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Worksheets

Higher Unit 1 Revision

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the backbone of DNA consist of?

a)

Sugar and phosphate

b)

Adenine and thymine

c)

amino acids

d)

hydrogen bonds

2.

The basic units of DNA are called...

(a)  

3.

Select the 3 components of nucleotides

a)

Bases

b)

Phosphates

c)

Deoxyribose sugar

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Linear chromosomes

4.

What does anti-parallel mean?

a)

Strands of DNA run in opposite directions

b)

DNA strands that persistantly intersect with each other

c)

Base pairing is inverted. (A pairs with G and T pairs with C)

d)

The DNA is stored in circular chromosomes and in the plasmids

5.

Which base pairs with Adenine?

(a)  

6.

Which base pairs with Guanine?

(a)  

7.

What holds the bases together?

(a)  

8.

What is the name of the DNA strand's backbone?

a)

Adenine tri-phosphate backbone

b)

Deoxyribose sugar backbone

c)

Guanine and cytosine backbone

d)

Sugar phosphate backbone

9.

What is determined by the order of bases?

(a)  

10.

Which number labels the phosphate ends?

a)

5'

b)

3'

c)

1'

d)

2'

11.

Which number labels the deoxyribose sugar end?

a)

3'

b)

5'

c)

1'

d)

2'

12.

I am a cell which does not contain a nucleus or any organelles, my DNA is stored in chromosomes and plasmids. What am I?

(a)  

13.

I'm a cell which has a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. My DNA is organised as tightly coiled, linear chromosomes in the nucleus. What am I?

(a)  

14.

The associated proteins that DNA wraps around to keep it's shape in the nucleus are called

(a)  

15.

In which organelles do Eukaryotic animal cells contain circular chromosomes?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

16.

In which organelles do Eukaryotic plant cells contain circular chromosomes?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosome

17.

Is a yeast cell Prokaryotic?

a)

No

b)

Yes

18.

Why can both strands of DNA not be replicated continuously?

a)

DNA nucleotides can only be added to 3' end of the new DNA strand.

b)

There is not enough space for both strands to be replicated

c)

There is only one enzyme therefore it can't replicate both strands at the same time

19.

In DNA replication, the fragments of DNA which have been replicated discontinuously are joined together using what?

a)

Ligase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Amylase

20.

What are primers?

a)

Single stranded random sequences of nucleotides

b)

Single stranded sequences of nucleotides which are complementary to a target sequence

c)

Double stranded sequences of nucleotides which are complementary to a target sequence

21.

Replication occurs _______ on the leading strand.

a)

Continuously

b)

Discontinuously

22.

Which enzyme controls the sugar-phosphate bonding of the nucleotides into the DNA strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Amylase

d)

Phosphate

23.

Which is the last step of DNA replication?

a)

RNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

DNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

RNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

24.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the leading strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

25.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

Letter A since it is copied from 5' to 3'

b)

Letter A since it is copied from 3' to 5'

c)

Letter B since it is copied from 3' to 5

d)

Letter B since it is copied from 5' to 3'

26.

DNA replication puts down nucleotides ______' to _____' and is said to be ______________________

a)

5, 3, antiparallel

b)

3, 5, antiparallel

c)

5, 3, parallel

d)

3, 5, parallel

27.

The first stage of Protein Synthesis is...

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

28.

Which of the following are coding regions of an mRNA transcript?

a)

Introns

b)

Exons

29.

Which of the following is not a form of RNA?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

30.
Which sequence of complementary DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG?
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
31.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine present is always equal to the amount of _________.
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
32.

Where is DNA and RNA made?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

ER

33.

RNA contains which sugar?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

Ribose

c)

glucose

d)

fructose

34.

RNA has what base that is instead of thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

35.

A triplet of bases on mRNA is called a

(a)  

36.

A triplet of bases on tRNA is called an

(a)  

37.

What does one codon code for?

a)

A specific protein

b)

A specific amino acid

c)

A specific nucleotide

d)

A specific polypetide chain

38.

