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PBS 2.2

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The type of gel being used for electrophoresis is called

a)

agarose.

b)

RFLP.

c)

Edvotek.

d)

gelatin.

e)

FH.

2.

The gene that causes familial hypercholesterolemia is

a)

autosomal dominant.

b)

on chromosome 17.

c)

caused by a defect in the LDL receptor.

d)

autosomal recessive.

e)

caused by a defect in how the liver processes HDL.

3.

In order to withdraw a specific volume or quantity of liquid sample using a micropipette, you depress the plunger

a)

a tiny bit.

b)

all the way down.

c)

multiple times, up and down.

d)

to the first point of resistance.

e)

very fast.

4.

In order to expel (release) all of the liquid sample using a micropipette, you

a)

twist the volume adjuster clockwise.

b)

depress the plunger all the way down.

c)

twist the volume adjuster counterclockwise.

d)

depress the blue pipet tip release lever.

e)

depress the plunger to the first point of resistance.

5.

In order to visual differences in DNA genotypes (like who is FF, who is Ff, who is ff), we use RFLP. Before RFLP, we need to

a)

use PCR to amplify the DNA.

b)

use gel electrophoresis to separate the DNA.

c)

use restriction enzymes to cut the DNA.

d)

use micropipettes to dispense DNA samples in the gel.

e)

use SybrSafe to stain the DNA.

6.

Janet does not have the gene for familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). Based on the inheritance pattern for FH, what is the genotype of Erwin?

a)

FF

b)

ff

c)

Ff

d)

He has FH

e)

He does not have FH

7.

Janet does not have familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). Based on the inheritance pattern of FH, the restriction enzyme used to cut the DNA

a)

cuts the DNA with the FH mutation once.

b)

cuts the DNA with the FH mutation twice.

c)

cuts the DNA with the FH mutation three times.

d)

does not cut the DNA with the FH mutation

8.

Many of genetic tests available today can be bought at a local pharmacy without a prescription, a sample given and sent to a company that will analyze the sample and send the results usually by mail, email or app notification within a few days. This type of testing is called, specifically in this instance,

a)

predisposition testing.

b)

presumptive testing

c)

confirmatory testing.

d)

direct-to-consumer testing.

9.

The process of analyzing differences in alleles (DNA) or detect mutations in DNA is to compare them using a process called (a)   or RFLP which copies the DNA sample, adds in restriction enzymes that may cut the sample at specific places and analyze the differences on a gel.

10.

The process of amplifying or making lots of copies of a sample of DNA is called (a)   or PCR.

11.
What is the genotype for someone who is homozygous for familial hypercholesterolemia?
a)
ff
b)
Ff
c)
FF
12.
What process is used to analyze the DNA? (what we did in lab)
a)
Centrifuge
b)
Transcription
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
Protein synthesis
13.
DNA has an overall charge of __________.
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
14.
Can someone be a carrier of the FH gene? Why or why not?
a)
Yes, because it is recessive
b)
Yes, because it is dominant
c)
No, because it is recessive
d)
No, because it is dominant
15.

Individuals that are shaded in have premature hair whitening. Is this trait dominant or recessive? How do you know?

a)

Dominant because it skips generations

b)

Dominant because it is present in every generation

c)

Recessive because it skips generations

d)

Recessive because it is present in every generation.

16.
What is the purpose of PCR?
a)
To produce millions of copies of DNA.
b)
To produce millions of copies of a specific region of DNA
c)
To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
d)
To watch polymerase work.
17.
At what temperature does the Denature step of PCR occur?
a)
94-96° C
b)
50-65° C
c)
72° C
d)
Any temperature
18.
Why does PCR require a specific type of polymerase?
a)
Taq polymerase can withstand the range of temperatures in PCR without denaturing.
b)
Taq polymerase is the most inexpensive type of polymerase.
c)
Taq polymerase is the most common type of polymerase.
d)
A specific type of polymerase is unnecessary.
19.

The first step in PCR is

a)

Primer annealing

b)

Denaturation

c)

Primer extension

d)

None of these

20.
What happens during the Anneal step of PCR?
a)
Primers are created.
b)
The primers attach to the target DNA region.
c)
Primers copy the new DNA strand.
d)
Primers sequence DNA
21.

Does PCR require a primer?

a)

Yes

b)

No

22.

