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Midterm Exam in Biochemistry (1st 21-22)

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Proteins are polymers in which:

a)

Branched chains of amino acids are present.

b)

Both unbranched and branched chains of amino acids are present.

c)

Unbranched chains of amino acids are present.

d)

Alternating amino acid and glucose monomer units are present.

2.

Which of the following statements concerning standard amino acids is incorrect?

a)

There are four main categories of amino acids.

b)

They are all alpha-amino acids.

c)

None of the standard amino acids are chiral.

d)

All of the answers are correct.

3.

How do the standard amino acids differ from one another?

a)

in whether or not the amino group is chiral

b)

in whether or not the carboxyl group is chiral

c)

in the number of chiral carbon atoms between the carboxyl group and the amino group

d)

in the identity of the R group (side chain)

4.

During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?

a)

Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost from its amino group of another amino acid.

b)

Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost from its amino group of another amino acid.

c)

Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost from its amino group of another amino acid.

d)

Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost from its amino group of another amino acid.

5.

Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?

a)

Amino group

b)

Side chain      

c)

Carboxyl group

d)

None

6.

Which of the following sets of elements is a possible composition for a standard amino acid?

a)

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and sulfur

b)

carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and sulfur

c)

carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

d)

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur

7.

The joining together of two amino acids to form a dipeptide involves the reaction between:

a)

two amide groups

b)

an amino group and an alpha-carbon

c)

an amino group and a carboxyl group

d)

an alpha-carbon and a hydroxyl group

8.

How many peptide linkages are present in a tripeptide?

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

9.

In the tetrapeptide Phe-Gln-Trp-His, the C-terminal amino acid is:

a)

Phe

b)

Gln

c)

Trp

d)

His

10.

How many different tripeptides can be formed from two molecules of leucine (Leu) and one molecule of glutamic acid (Glu)?

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

11.

To which of the following levels of protein structure is the sequence of amino acids in a protein directly related?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

12.

Interactions between amino acid R groups is responsible for which of the following levels of protein structure?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

both secondary and tertiary

13.

Quaternary structure is possible for a protein only when:

a)

The amino acid cysteine is present.

b)

All amino acids have nonpolar R groups.

c)

Two or more protein chains are present.

d)

A protein chain bends back on itself.

14.

The non-amino acid portion of a conjugated protein is called a

a)

side chain

b)

prosthetic group

c)

hydrophobic group

d)

hydrophilic group

15.

Which of the following is an incorrect characterization for the protein hemoglobin?

a)

multimeric protein

b)

globular protein

c)

simple protein

d)

conjugated protein

16.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about glycine, the amino acid with the simplest structure?

a)

It does not contain a chiral center.

b)

It has a side chain that does not contain the element carbon.

c)

It is one of the 20 standard amino acids.

d)

Its amino group and carboxyl group are directly bonded to each other.

17.

Which of the following amino acids has an amide side chain?

a)

Aspartic acid      

b)

Glutamic acid

c)

Asparagine

d)

Methionine

18.

Which of the following amino acids does NOT have an aromatic ring?

a)

tyrosine

b)

histidine

c)

tryptophan

d)

proline

19.

  Which of the following is NOT a part of the primary protein structure?

a)

The amino acid sequence

b)

the disulfide linkages

c)

The planar nature of the amide linkage

d)

The conformation of the polypeptide backbone

20.

Which of the following is NOT an example of secondary structure found in proteins?

a)

Β-pleated sheet

b)

alpha helix

c)

hydrophobic folding

d)

random coil

21.

What does the quaternary structure of a protein involve?

a)

The complete three-dimensional conformation

b)

Partial denaturation

c)

The association of two or more peptide chains.

d)

Random coil alternating with α-helix

22.

  Which of the following is NOT considered part of the tertiary structure of proteins?

a)

The hydrophobic effect

b)

The restricted rotation in amide bonds.

c)

  The electrostatic interactions

d)

The hydrogen bonds.

23.

Which of the following statements concerning the tripeptide Val–Ala–Gly is correct?

a)

The C-terminal amino acid residue is Val.

b)

The N-terminal amino acid residue is Gly.

c)

Three peptide linkages are present.

d)

No correct response

24.

  In which of the following pairs of proteins are both members of the pair fibrous proteins?

a)

collagen and hemoglobin

b)

alpha-keratin and collagen

c)

hemoglobin and myoglobin

d)

collagen and hemoglobin

25.

  The shape of protein is determined by_________.

a)

The type and order of its amino acids

b)

its size

c)

its cell location

d)

none of these

26.

Two amino acids of the standard 20 contain sulfur atoms. They are:

a)

Cysteine and serine        

b)

Cysteine and threonine

c)

methionine and cysteine

d)

methionine and serine

27.

Which of the following statements about an enzyme is FALSE?

a)

An enzyme is usually a large protein.

b)

An enzyme is a catalyst for biological reactions.

c)

An enzyme is a chiral molecule.

d)

An enzyme changes the equilibrium constant of a reaction.