Which of the following is NOT true about tRNA?

a)

has an attachment site for a protein

b)

is single stranded

c)

has an anticodon of 3 bases

d)

contains the base uracil

39.

Ribosomes are made of rRNA and

(a)  

40.

Which enzyme controls transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Ligase

41.

RNA polymerase unwinds the DNA and breaks the (a)   bonds between the bases.

42.

What is a primary transcript made up of?

a)

introns

b)

exons

43.

What is a mature transcript made up of?

a)

Introns

b)

exons

44.

What process results in a primary transcript becoming a mature transcript?

a)

DNA replication

b)

RNA splicing

c)

Transcription

d)

RNA Slicing

45.

One gene can result in many genes by because of (a)   RNA splicing.

46.

The order of exons from the primary to the mature transcript...

a)

sometimes changes

b)

always stays the same

c)

always changes

47.

How many of the genes in a cell are expressed?

a)

A fraction

b)

About half of them

c)

Most of them

d)

All of them

48.

What is the result of translation?

a)

mature transcript of mRNA

b)

A protein

c)

A polypeptide

49.

Transcription begins and ends at a start and stop (a)  

50.

Amino acids are joined together by what type of bond?

a)

Peptide

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Strong Chemical

d)

James

51.

Which bonds help to keep polypeptide chains in the 3-D shape of a protein?

(a)  

52.

What do the proteins produced as a result of gene expression determine?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

53.
Stem cells are
a)
cells that grow uncontrollably
b)
undifferentiated and can be any type of cell
c)
never go through cell division
d)
only found in embryos
54.
Stem cells can be obtained from
a)
embryos
b)
some adult tissues
c)
umbilical cord blood
d)
all of the above
55.
What does "pluripotent" mean?
a)
able to divide and make many different types of cells
b)
not able to divide
c)
can only divide and make one cell type 
d)
if it divides, it will make a cancerous tumor
56.
What process best explains how muscle cells and nerve cells can develop from the same fertilized egg?
a)
genetic engineering
b)
survival of the fittest
c)
differentiation
d)
selective breeding
57.
Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
a)
Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart. 
b)

Different genes are switched on in muscle cells than in blood cells. 

c)
Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells. 
d)
A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells. 
58.
What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?
a)
Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells
b)
Adult stem cells are pluripotent, just like embryonic stem cells
c)
Adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells
d)
Adult stem cells grow bigger than embryonic stem cells
59.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off.
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off.
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly.
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
60.
Which is true about Adult Stem Cells.
a)
They no longer do mitosis, their cell type is set and can not change
b)
They are limited to the type of  cell they can become.
c)
They can become any cell type in the body
d)
They are found in embryos
61.

According to this image, which two domains of life are most related?

a)

Bacteria & Archaea

b)

Archaea & Eukarya

c)

Eukarya & Bacteria

62.

Which group of animals on this tree are most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these are related to birds

63.

What is a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)?

a)

A repeat sequence in a genome

b)

A difference in the genome caused by a substitution mutation

c)

A removal of a base within the genome

d)

A highly conserved sequence in the genome

64.

Which of the following terms describes the study of genomes?

a)

Genomics

b)

Bioinformatics

c)

Phylogenetics

d)

Pharmacogenetics

65.

the graph below shows a molecular clock which compares the amino acid sequences in the protein cytochrome C in various vertebrate groups. From the information in the graph, which vertebrate groups shared a common ancestor most recently?

a)

fish and reptiles

b)

birds and mammals

c)

reptiles and mammals

d)

birds and reptiles

66.

What is meant by the term phylogenetics?

a)

The use of statistics and computer technology to analyse gene sequencing data.

b)

The study of a persons genome to produce personalised medicine

c)

The comparison of the genomes of disease and non disease causing organisms

d)

The study of evolutionary relatedness between organisms

67.

