Tolazoline

Phentolamine

Doxazosin

Prazosin

Terazosin

b)

Carteolol

Penbutolol

Propranolol

Nadolol

Pindolol

c)

Carvedilol

Labetalol

35.

ALPHA AND BETA ADRENERGIC BLOCKERS

a)

Tolazoline

Phentolamine

Doxazosin

Prazosin

Terazosin

b)

Carteolol

Penbutolol

Propranolol

Nadolol

Pindolol

c)

Carvedilol

Labetalol

36.

cholinergic receptors

(a)  

37.

Stimulates smooth muscles

Slows heart rate

(a)  

38.

Stimulates skeletal muscles

(a)  

39.

Direct Acting cholinergics

a)

Acts on a receptor to stimulate a response and primarily selective to muscarinic receptors

b)

Inhibits action of enzyme cholinesterase or acetylcholinesterase which destroys acetylcholine

40.

Indirect Acting cholinergics

a)

Acts on a receptor to stimulate a response and primarily selective to muscarinic receptors

b)

Inhibits action of enzyme cholinesterase or acetylcholinesterase which destroys acetylcholine

41.

direct acting cholinergic drug for urinary retention

a)

Bethanechol

b)

Metoclopramide

c)

Carbachol

d)

Pilocarpine

42.

direct acting cholinergic drug for gerd

a)

Bethanechol

b)

Metoclopramide

c)

Carbachol

d)

Pilocarpine

43.

Reduces IOP, causes miosis

a)

Bethanechol

b)

Metoclopramide

c)

Carbachol

d)

Pilocarpine

44.

Alzheimer's Cholinesterase Inhibitors

a)

Tacrine

Donepezil

Rivastigamine

Galantamine

b)

Demecarium bromide

Echothiophate iodide

c)

Edrophonium

Ambenonium

Pyridostigmine bromide

Neostigmine

d)

Physostigmine salicylate

e)

Pralidoxime HCI

45.

Glaucoma's Cholinesterase Inhibitors

a)

Tacrine

Donepezil

Rivastigamine

Galantamine

b)

Demecarium bromide

Echothiophate iodide

c)

Edrophonium

Ambeonium

Pyridostigmine bromide

Neostigmine

d)

Physostigmine salicylate

e)

Pralidoxime HCI

46.

Myasthenia Gravis Cholinesterase Inhibitors

a)

Tacrine

Donepezil

Rivastigamine

Galantamine

b)

Demecarium bromide

Echothiophate iodide

c)

Edrophonium

Ambenonium

Pyridostigmine bromide

Neostigmine

d)

Physostigmine salicylate

e)

Pralidoxime HCI

47.

Pralidoxime will inhibit cholinesterase

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Preoperative medication to reduce salivation, increase heart rate, and dilate pupils

a)

Atropine

b)

Hyoscyamine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Tropicamide

e)

Benztropine

49.

For Peptic ulcer, irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Decreases peristalsis

a)

Atropine

b)

Hyoscyamine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Tropicamide

e)

Benztropine

50.

Pre-anesthetic drug, motion sickness, delirium, IBS. They interfere with nerve impulses by acetylcholine that work directly on the vomiting center of the brain.

a)

Atropine

b)

Hyoscyamine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Tropicamide

e)

Benztropine

51.

Mydriasis. Pwede for eye surgery

a)

Atropine

b)

Hyoscyamine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Tropicamide

e)

Benztropine

52.

Antiparkinsonian

a)

Atropine

b)

Hyoscyamine

c)

Scopolamine

d)

Tropicamide

e)

Benztropine

53.

Bronchodilator for COPD. Best combined with adrenergic drugs. Cause drowsiness in chronic use. Can cause photophobia, dry mouth, decrease in urination, and constipation

a)

Ipratropium

b)

Atomoxetine

c)

Modafinil

d)

thiopental

54.

under medication

result in respiratory failure

(a)  

55.

over medication

causing low heart rate, low bp, muscle cramps, and paralysis

(a)  

56.

Stimulates norepinephrine and dopamine and causes euphoria and alertness, but can also cause sleepiness, restlessness, tremors, and irritability

(a)  

57.

responsible for reward and pleasure

(a)  

58.

Acidic urine excretes amphetamines faster than alkaline urine

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Nacrolepsy drugs

a)

Armodafinil

Modafinil

Dextroamphetamine Sulfate

b)

Methylphenidate

Dexmethylphenidate

Methamphetamine

Lisdexamfetamine

Atomoxetine

c)

Dextroamphetamine

Benzphetamine

Sibutramine

Mazindol

Phentermine

Orlistat

d)

theophylline

caffeine

60.