What is the denaturation step?

a)

mutating RNA polymerase

b)

Cooling DNA to allow primers to form

c)

separating DNA helix in a cold environment

d)

separating DNA helix with using heat

23.
What is the purpose of the Extension step of PCR?
a)
To create the primers.
b)
To extend the time it takes to produce DNA.
c)
To allow polymerase to create the complementary strands of DNA.
d)
To allow substrates to copy DNA sequences.
24.
What is the function of a primer?
a)
To identify the particular region of DNA to be copied by PCR.
b)
To copy DNA.
c)
To create DNA nucleotides.
d)
To maintain the temperature of the PCR reaction.
25.
What are the base-pairing rules in DNA?
a)
A-C, G-T
b)
A-U, G-C
c)
A-T, G-C
d)
A-C, G-U
26.

What is the denaturation step?

a)

mutating RNA polymerase

b)

Cooling DNA to allow primers to form

c)

separating DNA helix in a cold environment

d)

separating DNA helix with using heat

27.

What happens after you have denatured your DNA?

a)

It denatures again.

b)

Primers attach to the gene of interest.

c)

The gene elongates

d)

PCR is over

28.

How many copies of DNA are made after 1 cycle of PCR? (we did 30 cycles during the last block period).

a)

1

b)

2

c)

1 million

d)

4

29.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, restriction enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

30.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
31.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
32.

What is the force that separates the DNA fragments by size during gel electrophroesis?

a)

Magnetic force

b)

Gravitational force

c)

Electrical force

d)

Jiu Jitsu

33.

If a restriction enzyme cuts linear DNA 3 times, how many DNA fragments were made?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

34.

What is NOT needed for a PCR reaction?

a)

DNA template

b)

Taq polymerase

c)

Nucleosides

d)

Primase

35.
You decide to use PCR to determine if you have Cystic Fibrosis, a genetic disorder. You then decide to also check if you are at risk for developing Alzheimers, another genetic disorder.
What PCR "ingredient" would be different in these two tests?
a)
Template DNA
b)
Nucleotides
c)
Taq DNA polymerase
d)
Primers
36.

At what temperature does annealing of primers take place in PCR?

a)

50 - 65oC

b)

94oC

c)

37oC

d)

72oC

37.

At what temperature does extension of the target gene take place in PCR?

a)

50 - 65oC

b)

94oC

c)

37oC

d)

72oC

38.

What is the name of the bond that exists between bases of the coding and template strand of DNA? (Give the name, not the symbol)

(a)  

39.

Cancer can be defined as ___________ tumors that invade other tissues and spread to other parts of the body in a process called ____________.

a)

benign; mitosis

b)

malignant; metastasis

c)

malignant; interphase

d)

benign; replication

40.

A(n) ___________ is a test which take a closer look at cells to see if they are cancerous.

a)

MRI

b)

blood test

c)

biopsy

d)

metastasis

41.

A feature of cancerous cells, shown in the figure here, is that cancerous cells

a)

have larger (compared to the whole cell) and multiple nuclei.

b)

have smaller (compared to the whole cell) and a single nucleus.

c)

are arranged in an organized manner.

d)

have kept their specialized structures.

42.

Which sample of cells are cancerous?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

A and B

d)

neither - both A and B are samples of healthy cells

43.
How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
44.
What is is called when a tumor proves to be NON cancerous?
a)
malignant
b)
benign
c)
oncogene
d)
byogene
45.

Which of the following best defines cancerous cells?

a)

Unregulated cell growth

b)

Incapable of creating new DNA

c)

Lack of mitochondria

d)

Slow cell replication

46.
In DNA, Adenine pairs with ___________. 
a)
Guanine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
47.
DNA has a _____________ structure. 
a)
double helix
b)
single strand
c)
ring 
d)
chain
48.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
49.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
50.

DNA holds the code for making

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

sugars

51.

Choose the sequence of the mRNA strand that would be match up with to the following strand:

GTAGTCA

a)

UATUAGA

b)

ACGACTG

c)

CAUCAGU

d)

CATCAGT

52.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
53.
What part of protein synthesis does this diagram represent?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA
54.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
55.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
56.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
57.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
58.

In this pedigree, the shading represents people in the family with dark hair while the unshaded represents blondes. Is dark hair controlled by a dominant or recessive allele?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

59.

Objective #13

This is a pedigree that follows blue eyes which is a recessive trait. What is the genotype of the father (square) in generation 1?

a)

Aa

b)

AA

c)

aa

d)

A?

60.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
61.

The individual building blocks of DNA (made of a sugar/phosphate/base)

a)

chromosomes

b)

proteins

c)

base pairs

d)

nucleotides

62.

What organelle houses our DNA?

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

cytoplasm

63.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

64.

