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final revison

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Organisms that use energy from the sun to make their own food are called

a)

carnivores.

b)

consumers.

c)

omnivores.

d)

producers.

2.

________ are responsible for recycling matter back into the food web once an organism has died.

a)

Carnivores

b)

Decomposers

c)

Omnivores

d)

Producers

3.

Photosynthesis is used to produce food for plants in the form of glucose. In the process, oxygen is released. As shown in the diagram, plants require water and carbon dioxide (from the air). What else is required for photosynthesis and what role does it play?

a)

Light is required to provide energy for photosynthesis.

b)

ATP is required as an energy source for photosynthesis.

c)

Glucose is required as an energy source for photosynthesis

d)

Oxygen is required to split water molecules in photosynthesis.

4.
Which organisms perform Photosynthesis?
a)
Only Autotrophs
b)
Only Heterotrophs
c)
Autotrophs and Heterotrophs
5.

the flow of water throught a plant is called

a)

guard cells

b)

stomata

c)

xylem

d)

transpirtation

6.

Water is transported from roots to shoots and leaves in:

a)

Xylem

b)

Phloem

c)

Stomata

d)

Cholorophyll

7.

What happens to the transpiration rate as light intensity increases?

a)

It changes

b)

It stays the same

c)

It decreases

d)

It increases

8.

What happens to the transpiration rate as temperature increases?

a)

It stays the same

b)

It changes

c)

It increases

d)

It decreases

9.

The path of food energy in an ecosystem from plants to animals.

a)

omnivore

b)

food chain

c)

producer

d)

consumer

10.

What is the term for food chains that overlap

a)

consumer

b)

food web

c)

extinction

d)

producers

11.
How do adaptations help animals?
a)
to hide from predators
b)
to hunt for food
c)
to survive in their habitats
d)
All of these are correct
12.
The source of all genetic material is...
a)
Protein
b)
cells
c)
DNA
d)
The brain
13.

Adaptations can be...

a)

mutations

b)

Behaviors

c)

Both B and D

d)

Phyisical characteristics

14.

Adaptations that desert plants have include

a)

waxy cutticles

b)

hairy stems

c)

thin leaves

d)

short roots

15.

What is an adaptation?

a)

A behavior that helps an animal survive.

b)

The food that animal eats.

c)

How energy moves in a food web.

d)

How animals evolve throughout time.

16.

What are the 4 things that living things need to survive?

a)

air, food, protection, love

b)

food, water, space, air

c)

love, protection, air, space

d)

protection, water, meat, plants

17.

True or false: Humans have studied adaptations in order to create technology to survive.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Fill in the blanks: A _________ adaptation is the way an animal acts in order to help them survive.

a)

Physical

b)

Behavioral

c)

Simple

d)

Memory

19.

Fill in the blank: A ______________ adaptation is the way an animal looks in order to help them survive.

a)

simple

b)

behavioral

c)

physical

d)

extreme

20.

What are three levels o your genetic code in order from smallest to largest?

a)

gene, DNA, chromosomes

b)

DNA, chromosomes,gene

c)

chromosomes, gene, DNA,

d)

DNA, gene, chromosomes,

21.

How many chromosomes does a human have in every cell?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

40

d)

26

22.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
23.
The traits of an organism are passed to its offspring on small coded strands of DNA material called
a)
meiosis
b)
recessive traits
c)
genes
d)
heredity
24.
Long strands of DNA are called
a)
DNA
b)
Chromosome
c)
Alleles
d)
Phenotype
25.
______ is the physical expression of genes
a)
DNA
b)
Chromosome
c)
Alleles
d)
Phenotype
26.
______ is the set of genes possessed by someone
a)
DNA
b)
Chromosome
c)
Genotype
d)
Phenotype
27.
What shape is DNA?
a)
Double Helix
b)
Double Trouble
c)
Double Bubble
d)
Double Spiral
28.

The 4 bases in DNA are

a)

A, T, P ans S

b)

R, U, T and H

c)

A, G, C and U

d)

A, T, G and C

29.