ADHD drugs

a)

Methylphenidate

Dexmethylphenidate

Methamphetamine

Lisdexamfetamine

Atomoxetine

b)

Dextroamphetamine

Benzphetamine

Sibutramine

Mazindol

Phentermine

Orlistat

c)

theophylline

caffeine

d)

Armodafinil

Modafinil

Dextroamphetamine Sulfate

61.

Treats obesity by suppressing appetite, but self medication is contraindicated.

Not recommended for children below 12 years of age.

Has stimulant effect on the hypothalamic and limbic regions of the brain that controls satiety

(a)  

62.

Anorexiant drugs

a)

Dextroamphetamine

Benzphetamine

Sibutramine

Mazindol

Phentermine

Orlistat

b)

theophylline

caffeine

c)

Armodafinil

Modafinil

Dextroamphetamine Sulfate

d)

Methylphenidate

Dexmethylphenidate

Methamphetamine

Lisdexamfetamine

Atomoxetine

63.

Affects cerebral cortex, brainstem, and spinal cord which stimulate respiration.

(a)  

64.

methylxanthines are contrainicated against neonatal apnea

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Analeptic drugs

a)

theophylline

caffeine

b)

Armodafinil

Modafinil

Dextroamphetamine Sulfate

c)

Methylphenidate

Dexmethylphenidate

Methamphetamine

Lisdexamfetamine

Atomoxetine

d)

Dextroamphetamine

Benzphetamine

Sibutramine

Mazindol

Phentermine

Orlistat

66.

Respiratory CNS Stimulant

used to treat respiratory depression caused by drug overdose, COPD, and anesthesia

(a)  

67.

Are contraindicated in pregnancy, it is category X. It is a CNS stimulant so check for BP and sensations such as weakness and numbness, these are serious side effects that the patient needs to report.

(a)  

68.

Calms and causes sleep. For insomnia, hangover and preoperative medications

(a)  

69.

Mildest form of CNS depression

(a)  

70.

Ultrashort acting barbiturates

a)

thiopental

b)

pentobarbital

c)

butabarbital

d)

mephobarbital

e)

chloral hydrate

71.

Short acting

induces sleep, if you wanted to sleep, no hangover

a)

secobarbital

b)

pentobarbital

c)

butabarbital

d)

mephobarbital

e)

chloral hydrate

72.

Intermediate acting barbiturates

a)

butabarbital

b)

thiopental

c)

secobarbital

d)

mephobarbital

e)

chloral hydrate

73.

Long acting

sustains sleep, if you wanted to have longer sleeps, it has hangover

a)

mephobarbital

b)

butabarbital

c)

thiopental

d)

chloral hydrate

74.

chloral hydrate causes no hangover and less respiratory depression

a)

True

b)

False

75.

alleviates anxiety and may cause sleepiness

a)

Alprazolam

b)

Estazolam

c)

Flurazepam

d)

Lorazepam

e)

Zolpidem

76.

Estazolam

a)

new treatment for insomnia, but should no be used longer than 6 weeks

b)

for insomnia

c)

for preoperative sedative and reduces anxiety

d)

for benzodiazepine overdose or reversal of sedative effects of benzodiazepine with general anesthesia (will wake you up)

e)

treats insomnia

77.

for/treats insomnia

a)

Flurazepam

b)

Zolpidem

c)

Flumazenil

d)

Lorazepam

78.

Lorazepam

a)

for preoperative sedative and reduces anxiety

b)

for benzodiazepine overdose or reversal of sedative effects of benzodiazepine with general anesthesia (will wake you up)

c)

treats insomnia

d)

alleviates anxiety and may cause sleepiness

79.

Zolpidem is under benzodiazepines

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Flumazenil is for benzodiazepine overdose or reversal of sedative effects of benzodiazepine with general anesthesia (will wake you up)

a)

True

b)

False

81.

FOR GENERAL ANESTHESIA (sleep like state)

a)

Thiopental Na

Droperidol

Etomidate

Ketamine

b)

Midazolam

Propofol

82.

CONSCIOUS SEDATION (you are awake and relax but no pain)

a)

Midazolam

Propofol

b)

Thiopental Na

Droperidol

Etomidate

Ketamine

83.

Induction stage that begins with consciousness and ends with loss of consciousness where speech is difficult, sensations are lost, and dreams and hallucinations may occur.

a)

ANALGESIA

b)

EXCITEMENT OR DELIRIUM

c)

SURGICAL

d)

MEDULLARY PARALYSIS

84.

SHORT ACTING LOCAL ANESTHETICS

a)

Chloroprocaine

Procaine

b)

Lidocaine

Mepivacaine

Prilocaine

c)

Bupivacaine

Dibucaine

Etidocaine

Tetracaine

85.