Insertion, deletion, and substitution are all examples of a change in a genetic sequence which is also referred to as (a)

a)

Gene

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Ribose

d)

Mutation

65.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

66.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
67.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
68.
Which of the following is the site of transcription?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
69.
Which of the following is the site of translation?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
70.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
71.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
72.

The process of reading mRNA to create a chain of amino acids (protein) is called

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

transformation

d)

transduction

73.

How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:

ATG GGA ACT CCA

a)

4

b)

2

c)

6

d)

3

74.
When an extra base is inserted into the DNA sequence of a gene, the protein doesn't work. Which explains why?
a)
the base increases rate of translation
b)
the base causes DNA to be transcribed in opposite direction
c)
the inserted base causes the codons in the sequence to be incorrect for the desired protein
d)
the base signals enzymes to translate DNA rather than RNA
75.

When a gene is activated _________ binds to the DNA at the start of the gene and moves along the DNA to create mRNA

a)

keritanase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

TAQ polymerase

d)

catalyase

76.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
77.
21 nucleotides will provide how many codons?
a)
3 amino acids
b)
5 amino acids
c)
7 amino acids
d)
9 amino acids
78.

The anticodon can be found on ____________.

a)

transfer RNA

b)

DNA

c)

messenger RNA

d)

ribosomal RNA

79.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

80.

What enzymes does transcription use?

a)

DNA polymerase and DNA helicase

b)

DNA ligase and RNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase and DNA helicase

d)

DNA helicase and DNA ligase

81.

RNA must be edited before it can be used to make proteins, what happens during this editing process?

a)

Exons are removed

b)

Introns are removed

c)

Improperly paired bases are fixed

d)

The RNA is checked for typos

82.

How many nucleotides equal make up a codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

83.

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

84.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

85.

What enzyme transcribes DNA into mRNA?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

helicase

d)

rRNA

86.
How many different amino acids are there?
a)
20
b)
16
c)
10
d)
24
87.
How many different codons are possible?
a)
20
b)
13
c)
64
d)
127
88.

A mRNA sequence consist of 120 nucleotides. How many amino acids make up the protein this sequence will code for?

a)

40

b)

30

c)

20

d)

60

89.
Which of the following statements regarding mRNA is correct?
a)
Exons are included in the protein sequence, while introns are left out
b)
Introns are included in the protein sequence, while exons are left out
c)
Exons and Introns can both be included or left out depending on the protein
d)
Exons and Introns are both part of the mRNA sequence, but only exons are part of the rRNA and tRNA
90.
Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true?
a)
A codon can specify more than one amino acid
b)
Every codon specifies a different amino acid
c)
Some codons specify the same amino acid
d)
Some codons have no function at all
91.

The enzyme _____ is responsible for “unwinding” and “unzipping” DNA.

a)

DNA Ligase

b)

RNA Polymerase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

DNA Helicase

92.

During RNA processing the regions that being removed are

a)

Intron

b)

Exon

93.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
94.
If you are missing or have an extra base  at the end of your mutated DNA . What type of mutation occurred?
a)
Substitution
b)
Frameshift
c)
Duplication 
d)
Insertion
95.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
96.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
97.

Which type of mutation is MOST LIKELY to cause the greatest disruption?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Silent

c)

Point

98.
A type of substitution in which one amino acid changes is called 
a)
Nonsense
b)
Missense
c)
Silent
d)
all of the above
99.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
100.
What is the definition of DNA mutation? 
a)
The original DNA strand
b)
The strand with four pairs 
c)
A change in the DNA strand
d)
The strand in a double helix 
101.

At the A site of the ribosome...

a)

mRNA and tRNA arrive at the ribosome

b)

A protein chain is created

c)

the tRNA exits the ribosome

d)

The DNA is amplified

102.

At the P site of the ribosome...

a)

mRNA and tRNA arrive at the ribosome

b)

A protein chain is created

c)

the tRNA exits the ribosome

d)

The DNA is amplified

103.

At the E site of the ribosome...

a)

mRNA and tRNA arrive at the ribosome

b)

A protein chain is created

c)

the tRNA exits the ribosome

d)

The DNA is amplified

104.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)

Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogenous base

b)

Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogenous base

c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
105.