In DNA pairing

a)

A pairs with T and G pairs with C

b)

A pairs with C and G pairs with T

c)

A pairs with G and T pairs with C

d)

It is random

30.

an observable characteristic

a)

trait

b)

gene

c)

allele

d)

DNA

31.

When an organism has two of the same alleles, it is called

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

recessive

d)

dominant

32.

When an organism has two different alleles, it is called

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

recessive

d)

dominant

33.

This type of allele is expressed whether there are one or two copies present.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

homozygous

d)

heterozygous

34.

These types of alleles are only expressed if the organism has two copies

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

homozygous

d)

heterozygous

35.

An Ss fly could be described as (Check all that apply.)

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

dominant phenotype

d)

recessive phenotype

36.

An ss fly could be described as (Check all that apply.)

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

dominant phenotype

d)

recessive phenotype

37.

In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). A Bb mouse would have the phenotype of

a)

brown fur

b)

black fur

c)

white fur

38.

In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). A bb mouse would have the phenotype of

a)

brown fur

b)

black fur

c)

white fur

39.
Genes always appear in pairs. Your parents donate ________ allele for every trait.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
23
d)
46
40.

T - tall and t = short

In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square

a)

tt

b)

Tt

c)

Bb

d)

TT

41.

Dominant alleles are represented by a:

a)

Male gene

b)

lowercase letter

c)

recessive trait

d)

capital letter

42.

Based on the completed Punnett square, what is the phenotypic Ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:2

c)

3:1

d)

1:3:1

43.

Humans have _______ pairs of chromosomes, for a total of _______ chromosomes.

a)

10, 20

b)

25, 100

c)

23, 46

d)

46, 92

44.

What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood?

a)

BB

b)

AB

c)

BO

45.
What is the genotype of a person with type A blood, who had a father with type O blood?
a)
AB
b)
AO
c)
AA
d)
OO
46.

A woman has type B blood and her husband has type O blood. What must be the woman's genotype, if they have a child with type O blood?

a)

BO

b)

BB

c)

OO

d)

B

47.

The different forms of a gene are called

a)

traits

b)

pollinators

c)

alleles

d)

hybrids

48.
If a father is AA and a mother is AB, what is the probability for a child with AB blood? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
49.
If two parents have type AB blood, what is the probability that their child will have type O blood?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
50.

If a persons genotype was AABbCc for height. How many genes do they have for this trait?

a)

6

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

51.

For the square that has OO in the bottom right. What would be the missing allele on the top? (A ____ )

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

OO

52.

What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?

a)

AO and BO

b)

O and A

c)

O and B

d)

A and B

53.
In the punnett square shown, what is the genotypes of the two parents?
a)
RW and RR
b)
RW and WW
c)
RR and WW
d)
RW and RR
54.
This image shows a...
a)
Punnett Square
b)
Phenotype
c)
Genotype
d)
Dominant allele
55.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
56.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
57.

The three subatomic particles are

a)

proton, neutron, electron

b)

proton, nucleus, electron

c)

protein, neutron, electricity

d)

proton, neutral, electives

58.

99.9% of the atom's mass is found where?

a)

nucleus

b)

protons

c)

electron cloud

d)

neutrons

59.

Electrons are

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

neutral

60.

Protons are

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

neutral

61.

Neutrons are

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

neutral

62.

A certain atom has 26 protons, 26 electrons, and 30 neutrons. What is its mass number?

a)

26

b)

30

c)

52

d)

56

63.
A displacement reaction will occur when...
a)
a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its compound.
b)

a less reactive metal displaces a more reactive metal from its compound

c)

metals are reacted together

d)

metals above iron react with other metals in the reactivity series

64.

What will the products of this reaction be?

calcium + zinc nitrate --------->

a)

zinc nitrate + calcium

b)

calcium nitrate + zinc

c)

there will be no reaction

d)

zinc + calcium chloride

65.
Which of the following will not undergo reaction?
a)

magnesium  + magnesium oxide 

b)

iron  +  copper(II) oxide

c)

magnesium +  iron(II) oxide

d)

calcium  +  iron(II) oxide

66.