Which of the following is a shortcoming of molecular clocks

a)

Mutations occur too rarely to assign a timescale

b)

The assumption that mutations occur at a constant rate.

c)

Mutations don't occur in all species

d)

They are only based on substitution mutations

68.

What are the three domains of life?

a)

Bacteria Archaea Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes Eukaryotes Archaea

c)

Animals Plants Fungi

d)

Bacteria Archaea Prokaryotes

69.

Which of the following data can be used to provide evidence for the sequence of evolutionary events?

a)

DNA sequence data

b)

Protein sequence data

c)

Fossil evidence

d)

A combination of all the evidence above

70.

What is the correct sequence of evolutionary events?

a)

Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, Land plants, Animals

b)

Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes, Animals, Land plants

c)

Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, Animals, Land plants

d)

Prokaryotes, Animals, Land plants, Eukaryotes

71.

Which of these is NOT and example of a model organism?

a)

A mouse that possesses many genes similar to humans

b)

A fruit fly that has many genes in common with those that cause disease in humans

c)

A plant species that has genes that produce a variety of flower colours

d)

A worm that possesses many genes that will allow us to understand nerve functioning and ageing

72.

What is meant by the term Bioinformatics?

a)

The use of statistics and computer technology to analyse gene sequencing data.

b)

The study of a persons genome to produce personalised medicine

c)

The comparison of the genomes of disease and non disease causing organisms

d)

The study of evolutionary relatedness between organisms

73.

What is meant by the term comparative genomics?

a)

The use of statistics and computer technology to analyse gene sequencing data.

b)

The study of a persons genome to produce personalised medicine

c)

Comparing the similarities and differences in genomes between two species e.g. disease and non disease causing organisms

d)

The study of evolutionary relatedness between organisms

74.

What is meant by the term pharmacogenetics?

a)

The use of statistics and computer technology to analyse gene sequencing data.

b)

The study of a persons genome to produce personalised medicine

c)

Comparing the similarities and differences in genomes between two species e.g. disease and non disease causing organisms

d)

The study of evolutionary relatedness between organisms

75.
Identify an application of genetic sequencing below:
a)
Improved and more accurate diagnosis of inherited disorders due to single genes
b)
Providing personalised medication and treatment depending on the genetic combination
c)
Determine evolutionary relationships between species
d)
All of the above
76.

A segment of DNA that codes for a trait

a)

gene

b)

centromere

c)

chromosome

d)

chromatid

77.
What is a genome?
a)
The complete haploid amount of genetic material present in a cell or organism
b)
A garden ornament 
c)
The sum of all human material.
d)
A totally unique set of genetic material not shared with anything else
78.
The genomes of two unrelated humans are ___% the same.
a)
90.0
b)
0.1%
c)
78%
d)
99.9%
79.
What is DNA sequencing?
a)
The total of genes carried by an individual or cell
b)
Coding genes in order to identify single nucleotide polymorphisms
c)
Deciphering the functions of various parts of the human genome
d)
The process of identifying the order of the bases in DNA
80.
What is the general trend of the genome size and number for viruses, bacteria and eukaryotic organisms? 
a)
Genome size and number increases from viruses to bacteria to eukaryotes
b)
Genome size and number decreases from viruses to bacteria to eukaryotes
c)
Genome size and number increases from viruses to bacteria but then decreases to eukaryotes
d)
Genome size decreases from viruses to bacteria but then increases to eukaryotes
81.

What type of chromosomal mutation is this?

a)

Translocation

b)

Inversion

c)

Deletion

d)

Duplication

82.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

83.

Which of the following is not a type of chromosome mutation

a)

Inversion

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Duplication

84.

Which of the following is not a type of single gene mutation

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Duplication

d)

Deletion

85.

Which of the following mutations causes a single different amino acids to be coded for?

a)

Missense

b)

Insertion

c)

Nonsense

d)

Splice site

86.