28.

What is the main function of enzymes in biological systems?

a)

catalysis of a reaction

b)

altering the equilibrium of a reaction

c)

energy transport

d)

protein synthesis

29.

Pepsin and trypsin are enzymes that are characterized as______.

a)

sugars

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

proteins

30.

   After an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction, the enzyme is released from the complex and the enzyme is then__________.

a)

destroyed

b)

Chemically changed

c)

Converted to an electrically charged molecule

d)

restored to its original state

31.

Which of the following enzyme groups can catalyze oxidation reactions?

a)

Phosphorylases

b)

dehydrogenases

c)

hydrolases

d)

isomerases

32.

Which one of the following conditions is LEAST likely to denature an enzyme?

a)

a high temperature

b)

a low temperature

c)

heavy metal ions

d)

an extreme pH

33.

  Which type of enzyme catalyzes the conversion of a dipeptide into two separate amino acids?

a)

decarboxylase

b)

oxidoreductase

c)

hydrolase

d)

dehydrogenase

34.

  The action of an enzyme depends on the specific structure of its active site. Which of these bonds are not important in maintaining the shape of the active site?

a)

ionic

b)

hydogen

c)

disulfide

d)

phosphodiester

35.

The enzyme fumarase catalyzes the reversible hydration of fumaric acid to 1-malate, but it will not catalyze the hydration of maleic acid, the cis isomer of fumaric acid. This is an example of:

a)

Biological activity            

b)

Chiral activity

c)

racemization

d)

stereospecificity

36.

   Which are the two most common endings for the name of an enzyme?

a)

–ase and –ose

b)

–in and –ogen

c)

–ase and -in

d)

–in and -ine

37.

Which of the following pairs in INCORRECT?

a)

lipase – hydrolysis of ester linkages in lipids

b)

reductase- reduction of a substrate

c)

dehydrogenase- introduction of a double bond through hydrogen removal

d)

kinase-transfer of amino groups between substrates

38.

Which of the following is always present in both conjugated enzymes and simple enzymes?

a)

protein

b)

vitamin

c)

cofactor

d)

coenzyme

39.

Which of the following is true for a conjugated enzyme?

a)

It contains only protein.

b)

It does not contain protein.

c)

It has a non-protein part.

d)

It always contains a metal ion.

40.

   Which of the following statements concerning cofactors is INCORRECT?

a)

All conjugated enzymes contain cofactors.

b)

Some cofactors are metal ions.

c)

A cofactor is the non-protein portion of an enzyme.

d)

Vitamins cannot be cofactors.

41.

What happens to substrate molecules at an enzyme active site?

a)

  They always react with O2.

b)

They become covalently bonded to the enzyme.

c)

  They become catalysts.

d)

   They undergo change to a desired product.

42.

   Which of the following statements about a reversible noncompetitive inhibitor is CORRECT?

a)

  It prevents substrate from occupying the enzyme active site.

b)

   It must resemble the substrate in general shape.

c)

The substrate can simultaneously occupy the active site.

d)

It binds to the enzyme at a location other than the active site.

43.

  It is the limitation of an enzyme to catalyze specific reactions with specific substrates.

a)

 substrate specificity      

b)

enzyme specificity

c)

catalysis

d)

coenzyme

44.

What is the structure of all DNA molecules?

a)

double helix

b)

circular

c)

single strand

d)

varied

45.

Which of the following nitrogen bases would NOT be found in DNA?

a)

thymine

b)

cystosine

c)

uracil

d)

adenine

46.

  What is the structural difference between DNA and RNA?

a)

RNA is double stranded, while DNA is single stranded

b)

DNA utilizes 16 nitrogen bases, while RNA uses 4

c)

   There are no structural differences, they are exactly the same.

d)

  DNA is double stranded, while RNA is single stranded

47.

What are the three parts of every DNA nucleotide?

a)

Deoxyribose Sugar, Phosphate, Oxygen Bases

b)

Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen bases

c)

  Ribose Sugar, Phosphate, Oxygen Bases

d)

    Ribose Sugar, Phsphate, Nitrogen Bases

48.

  Where does the process of DNA replication occur?

a)

ribosomes

b)

nucleus

c)

cytoplasm

d)

mitochondria

49.

  Where does the process of transcription start?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

rough ER

d)

cytoplasm

50.

  Information sources used by Watson and Crick to determine the structure of DNA included_____.

a)

Nuclear magnetic resonance analysis of DNA.

b)

  Electron micrographs of individual DNA molecules.

c)

X-ray crystallography and double stranded DNA

d)

  Light micrographs of individual bacterial chromosomes.

51.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
52.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

53.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
54.

Why must transcription occur in the nucleus?

a)

because DNA can't leave the nucleus

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

55.

How are DNA and RNA different? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Only DNA can leave the nucleus

b)

RNA contains Thymine; DNA contains Uracil

c)

DNA is double stranded, RNA is a single stranded

d)

DNA contains Thymine, RNA contains Uracil

56.