Which metal is more reactive than calcium?

a)

magnesium

b)

potassium

c)

silver

d)

aluminum

67.
Which of the following will not undergo reaction?
a)
zinc metal  +  zinc oxide 
b)
iron metal  +  copper oxide
c)
zinc metal +  iron oxide
d)
magnesium  +  iron oxide
68.

Which one of the following would result in a displacement reaction?

a)

Iron with magnesium chloride

b)

Iron with Zinc Sulphate

c)

magnesium with iron chloride

d)

gold with silver nitrate

69.
What is the rate of reaction?
a)
How fast a reaction is 
b)
How big a reaction is
c)
How loud a reaction is
d)
How much gas a reaction produces
70.

Which factors affect the rate of a reaction?

a)

temperature

b)

concentration

c)

size

d)

pressure

e)

catalyst

71.

Increase in temperature causes the particles to

a)

slow down

b)

move faster

c)

stay apart from each other

d)

move in the correct order

72.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of reactant particles

d)

it increases the frequency of collision

73.

Why does a higher temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

It increases both the frequency collision and energy of reactant particles

b)

It only increases the frequency of collision

c)

It only increases the energy of reactant particles

d)

It reduces the activation energy of the reaction

74.

Grinding an effervescent tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to increase of

a)

concentration

b)

total surface area

c)

temperature

d)

size

75.

Which factors increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

increasing temperature

b)

increasing concentration

c)

increasing total surface area

d)

All of these

76.

Increasing the temperature gives particles more __________.

a)

time

b)

energy

c)

space

d)

frequency

77.

Why does breaking up a solid reactant increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it creates more solid

b)

it creates more energy

c)

it increases the total surface area

d)

it increases the concentration

78.

In an exothermic reaction, heat is ...

a)

absorbed from the environment

b)

released into the environment

79.
If a chemical reaction is EXOTHERMIC, the temperature would....
a)
Stay the same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
80.

In an endothermic reaction, heat is ...

a)

taken in

b)

given out

81.

____ reactions usually feel cold.

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

82.
What types of reactions absorb and release heat?
a)
acidic and basic
b)
endothermic and exothermic
c)
endothermic and heat transfusion
d)
covalent and ionic
83.
Raising the temperature of a chemical reaction would make the reaction __________________.
a)
happen slower
b)
happen faster
c)
stop completely
d)
proceed as normal
84.

The moment of a force causes an object to

a)

move forward

b)

move backward

c)

stop moving

d)

turn about a fixed point

85.

The turning effect of a force on a door is greater when it is applied at

a)

A point near the hinges and perpendicular to the door

b)

A point near the hinges and parallel to the door

c)

A point far away from the hinges and perpendicular to the door

d)

A point far away from the hinges and parallel to the door

86.

Two equal and oppositely directed forces acting on an object will be in equilibrium

a)

Only if they act on the same point on the object

b)

If they are separated by a distance

c)

When they are balanced by a third force

d)

when their moments about the same point are equal

87.

The diagram shows a light beam pivoted at one end. What is the effort required to lift the load?

a)

50

b)

67

c)

100

d)

200

88.

A nut can be loosen more easily with

a)

A short spanner because a large turning effect can be produced

b)

A short spanner because a larger force can be produced.

c)

A heavy spanner because a larger force can be produced.

d)

long spanner because a large turning effect can be produced.

89.

The diagram shows a gauge which measures the amount of liquid in a tank. At which position should the pivot be placed so that the pointer moves the greatest distance as the tank is emptied?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

90.

What is the force F needed to balance the bar shown?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

91.

A light metre rule is allowed to pivot freely at the zero end. The other end is supported by a spring balance. A weight of 200N is then hung at the 40cm mark. The metre rule stays horizontal. What is the reading on the spring balance?

a)

80

b)

40

c)

8

d)

4

92.

The figure shows a uniform metre rule pivoted at the 50cm mark. 125g and 200g weights hang from the rule as shown. Calculate where you would hang a 25g mass in order to balance the rule horizontally

a)

20 cm from pivot on the side of 125 g mass

b)

10 cm from pivot on the side of 125 g mass

c)

40 cm from pivot on the side of 200 g mass

d)

10 cm from pivot on the side of 200 g mass

93.

