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Quarterly 3 practice questions

Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 3hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is structure #3
a)
Ovary
b)
Fundus
c)
Fallopian Tube
d)
I don't know
2.

What are the ovaries

a)

Where the eggs are stored

b)

The tube to the uterus

c)

Where the baby grows

3.
What is structure #12
a)
Vagina
b)
Introitus
c)
Uterus
d)
I don't know
4.

What is the uterus

a)

The womb where the baby grows

b)

Part of the brain

c)

Where the eggs come from

d)

Sensory organ

5.

What are the fallopian tubes

a)

Where fertilization takes place

b)

Where the baby grows

c)

Keeps the baby in

d)

Where the eggs come from

6.

The sex cells of females that can be fertilized by sperm

a)

ovaries

b)

eggs or ovum

c)

uterus

7.
a)
Fallopian tubes
b)
Ovarian ligaments
c)
Oviducts
d)
Vas deferens
8.

The periodic shedding of the lining of the uterus

a)

ovulation

b)

menstruation

c)

fertilization

d)

Urination

9.

After the egg leaves the fallopian tube, it enters the

a)

vagina

b)

uterus

c)

ovaries

d)

ovum

10.

What carries urine and sperm to the outside of the body, but never at the same time in males?

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Epididymis

c)

Urethra

d)

Vas deferens

11.
What are produced in the testicles?
a)
Egg Cells
b)
Ovum
c)
Sperm Cells
d)
Semen
12.

Umbilical cord is the passageway of nutrients & O2 to the fetus and wastes from the fetus.

a)

True

b)

False

13.
Male hormone is...
a)
testosterone
b)
estrogen
c)
progesterone
14.
What is structure #2? 
a)
scrotum
b)
urethra 
c)
testes
d)
seminal vesicle
15.
What is structure #4? 
a)
prostate gland
b)
urethra 
c)
penis
d)
seminal vesicle
16.
What is structure #5? 
a)
prostate gland
b)
urethra 
c)
semen
d)
seminal vesicle
17.

the organ that removes urine from the male body and that can deliver sperm to the female reproductive system

a)

Penis

b)

Vagina

c)

Urethra

d)

Testes

18.
sperm mixed with fluids from glands
a)
semen
b)
ejaculation
c)
vas deferens
d)
urethra
19.
The release of an egg cell is called
a)
ovulation
b)
hibernation
c)
menstruation
20.

Menstrual blood is mainly the lining of

a)

uterus

b)

vagina

c)

fallopian tube

d)

cervix

21.
When a woman's "water" breaks, the structure that has ruptured is 
a)
1
b)
3
c)
6
d)
7
22.
The structure that manages the exchange of nutrients and wastes between fetus and mother is
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
23.
The birth canal is 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
24.
The site of implantation is
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
25.
What is the cell called that results from fertilization?
a)
egg
b)
sperm
c)
zygote
d)
diploid
26.
Which is the correct order?
a)
embryo, fetus, zygote
b)
fetus, zygote, embryo
c)
embryo, zygote, fetus
d)
zygote, embryo, fetus
27.
What phase of mitosis is occuring in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Telophase
28.
How many chromosomes do humans have?
a)
46
b)
21
c)
10
29.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
30.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
31.

All offspring of Asexual reproduction are identical

a)

True

b)

False

32.

DNA begins to replicate at the origins of replication.

a)

Step 1

b)

Step 2

c)

Step 3

d)

Step 4

e)

Step 5

33.

The cells separate (cytokinesis) into two identical daughter cells

a)

Step 1

b)

Step 2

c)

Step 3

d)

Step 4

e)

Step 5

34.

Yeast form a new organism from a small projection growing on the surface of the parent.

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

budding

c)

binary fission

d)

vegetative propegation

35.

Unicellular organisms divide equally by which process?

a)

binary fission

b)

budding

c)

runners

d)

vegetative propegation

36.
asexual reproduction in plants is known as vegetative propagation
a)
true
b)
false
37.

Attaching a branch/cut of one plant to another plant

a)

cutting

b)

grafting

c)

painting

d)

planting

38.