MODERATE ACTING LOCAL ANESTHETICS

a)

Lidocaine

Mepivacaine

Prilocaine

b)

Chloroprocaine

Procaine

c)

Bupivacaine

Dibucaine

Etidocaine

Tetracaine

86.

LONG ACTING LOCAL ANESTHETICS

a)

Bupivacaine

Dibucaine

Etidocaine

Tetracaine

b)

Chloroprocaine

Procaine

c)

Lidocaine

Mepivacaine

Prilocaine

87.

Both left and right hemisphere is affected

a)

GENERALIZED SEIZURE

b)

ABSENCE SEIZURE

c)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

d)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

e)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

88.

staring blankly, sudden lapses on consciousness for 15 seconds

a)

ABSENCE SEIZURE

b)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

c)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

d)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

e)

MYOCLONIC SEIZURE

89.

stiffening-jerking

a)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

b)

MYOCLONIC SEIZURE

c)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

d)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

90.

seizures more than 5 minutes is STATUS EPILEPTICUS

a)

True

b)

False

91.

blank stare then repetitive physical activity. Ex muffled speech, daydreaming, intoxicated

a)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

b)

Febrile seizures

c)

MIXED SEIZURE

d)

MYOCLONIC SEIZURE

92.

brief jerky movements, either one muscle or group of muscles is MYOCLONIC SEIZURE

a)

True

b)

False

93.

BARBITURATES Phenobarbital

a)

GENERALIZED SEIZURE

b)

ABSENCE SEIZURE

c)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

d)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

e)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

94.

BENZODIAZEPINES Diazepam

a)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

b)

ABSENCE SEIZURE

c)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

d)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

e)

GENERALIZED SEIZURE

95.

HYDANTOINS Phenytoin

a)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

b)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

c)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

d)

MYOCLONIC SEIZURE

e)

ABSENCE SEIZURE

96.

SUCCINIMIDES

a)

ABSENCE SEIZURE

b)

GENERALIZED SEIZURE

c)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

d)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

e)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

97.

ACETAZOLAMIDE (DIAMOX)

a)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

b)

ABSENCE SEIZURE

c)

MYOCLONIC SEIZURE

d)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

e)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

98.

CARBAMAZEPINE (TEGRETOL)

a)

TONIC CLONIC SEIZURE

b)

PARTIAL COMPLEX SEIZURE

c)

MIXED SEIZURE

d)

ABSENCE SEIZURE

e)

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

99.

VALPROIC ACID (DEPAKENE) is for ABSENCE SEIZURE

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Regulates anxiety (motor movement)

(a)  

101.

Associated with arousal and general CNS activity levels (well being, happiness, mood, emotion, perception, sleep)

(a)  

102.

Regulates cognition, emotional responses, and motivation

(a)  

103.

Control of arousal, attention, vigilance, mood, affect, and anxiety (concentration, manic responses)

(a)  

104.

Plays a role in sleep and wakefulness

(a)  

105.

Antipsychotics _ action of dopamine

a)

stimulate

b)

block

106.

A chronic psychotic disorder of losing contact with reality manifested in a variety of mental or psychiatric disorders resulting from imbalanced dopamine in the brain

(a)  

107.

PHENOTHIAZINES

a)

Chlorpromazine

Fluphenazine

Perphenazine

Thioridazine

b)

Haloperidol

Loxapine

Molindone

c)

Clozapine

Olanzapine

Quetiapine

Risperidone

Ziprasidone

Aripiprazole

Paliperidone

108.

NON PHENOTHIAZINES

a)

Haloperidol

Loxapine

Molindone

b)

Clozapine

Olanzapine

Quetiapine

Risperidone

Ziprasidone

Aripiprazole

Paliperidone

c)

Chlorpromazine

Fluphenazine

Perphenazine

Thioridazine

109.

THIOXANTHENES

a)

Clozapine

Olanzapine

Quetiapine

Risperidone

Ziprasidone

Aripiprazole

Paliperidone

b)

Chlorpromazine

Fluphenazine

Perphenazine

Thioridazine

c)

Haloperidol

Loxapine

Molindone

110.

EXTRAPYRAMIDAL SYNDROME (EPS) OR PSEUDOPARKINSONISM

a)

ACUTE DYSTONIA

b)

AKATHISIA

c)

TARDIVE DYSKINESIA

d)

MUSCLE RIGIDITY

e)

SERIOUS BUT TREATABLE

111.