The pressure exerted by a liquid

a)

increases with depth.

b)

decreases with depth.

c)

is constant

d)

first increases and then decreases.

94.

The pressure of the water at the bottom of a pond is ___ at the surface of the pond.

a)

either lower or higher

b)

higher than

c)

same

d)

lower than

95.

Diagram shows the design of a dam. Why does the thickness of the dam increase with its depth?

a)

The design of this structure is stronger.

b)

Water pressure increases with depth.

c)

The cost of construction is lower.

d)

Water pressure acts uniformly in all directions.

96.

What is density?

a)

The amount of matter in a unit of volume

b)

How heavy something is

c)

How old something is

97.

How do you find density?

a)

mass times volume

b)

mass over volume

c)

volume over mass

98.

What is water displacement used to find?

a)

volume

b)

mass

c)

density

99.

An object's mass is 12 g and its volume is 4ml. What is the density?

a)

4 g/ml

b)

16 g/ml

c)

3 g/ml

d)

6 g/ml

100.

Which units of measurement are used for volume?

a)

gram / centimetre3

b)

centimetre3

c)

gram / millilitre3

d)

millilitre

101.
Find the volume of this piece of brass.  
a)
50 g
b)
10 cm
c)
6 cm3
d)
12 cm3
102.
True or False:  The density of a specific type of material never changes.  
a)
True
b)
False
103.
Helium balloons rise on earth because
a)
helium is less dense than air
b)
helium is more dense than air
c)
helium is cooler than air
d)
helium is warmer than air
104.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
105.

A cube of aluminum has a volume of 9cm3 and weighs 81 g. What is its density?

a)

9 g/ cm3

b)

.11 g/cm3

c)

729 g/cm3

106.

What is the volume of 150.0 grams of lead if it has a density of 11.3 g/cm3?

a)

13.3 g

b)

13.3 cm3

c)

.075 g

d)

1695 cm3

107.

Do renewable energy sources run out?

a)

Yes

b)

No

108.

Natural Gas is a __________ energy resource.

a)

Renewable

b)

Non Renewable

109.

Solar Power is a __________ energy resource.

a)

Renewable

b)

Non Renewable

110.

 __________ is an energy resource that will run out in the next several hundred years.

a)

Renewable Energy Resource

b)

Fossil Fuels

c)

Non Renewable Energy Resource

d)

Forever Fuels

111.

__________ is an energy resource that WILL NOT run out in the next several hundred years.

a)

Renewable Energy Resource

b)

Fossil Fuel

c)

Nonrenewable Energy Resource

d)

Forever Fuel

112.

Why are fossil fuels considered nonrenewable resources if they are still forming beneath the surface today?

a)

They are being formed as a type of methane which we cannot use.

b)

The fossil fuels are being broken down by a natural process.

c)

They are being formed too far beneath the surface.

d)

We are depleting the fossil fuels much faster than they can form.

113.

Type of energy that comes from the movement of the air.

a)

Solar Energy

b)

Geothermal Energy

c)

Hydroelectric Energy

d)

Wind Energy

114.

Type of energy that is generated from the heat stored in the Earth.

a)

Tidal Wave Energy

b)

Geothermal Energy

c)

Hydraulic Energy

d)

Solar Energy

115.

 

Which example describes the use of a nonrenewable energy resource?

a)

Gasoline is used to fuel a car.

b)

Water is released through a dam.

c)

Sunlight is used to heat a home.

d)

Wind turbines spin to generate electricity.

116.

Why are fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas called nonrenewable resources?

a)

They can never be replaced.

b)

They can be recycled.

c)

They cannot be easily replaced.

d)

They can be made in factories.

117.

__________ is an energy resource that WILL NOT run out in the next several hundred years.

a)

Renewable Energy Resource

b)

Non-Renewable Energy Resource

118.

Which of the following is a renewable resource?

a)

Oil

b)

Solar

c)

Coal

d)

Natural Gas

119.

Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

a)

Water

b)

Sun

c)

Coal

d)

Win

120.

Fossil Fuel are?

a)

A group of energy resources that were formed from ancient plants and organisms

b)

A group of dinosaur fossils

c)

A type of gas used for planes

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