Which of the following is NOT an example of non translated RNA?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

87.

original chromosome

ABC-DEF

mutated chromosome

AC-DEF

This is a _____________ mutation.

a)

Inversion

b)

Duplication

c)

Deletion

d)

Insertion

88.

Which type of chromosomal mutation has a portion of the chromosome break off and attach to another chromosome?

a)

duplication

b)

translocation

c)

deletion

d)

insertion

89.

If a mutation occurs in an expressed gene, it will most directly affect the structure of a cell's

a)

ATP

b)

Proteins

c)

Membrane

d)

Energy source

90.

Which of the following does NOT describe a feature of all mutations

a)

Harmful

b)

Rare

c)

Random

d)

Spontaneous

91.

The impact of a frameshift mutation on the polypeptide is?

a)

It will change all the amino acids after the mutation

b)

It will change one amino acid

c)

It will lead to a shortened polypeptide due to a premature stop codon

92.

The impact of a nonsesne mutation on the polypeptide is?

a)

It will change all the amino acids after the mutation

b)

It will change one amino acid

c)

It will lead to a shortened polypeptide due to a premature stop codon

93.

Mutations can be negative because

a)

They can cause cancer

b)

They can cause birth defects

c)

They can help an organism thrive in its environment.

d)

They can affect offspring.

94.

Mutations can be negative because

a)

They can cause cancer

b)

They can cause birth defects

c)

They can help an organism thrive in its environment.

d)

They can affect offspring.

95.
What type of chromosomal mutation is this?
a)
Translocation
b)
Inversion
c)
Deletion
d)
Duplication
96.

Mutations are a change in (a)   that results in no protein or an altered protein being synthesised.

97.

Nonsense mutations result in a premature ____ _______ being produced which results in a shorter protein.

(a)  

98.

Which of the following could be involved in a splice-site mutation?

a)

introns being removed that shouldn't

b)

introns being retained that shouldn't

c)

exons being removed that shouldn't

d)

exons being retained that shouldn't

e)

introns being retained AND exons being removed at the same time

99.

What type of mutation allows potential beneficial mutations to occur whilst the original gene can still be expressed to produce its protein?

a)

Translocation

b)

Duplication

c)

Inversion

d)

Deletion

100.
Survival of the Fittest and Evolution were proposed by what scientist?
a)
Charles Darwin
b)
Albert Einstein
c)
Steven Hawking
d)
Isaac Newton
101.
A fossil of an extinct dinosaur is found and the anatomy of the fossil shows similarities to that of a bird. What could this mean?
a)
This is purely by chance and isn't significant
b)
The extinct dinosaur and modern bird share a common ancestor
c)
All dinosaurs evolved into birds and that's why there aren't any dinosaurs alive today
d)
Dinosaurs choose to fly, and evolved into birds to escape predation and capture food
102.
Which of the following are examples of evidence for evolution?
a)
Fossils and Cellular Structure
b)
Biological Structures 
c)
Genetics/DNA
d)
All of the Above
103.
What type of selection is depicted in the picture? 
a)
stabilizing 
b)
directional 
c)
disruptive 
d)
the answer is not here
104.
What type of selection?
a)
Directional 
b)
Stabilizing
c)
Disruptive
105.
Only populations can evolve.
Individuals can not evolve.
a)
True
b)
False
106.
If finches with large beaks and finches with small beaks increase in a population while finches with average sized beaks decreases, which pattern of natural selection has occurred?
a)
Directional selection
b)
Disruptive selection 
c)
Stabilizing selection
107.
On the cladogram, which organism is the closest relative of the human?
a)
Frog
b)
Hare
c)
Caiman
d)
Parrot
108.

Which adaptation this organism using?

a)

camouflage

b)

mimicry

c)

hide and seek

d)

use body covering

109.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the organism knew it needed that trait, survives, and passes it on.

110.
The differences among a species, like different bird beaks, are called
a)
genes.
b)
variations.
c)
traits.
d)
theories.
111.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
112.
What process is being shown in this image?
a)
Variation
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Homeostasis
113.