In asexual reproduction, all of the offspring are:

a)

Physically Identical

b)

Genetically Identical

c)

Physically and Genetically Identical

d)

Not Identical

39.
a)
budding
b)
binary fission
c)
sporulation
d)
regeneration
40.
Where is all the genetic material inside a cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
vacuole
c)
cell membrane
d)
ribosome
41.
The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telephase
42.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
43.

Which type of asexual reproduction does this picture represent?

a)

Binary Fission

b)

Budding

c)

Sporulation

d)

Regeneration

44.

Which type of asexual reproduction does this picture represent of the potato?

a)

Binary Fission

b)

Budding

c)

Sporulation

d)

Vegetative Propagation

45.

What kind of reproduction is sporulation?

a)

kind of reproduction in which a new organism forms from a bud on a parent

b)

kind of reproduction in which a new organism forms from spores released from a parent

c)

reproduction needing only one parent

46.

The uncontrolled division of abnormal cells

a)

meiosis

b)

tumor

c)

cancer

d)

mitosis

47.
How does cytokinesis differ in plant and animal cells?
a)
Cytokinesis only takes place in animal cells.
b)
Cytokinesis only takes place in plant cells.
c)
Plant cells form a cell plate, animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
d)
Animal cells form a cell plate, plant cells form a cleavage furrow.
48.
Which cell structure produces the spindle fibers?
a)
Centromeres
b)
Centrioles
c)
Chromatids
d)
Ribosomes
49.
The point on the chromosome where the two chromatids are held together is the
a)
centromere
b)
centriole
c)
chromosome
d)
chromatid
50.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
51.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
52.

In the process of oogenesis in humans, a primary sex cell undergoes divisions that normally produce

a)

four monoploid sperm

b)

one monoploid sperm and three diploid eggs

c)

one monoploid egg and three polar bodies

d)

four monoploid eggs

53.

Some cells involved in the process of reproduction are represented in the diagram below


The process of meiosis formed

a)

cell 1, only

b)

cells 1 and 2

c)

cell 3, only

d)

cells 2 and 3

54.

The diagram below represents chromosomes in a zygote.


Which diagrams best illustrate the daughter cells that result from normal mitotic cell division of this zygote?

a)
b)
c)
d)
55.

A sperm cell of an alligator has 16 chromosomes. What is the total number of chromosomes normally present in a stomach cell of this alligator?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

32

d)

48

56.
Based on the Karyotype shown, at which chromosome pair can we identify a genetic disorder? 
a)
Chromosome pair 5
b)
sex chromosomes
c)
Chromosome pair 21
d)
There are no chromosomal disorders
57.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
58.
Down's syndrome occurs because of a(n)
a)
missing sex chromosome
b)
extra sex chromosome
c)
additional 21st chromosome
d)
additional 18th chromosome
59.

A long whip-like structure that helps a sperm cell move is

a)

Flagellum

b)

Fission

c)

Constapation

d)

egg

60.
This is the male part of the flower; it makes pollen.
a)
filament
b)
ovary
c)
sepal
d)
stamen
61.
This is the top part of the pistil of a flower which receives the pollen grains; germination happens here.
a)
petal
b)
sepal
c)
filament
d)
stigma
62.
This is the stalk that holds the anther.
a)
stamen
b)
stigma
c)
filament
d)
pistil
63.
These are found at the bottom of the pistil of a flower; they are tiny egg cells that will become seeds.
a)
ovaries
b)
ovules
c)
anthers
d)
sepals
64.

A ripened ovary is called _________________.

a)

anther

b)

stigma

c)

sperm

d)

fruit

65.
The seed is protected by an outer covering called:
a)
cotyledon
b)
embryo
c)
seed coat
d)
germination
66.
The seed contains a small baby plant called a 
a)
germination
b)
sapling
c)
root
d)
embryo
67.
The process where seeds grow and become tiny plants is called
a)
miracles
b)
germination
c)
xylem
d)
photosynthesis
68.

Seeds need all of the following in order to grow except:

a)

Water (moisture)

b)

proper temperature

c)

Oxygen

d)

sunlight

69.

Certain parts of DNA are turned on or off to...

a)

create specialized cells during differentiation

b)

regulate the cell cycle for mitosis

c)

create stem cells in meiosis

70.