ACUTE DYSTONIA

a)

Facial grimacing; involuntary upward eye movement; muscle spasms of tongue, face, neck, and back; and laryngeal spasms

b)

Restless; trouble standing still; paces the floor; feet in constant motion; and rocking back and forth

c)

Protrusion and rolling of tongue; sucking and smacking movement of lips; chewing motion; facial dyskinesia; and involuntary movements of body and extremities

d)

Muscle rigidity, sudden high fever, altered mental status, BP fluctuations, tachycardia, dysrhythmia, seizures, respiratory failure, coma, acute renal failure, rhabdomyolysis

112.

Restless; trouble standing still; paces the floor; feet in constant motion; and rocking back and forth

a)

ACUTE DYSTONIA

b)

AKATHISIA

c)

TARDIVE DYSKINESIA

d)

NEUROLEPTIC MALIGNANT SYNDROME

113.

TARDIVE DYSKINESIA

a)

Protrusion and rolling of tongue; sucking and smacking movement of lips; chewing motion; facial dyskinesia; and involuntary movements of body and extremities

b)

Restless; trouble standing still; paces the floor; feet in constant motion; and rocking back and forth

c)

Facial grimacing; involuntary upward eye movement; muscle spasms of tongue, face, neck, and back; and laryngeal spasms

d)

Stooped posture, shuffling gait, rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors at feet, rolling motion of hands

114.

Alprazolam

a)

anxiety, panic disorders, and depression

b)

alcohol withdrawal, anxiety, and tension

c)

anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, and partial seizures

d)

anxiety, muscle spasms, alcohol withdrawal, status epilepticus, and preoperative sedation

e)

anxiety alcohol withdrawal

115.

alcohol withdrawal, anxiety, and tension

a)

Alprazolam

b)

Chlordiazepoxide

c)

Clorazepate

d)

Diazepam

e)

Lorazepam

116.

Clorazepate

a)

anxiety, panic disorders, and depression

b)

alcohol withdrawal, anxiety, and tension

c)

anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, and partial seizures

d)

anxiety, muscle spasms, alcohol withdrawal, status epilepticus, and preoperative sedation

e)

anxiety alcohol withdrawal

117.

anxiety, muscle spasms, alcohol withdrawal, status epilepticus, and preoperative sedation

a)

Alprazolam

b)

Chlordiazepoxide

c)

Clorazepate

d)

Diazepam

e)

Lorazepam

118.

Lorazepam

a)

anxiety, panic disorders, and depression

b)

alcohol withdrawal, anxiety, and tension

c)

anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, and partial seizures

d)

anxiety, muscle spasms, alcohol withdrawal, status epilepticus, and preoperative sedation

e)

anxiety alcohol withdrawal

119.

AZAPIRONES

anxiety, depression

a)

Buspirone

b)

Flumazenil

120.

A benzodiazepine antagonist which reverses benzodiazepine effects.

a)

Flumazenil

b)

Buspar

121.

REACTIVE DEPRESSION DRUG OF CHOICE

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

Antidepressants

c)

Lithium

122.

MAJOR DEPRESSION DRUG OF CHOICE

a)

Antidepressants

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Lithium

123.

BIPOLAR AFFECTIVE DISORDER DRUG OF CHOICE

a)

Lithium

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Antidepressants

124.

blocks norepinephrine and serotonin

a)

TRICYCLICANTIDEPRESSANTS

b)

SELECTIVE SEROTONIN REUPTAKE INHIBITOR

c)

ATYPICALANTIDEPRESSANTS

d)

MONOAMINE OXIDASE INHIBITORS

125.

blocks serotonin

a)

TCA

b)

SSRI

c)

ATYPICALANTIDEPRESSANTS

d)

MAOI

126.

affects norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine

a)

TCA

b)

SSRI

c)

ATYPICALANTIDEPRESSANTS

d)

MAOI

127.

TRICYCLICANTIDEPRESSANTS

a)

Amitriptyline

Clomipramine

Imipramine

b)

Fluoxetine

Paroxetine

c)

Amoxapine

d)

Isocarboxazid

Phenelzine

Trancyclopromine

Selegiline

128.

SELECTIVE SEROTONIN REUPTAKE INHIBITOR

a)

Fluoxetine

Paroxetine

b)

Amoxapine

c)

Isocarboxazid

Phenelzine

Trancyclopromine

Selegiline

d)

Amitriptyline

Clomipramine

Imipramine

129.

ATYPICALANTIDEPRESSANTS

a)

Amoxapine

b)

Isocarboxazid

Phenelzine

Trancyclopromine

Selegiline

c)

Amitriptyline

Clomipramine

Imipramine

d)

Fluoxetine

Paroxetine

130.

MONOAMINE OXIDASE INHIBITORS

a)

Isocarboxazid

Phenelzine

Trancyclopromine

Selegiline

b)

Amitriptyline

Clomipramine

Imipramine

c)

Fluoxetine

Paroxetine

d)

Amoxapine

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