The two strands of nitrogenous bases in DNA are joined (in the middle) by which type of bond?

a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
106.
If a DNA molecule consists of 29% Guanine, how much cytosine will it contain?
a)
29%
b)
58%
c)
21%
d)

There is not enough information

107.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
108.
What is the template for mRNA?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
proteins
109.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

110.
Which of these nitrogenous bases is classified as a purine?
a)
Adenine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
111.
Which of these nitrogenous bases is classified as a pyrimidine?
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
112.
How many hydrogen bonds form between Adenine and Thymine?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
113.
How many hydrogen bonds form between Cytosine and Guanine?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
114.

Identify.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

115.

What type of RNA is shown in this image?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

116.

The type of bonds connecting multiple amino acids

a)
Ionic Bond
b)
Glycosidic bond
c)
Peptide bond
d)
Ester bond
117.

Who discovered that A = T and C = G?

a)

Chargaff

b)

Franklin

c)

Watson & Crick

d)

Griffith

118.

Henrietta Lacks is famous for:

a)

Being the first black teacher in the state of Texas

b)

Her family was the first family freed from slavery

c)

Her cells being stolen and used to create the polio vaccine

d)

Being the first black woman lawyer

119.

By looking at the chromosomes how can you tell that this person is biologically female?

a)

Because there are two X chromosomes

b)

Because there are more chromosomes than in a male

120.

By looking at the chromosomes is this individual biologically male or female? How do you know?

a)

Female, because they have two X chromosomes

b)

Male, because they have one X and one Y chromosome

121.

Full set of chromosomes of a cell arranged with respect to size, shape, and number.

a)

chromatin

b)

karyotype

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

122.

the number of the chromosome in the human somatic cells is ...

(a)  

123.

How many chromosomes are in male karyotype?

(a)  

124.

**************** chromosome

a)

metacentric

b)

acrocentric

c)

submetacentric

d)

telocentric

125.

**************** chromosome

a)

metacentric

b)

acrocentric

c)

submetacentric

d)

telocentric

126.

**************** chromosome

a)

metacentric

b)

acrocentric

c)

submetacentric

d)

telocentric

127.
An example of a mutation where a piece of chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome is called ___.
a)
trisomy
b)
translocation
c)
inversion
d)
deletion
128.
A chromosome is found to be shorter than it's homologous match.  Which type of mutation would this most likely be?
a)
insertion
b)
deletion
c)
translocation
d)
inversion
129.
What process occurs during meiosis that can result in chromosomal disorders?
a)
crossing over
b)
non-disjunction
c)
anaphase I
d)
prophase II
130.
What is an autosome?
a)
automobile built for one person
b)
chromosome that does not determine gender
c)
chromosome that does determine gender
d)
a plant because they do photosynthesis
131.
What is the yellow dot in the middle of this picture? 
a)
Chromatid
b)
Chromosome 
c)
Centromere
132.

p arm is the longer arm

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Mass of rapidly dividing cells that can damage surrounding tissue.

a)

growth factor

b)

human growth hormone

c)

cancer

d)

tumor

134.

Apoptosis is

a)

the process of programmed cell death

b)

the process of programmed cell growth

c)

the process of programmed cell birth

d)

the process of programmed cell regulation

135.
When cancer spreads to other tissues of the body, it is called...
a)
Metastasis
b)
Invasiveness
c)
Angiogenesis
d)
Chemotherapy
136.

What is angiogenesis

a)

growth of capillaries towards a malignant tumor.

b)

a mutation of cells.

c)

loss of specialized cells.

d)

growth of new tumors.

137.

There are three external cell regulators: growth factors, contact inhibition, and anchorage dependence. The following description matches which regulator.

Cells need to be securely attached to the extracellular matrix before dividing.

a)

growth factors

b)

contact inhibition

c)

anchorage dependence

138.

There are three external cell regulators: growth factors, contact inhibition, and anchorage dependence. The following description matches which regulator.

Cells have receptors that recognize the nearness of neighboring cells.

a)

growth factors

b)

contact inhibition

c)

anchorage dependence

139.

Is "apoptosis" a bad thing? Would it be better if none of your cells did it?

a)

No! Apoptosis is an important biological function

b)

Yes, we would be much healthier without apoptosis

140.

On a scale of 1-10, 1 meaning 'don't worry about it' and 10 being 'go see a dermatologist immediately', how would you classify this image?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

7

d)

10

141.

When diagnosing melanoma, which of the following does C stand for in ABCDE?

a)

color change

b)

cyanosis

c)

cold to the touch

d)

carotene present

142.

When diagnosing melanoma, which of the following does B stand for in ABCDE?

a)

bigger than dime

b)

Border

c)

blackish in color

143.

What is the abbreviation for melanoma detection guide?

a)

ABCDE

b)

ABC

c)

DE

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