Which of the following sequences represents the correct order of events in the formation of a human fetus?

a)

Zygote → Blastocyst → Embryo → Fertilization

b)

Fertilization → Zygote → Cleavage → Differentiation → Embryo

c)

Cleavage→ Blastocyst → Embryo → Differentiation → Zygote

d)

Fertilization → Growth → Differentiation → Zygote

71.

What 3 life functions does the Placenta satisfy for the growing baby?

a)

Respiration, Excretion & Nutrition

b)

Respiration, Growth, & Synthesis

c)

Excretion, Nutrition & Reproduction

d)

Nutrition, Metabolism, & Reproduction

72.

Pregnant mothers cannot___ (check all that apply)

a)

Drink alcohol

b)

Take drugs

c)

Inhale chemicals such as paint or gas fumes

d)

Smoke

e)

Have x-rays

73.

These cells were retrieved from the same person, which answer below explains why they have a different function.

a)

The cells contain different DNA

b)

Each cell has the same DNA, yet different genes are expressed and other genes are not expressed.

c)

The cells make different proteins because they have different DNA

d)

Some genes are not found in the cells and other cells contain the genes.

74.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
75.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
76.
Aa is
a)
homozygous (purebred)
b)
heterozygous (hybrid)
77.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
78.

Who is considered the "father of genetics" after his extensive studying of Pea Plants?

a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Reginald Punnett
c)
James Watson
d)
Justin Bieber
79.
T = tall an t = short
What is the phenotype for Tt?
a)
short
b)
tall
c)
medium sized
d)
neither tall or short
80.
How many alleles (letters) do each person carry for a trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
81.
How many alleles (letters) does a child get from each parent for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
82.
In a Punnett square each box represents a(n)....
a)
offspring
b)
parent
c)
gene
d)
trait
83.
How many chromosomes are in a sex cell?
a)
46
b)
23
c)
26
d)
43
84.
The passing of physical characteristics from parent to offspring is __________.
a)
genetics
b)
heredity
c)
genes
d)
traits
85.
When a capital letter is used, what kind of allele is being represented?
a)

Recessive Allele

b)

Sex linked gene

c)

Punnett Squares

d)

Dominant trait

86.
When two identical alleles for a trait are in an organism, the organism is said to be ____________?
a)
Heterozygous
b)
Homozygous
c)
allele
d)
resseive
87.

A characteristic that is inherited; can be either dominant or recessive

a)
genes
b)
allele
c)
chromosome
d)
trait
88.

The outward appearance of an organism, regardless of its genes.

a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
haploid
d)
deploid
89.
What is the chance of two parents with blood types AB and O producing an offspring with blood type O?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
90.
A man with type O blood has children with a woman who is heterozygous for type A blood. What is the probability that their children will have type A blood?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
91.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
92.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
93.
Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represent a female?
a)
XY
b)
XXY
c)
XX
94.

In order for offspring to get a genetic mutation, the mutation must occur in what type of cell?

a)

Cells with no nucleus.

b)

Any body cell after birth.

c)

Cells with no cell wall or cell membrane.

d)

Cells like eggs or sperm cells that are undergoing reproduction.

95.

What is non-disjunction?

a)

Cells do not divide

b)

chromosomes are formed incorrectly

c)

cells separate incorrectly

d)

chromosomes separate incorrectly

96.

What is another name for down syndrome?

a)

Trisomy 18

b)

Trisomy 21

c)

Trisomy 13

d)

Trisomy 23

97.
A physical or chemical agent that can cause a change in DNA is called what?
a)
Gene Expression
b)
Protein
c)
Mutagen
d)
mRNA
98.

Choose all the mutagenic agents.

a)

X-rays

b)

UV radiation

c)

Cigarette smoke

d)

Organic compounds

e)

Carcinogens

99.

Can temperature effect gene expression?

a)

Yes, Himalayan rabbits grow dark fur in extreme temperatures

b)

No, Himalayan rabbits are born with a certain color fur and it stays that way

100.
Artificial selection is...
a)

the process by which humans select who lives and reproduces based on traits of the animal or plant.

b)

the process by which nature selects who lives and reproduces.

c)
the process by which animals adapt to their surroundings.
d)
the process by which people take over ecosystems.
101.