Which organelle contains rRNA and reads the mRNA to synthesize a protein?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

57.

Choose the sequence of the mRNA strand that would match up with to the following DNA strand:

GTACAT

a)

CATGTA

b)

GAUCUA

c)

CAUGUA

d)

CUTGTU

58.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

59.

How many nucleotides code for 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

60.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
61.

Which anticodon would be placed in spot #2

a)

GGC

b)

CCA

c)

GGA

d)

GGT

62.

Which process does this diagram illustrate?

a)

transcription

b)

DNA replication

c)

translation

63.

What determines the shape and function of a protein?

a)

The sequence of amino acids

b)

The type of ribosome that assembles the protein

c)

The cell that manufactures the protein

64.

True or False: mRNA contains anticodons and tRNA contains codons.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

How can a mutation in the DNA sequence result in NO change to the protein that is made?

a)

There are multiple codons that can code for the same amino acid and result in the same protein

b)

There is always a change in the protein when a mutation occurs

c)

Only the mRNA is used in protein synthesis so a mutation in the DNA would have no effect on the protein

66.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
67.
A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
lipids
d)
proteins
68.

DNA replication creates two strands of DNA from one. If pink is parental DNA and blue is new DNA - which picture demonstrates the accepted model of DNA replication after the SECOND replication cycle?

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

70.

You are given the DNA strand 5'ATGCTCAGCTGA3'. What is the corresponding DNA strand?

a)

5'UACGAGUCGACU3'

b)

5'TACGAGTCGACT3'

c)

3'UACGAGUCGACU5'

d)

3'TACGAGTCGACT5'

71.

Many enzymes are involved in DNA replication. Which is the correct order of enzymes involved in DNA replication from beginning to end?

a)

Helicase, DNA primase, DNA polymerase, Ligase

b)

RNA primase, Helicase, DNA polymerase, Ligase

c)

Helicase, RNA primase, DNA polymerase, Ligase

d)

DNA primase, Helicase, RNA polymerase, Ligase

72.

Which is the role of DNA polymerase?

a)

Unwinds the original DNA strand

b)

Lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

Builds new strands by bringing in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Remove Okazaki fragments for new nucleotides.

73.

Which is the last step of DNA replication?

a)

RNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

DNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

RNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

74.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the leading strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

75.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

Letter A since it is copied from 5' to 3'

b)

Letter A since it is copied from 3' to 5'

c)

Letter B since it is copied from 3' to 5

d)

Letter B since it is copied from 5' to 3'

76.

Which letter in the given picture depicts the okazaki fragments?

a)

A - lagging strand

b)

C - leading strand

c)

B - lagging strand

d)

C - replication fork

77.

DNA replication puts down nucleotides ______' to _____' and is said to be ______________________

a)

5, 3, antiparallel

b)

3, 5, antiparallel

c)

5, 3, parallel

d)

3, 5, parallel

78.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
79.
Why does DNA replicate?
a)
To create another copy for the new cell
b)
To create a duplicate copy in case the original gets damaged
c)
To create a new copy to replace the damaged original
80.
The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in
a)
none of these
b)
Two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands
c)
two exact copies with new strands
d)
two identical molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.
81.
What strand is copied faster?
a)
Leading
b)
Lagging
82.
Who's work concluded that the %A=%T  and %G=%C
a)
Chargaff
b)
Meischer
c)
Levene
d)
Hammerling
83.

What is the charge of a DNA molecule?

a)

Positive because of the purine bases

b)

Negative because of the phosphate groups

c)

Positive because deoxyribose has a positive charge

d)

Negative because of the hydrogen bonds

84.

What's the difference between purine and pyrimidine nitrogen bases?

a)

Pyrimidines are only found in DNA, not RNA

b)

Pyrimidines have two rings, Purines have one

c)

Purines are only found in DNA, not RNA

d)

Purines have two rings, Pyrimidines have one

85.

What is the process in which protein synthesis happens?

a)

DNA-->RNA--> Proteins

b)

DNA-->Proteins-->RNA

c)

Protein--->DNA--->RNA

d)

Protein Synthesis--> Transcription-->Translation

86.

Who discovered the structure of DNA

a)

Francis/Crick

b)

Crick/ Williams

c)

James/Watson

d)

Crick/Watson

87.

Base Pairing for DNA means the what bases are attracted to each other

a)

(A)denine->(T)hymine, (G)uanine->(C)ytosine

b)

(A)denine-> (C)ytosine,

(T)hymine->(G)uanine

c)

(A)denine->(U)racil, (G)uanine-> (C)ytosine

d)

None of these

88.

What is considered to be our blueprints?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Nucleus

d)

Protein

89.

Which one is not a stopping Codon?

a)

UAG

b)

UAA

c)

AUG

d)

UGA

90.

What is the rule for base pairing in RNA

a)

A-->T

b)

C--->G

c)

A-->U

d)

U--->T