"Organisms that are better adapted to the environment survive to pass traits to their offspring" is the definition of

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Evolution

c)

Selective Breeding

d)

Artificial Selection

114.

Which best describes the role of mutations in natural selection?

a)

Mutations help an organism to better survive in their environment

b)

An organism may acquire a helpful mutation by interacting with the environment

c)

A mutation may result in a beneficial trait that makes an organism more likely to survive and reproduce

d)

Organisms with certain traits are more likely to win competitions for mutations

115.

The more genetic variation a population has,

the more likely it is for some individuals to

a)

evolve

b)

migrate

c)

survive

d)

mutate

116.

Mutations are important because they bring about

a)

death of the organism in which they develop

b)

genetic variation needed for a population to evolve

c)

benefits for the individual, not for the population

d)

changes in genotype, but not phenotype

117.

Why is competition important for natural selection?

a)

It shows which variations are more successful, allowing the organisms with those variations to survive.

b)

It causes organisms, regardless of which traits they have, to die out, reducing the population size.

c)

It causes organisms to get stronger due to having to outcompete other species.

d)

Competition is not important for natural selection.

118.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
119.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
120.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
121.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
122.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following must be true in order for organisms to be considered the same species?

a)

They must be able to mate

b)

They must be able to produce viable offspring

c)

They must have structural similaries

d)

They must have the same bone structure

123.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

124.

Orcas occur in the same habitat but some are avoiding each other and do not interbreed. They have different diets, vocal behavior, and social structures. What type of speciation is this?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Complex

d)

Covergent

125.

when the organism develops different courtship rituals which do not attract main population this is a part of ____________ speciation.

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Simple

d)

Temporal

126.

The emergence of a mountain range is an event that would lead to _______________ speciation

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Temporal

d)

Behavioral

127.

When the Grand Canyon in Arizona formed, two populations of one squirrel species were separated by the giant canyon. This is an example of _____________ speciation.

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Simple

d)

Divergent

128.
Which of the following must happen for a new species to evolve?
a)
Isolation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Differentiation 
d)
All of the possible multiple choice answers
129.
When a population becomes divided by an event such as a new river forming, ____________ has occurred.
a)
Differentiation 
b)
Isolation
c)
Adaptation
d)
Separation
130.
Variations in a population are caused by:
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Random Mutations
131.
What type of selection is this?
a)
Directional Selection
b)
Stabilizing Selection
c)
Disruptive Selection
d)
Natural Selection
132.
Which of the three graphs shows stabilizing selection?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
133.
If finches with large beaks and finches with small beaks increase in a population while finches with average sized beaks decreases, which pattern of natural selection has occurred?
a)
Directional selection
b)
Disruptive selection 
c)
Stabilizing selection
134.

An individuals personal genome sequence can be used to select the most effective drugs and dosage to treat their disease

a)

Genome

b)

Genomic sequencing

c)

Personalised medicine

d)

Pharmacogenetics

135.

The use of genome information in the choice of drugs

a)

Genome

b)

Genomic sequencing

c)

Personalised medicine

d)

Pharmacogenetics

136.

Using computer and statistical analyses to compare sequence data

a)

Genome

b)

Genomic sequencing

c)

Bioinformatics

d)

Pharmacogenetics

137.

The sequence of nucleotide bases can be determined for individual genes and entire genomes

a)

Genome

b)

Genomic sequencing

c)

Bioinformatics

d)

Pharmacogenetics

138.

An organisms entire hereditary information encoded in DNA

a)

Genome

b)

Genomic sequencing

c)

Bioinformatics

d)

Pharmacogenetics

139.

A genome is made up of

a)

Genes only

b)

Genes and other DNA sequences that code for proteins

c)

Genes and other DNA sequences that do not code for proteins

d)

Genes and proteins

140.

What name is given to complete sequences of DNA that do not carry the code to make proteins?

a)

Coding sequences

b)

Introns

c)

Exons

d)

Non-coding sequences

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