What are 2 types of nucleic acids?

a)

Fatty Acids and Glycerol

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

Amino Acids and Enzymes

d)

Monosaccharides and Polysaccharides

102.

The monomers (building blocks) of nucleic acids are

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Glycerol

d)

Glucose

103.

Which base is ONLY found in DNA?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Adenine

104.

Which base is only found in RNA?

a)

Uracil

b)

Thymine

c)

Adenine

d)

Guanine

105.

What molecule is shown here?

a)

Peptide

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Carbohydrate

106.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
107.

Which sequence below would be complementary to this strand of DNA:  AATCATGGA

a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
108.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

109.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

110.

On which molecule can an anticodon be found?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

111.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

112.

How do you know when to STOP translating a strand of mRNA?

a)

look for STOP on the decoder

b)

stop at the end of the strand

c)

you don't

d)

when Mrs. V tells me to

113.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

114.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
115.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
116.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
117.
Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism? 
a)

Molecular Bases

b)
Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
c)
Hydrogen bonds
118.

What is the location in the cell for translation?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria in cytoplasm

c)

ribosome in cytoplasm

d)

chloroplast in cytoplasm

119.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
120.

What process is happening in the diagram?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

dna replication

d)

mitosis

121.
Which of the following are in the correct order?
a)
proteins determine traits --> genes code for proteins --> DNA divided into genes
b)
proteins determine traits --> DNA divided into genes --> genes code for proteins
c)
DNA divided into genes --> proteins determine traits --> genes code for proteins
d)
DNA divided into genes --> genes code for proteins --> proteins determine traits
122.

What is this technique an example of?

a)

chromatography

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

direct harvesting

d)

genetic engineering

123.
Which of the following is a circular DNA from bacteria that can hold a foreign gene?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
124.

Which set of terms correctly identifies the procedure

shown in the diagram below and a substance

produced by this procedure?

a)

selective breeding-growth hormone

b)

cloning-antibiotics


c)

genetic engineering-insulin


d)

replicating-glucose

125.
Which of the following is a protein that acts as DNA scissors?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
126.

What is an example of how genetic engineering is used in agriculture?

a)

Adding chemicals to foods to preserve them.

b)

Making synthetic foods using artificial, man-made proteins.

c)

Inserting a gene with a beneficial trait into a plant cell.

d)

Taking immature plants and adding steroids to make them grow bigger and stronger.

127.
A clone can be BEST thought of as a(n)  _____ created in the lab. 
a)
identical twin
b)
GMO
c)
science fiction experiment
128.
What process is shown in the picture?
a)
Gene therapy
b)
Cloning
c)
DNA Fingerprinting
d)
Gene Splicing
129.
Putting the gene for bioluminescence into a fish is an example of...
a)
Genetic Engineering
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Gene Mutation
130.

Advantages of GMO/genetically modified crops include(s)

a)

insect resistance

b)

drought/freeze resistance

c)

higher yield (more crops)

d)

all of these are reasons for using GMOs

131.
In cloning, what is the purpose of the surrogate mother? 
a)
Donate her DNA
b)
Donate her egg cell
c)
Incubate and carry the baby until birth
d)
Nothing.  She's useless.
132.

This laboratory procedure is known as

a)

CLONING

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

chromatography

d)

use of a dichotomous key

133.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

134.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

135.
Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.
a)
female
b)
male
136.
Which of the following are in the correct order?
a)
proteins determine traits --> genes code for proteins --> DNA divided into genes
b)
proteins determine traits --> DNA divided into genes --> genes code for proteins
c)
DNA divided into genes --> proteins determine traits --> genes code for proteins
d)
DNA divided into genes --> genes code for proteins --> proteins determine traits
137.
Cutting DNA from one organisms and placing it into the DNA strand of another organism is called:
a)
recombinant RNA technology
b)
recombinant DNA technology
c)
selective breeding
d)
gene cloning
138.
An organism that contains DNA from another organism is called:
a)
transatlantic
b)
recombinant
c)
binary
d)
selective species
139.

If a DNA strand has 20% Guanine (G), what percentage of the bases would be Cytosine (C)%

a)

20%

b)

60%

c)

30%

d)

40%

140.

If a DNA strand has 20% Thymine (T), what percentage of the bases would be Guanine (G)%

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

60%

d)

40%

141.

Two llamas are produced with the exact same DNA in a science lab. What is this known as?

a)

Stem Cell Therapy

b)

Genetically Modified Organisms

c)

Cloning

d)

Gene Therapy

142.

When genes from one organism are inserted into the genes of another organism that is know as...

a)

Stem Cell Therapy

b)

Genetic Engineering

c)

Cloning

d)

Selective Breeding

143.

If scientists engineer the DNA of tomatoes to make them survive in cold temperatures, what do type of technology do those tomatoes become?

a)

Human Genome Project

b)

Genetically Modified Organisms

c)

Punnett Squares

d)

Gene Therapy

144.

How can agricultural biotechnology have a positive impact on the environment?

a)

By developing crops that are pest resistant requiring fewer pesticides to be used. 

b)

planting crops in shaded areas.

c)

Harvesting crops that have thick stems and leaves.

d)

water crops with a recycled irrigation system.

145.

What would be a direct benefit of biotechnology to agriculture in a time of severe drought?

a)

Planting crops in shaded areas.

b)

Genetically modifying crops to be resistant to changes in weather

c)

Harvesting crops to have thick stems and leaves.

146.

In the United States, there has been relatively little experimentation involving the insertion of genes from other species into human DNA. What is one reason for the limitations of these experiments?

a)

The subunits of human DNA are different from the DNA subunits of other species.

b)

Inserting foreign DNA into human DNA would require using completely new techniques.

c)

Human DNA always promotes human survival, so there is no need to insert foreign genes into it.

d)

There are many ethical questions to be answered before inserting foreign genes into human DNA.

147.

A farmer is considering the advantages of creating a herd of cloned cattle from a single cow. What is one advantage of a cloned herd?

a)

All cattle in the herd would have the most desired traits.

b)

All cattle in the herd would have more genetic variation.

c)

All cattle in the herd would have more resistance to diseases.

d)

All cattle in the herd would have much longer life spans.

148.

Identify the picture in the image:

a)

Karyotype

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

DNA Fingerprint

d)

Gene Analysis

149.

XY

a)

Female

b)

Male

150.

Trisomy:

a)

Missing 1 chromosome

b)

3 chromosomes (instead of a pair)

c)

Chromosomes are normal

151.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

No chromosomal abnormalities

d)

Trisomy 21

152.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

No chromosomal abnormalities

d)

Trisomy 18

153.

This technique used to analyze DNA involves the

a)

synthesis of new DNA strands from subunits

b)

separation of DNA fragments based on size

c)

production of genetically engineered DNA molecules

d)

removal of defective genes from DNA

154.
Which two bat species are most closely related?
a)
 Bat 1 and Bat 2
b)
Bat 1 and Bat 3
c)
Bat 2 and Bat 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
155.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
156.

In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear

a)

closest to the starting wells

b)

farthest from the starting wells

c)

three quarters away from the starting wells

d)

it depends on how many fragments there are

157.
A mutation is?
a)
Any change in DNA
b)
Any change in RNA
c)
Any change in the genetic code
158.
Mutations affect the ________ of a protein. Because of this the proteins ______ is affected as well. 
a)
gene, function 
b)
sequence, gene
c)
shape,function
159.

A sequence of three nucleotide bases on mRNA that refers to a specific amino acid.

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

deletion mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

160.

An environmental agent that increases the rate of mutation

a)

genetic code

b)

mutagenic agent (Mutagen)

c)

mutation

d)

point mutation

161.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
162.

Who developed the double-helix model of DNA?

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Avery

c)

Hershey & Chase

d)

Franklin

163.

True or False: Traits are influenced by either genetics or the environment, but not both.

a)

True

b)

False

164.

Himalayan rabbits are known to grow dark fur as temperatures drop, this is due to the

a)

the environment mutates the fur

b)

environment causing a gene to be expressed and the fur growing out dark

c)

fur changing color because the rabbit wants to be darker colored

d)

a gene was cloned from an organism near by

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