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TCA Part III Review

Total questions: 161

Worksheet time: 2hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The brain and spinal cord make up the

a)

central nervous system

b)

peripheral system

c)

autonomic nervous system

d)

efferent nervous system

2.

Which is NOT a function of the nervous system?

a)

Monitors changes in the environment

b)

Interprets stimuli & sensory input

c)

Produces hormones

d)

Signals a reaction to stimuli

3.

In the peripheral nervous system the myelin sheath is formed by ___

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Schwann Cells

d)

Nodes of Ranvier

4.

The correct conduction pathway of a nerve impulse is...

a)

Cell body, axon, dendrites, axon terminal

b)

Dendrites, axon, cell body, axon terminal

c)

Dendrites, axon terminal, cell body, axon

d)

Dendrites, cell body, axon, axon terminal

5.

Chemicals released by nerves to stimulate other nerves, muscles or glands

a)

Hormones

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Stimuli

d)

Proprioreceptors

6.

A neuron that transmits a signal toward the CNS is...

a)

Motor neuron (efferent)

b)

Sensory neuron (afferent)

c)

Phagocytic neuron

d)

Spinal neuron

7.

A neuron with many processes coming from the cell body...

a)

Multipolar neuron

b)

Bipolar neuron

c)

Unipolar neuron

d)

Multidendritic neuron

8.

point of close "contact" between 2 neurons

a)

stimulus

b)

astrocyte

c)

glial cells

d)

synapse

9.

The purpose of the myelin sheath is ...

a)

to carry nerve impulses toward the CNS

b)

to carry nerve impulses away from the CNS

c)

to insulate the axon of a neuron

d)

the engulf "germs" near the neuron

10.

Support cells of the nervous system

a)

stimulus

b)

synapse

c)

glial cells

d)

cutaneous sense cells

11.

Cells that "eat" germs near neuron

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Microglial cells

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Oligodendrocytes

12.

Cells that produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Microglial cells

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Oligodendrocytes

13.

Cells that form myelin sheath for axons in the CNS

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Microglial cells

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Oligodendrocytes

14.

the dendrites are labeled

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.

the axon is labeled

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

16.

The gaps in the myelin sheath are

a)

nodes of Ranvier

b)

Nissl bodies

c)

neurofibrils

d)

ATP

17.

Neuron between a motor neuron and a sensory neuron

a)

afferent neruon

b)

efferent neuron

c)

schwann cells

d)

interneuron

18.

Carries signal from environment to CNS

a)

afferent neuron

b)

efferent neuron

c)

interneuron

19.

Carries signal from CNS toward a muscle or gland as a response to a stimulus

a)

afferent neuron

b)

efferent neuron

c)

interneuron

20.

Repolarization begins with the opening of _____ channels.

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

chloride

d)

calcium

21.

An increase in the negativity of the membrane potential.

a)

hyperpolarization

b)

depolarization

c)

repolarization

d)

threshold potential

22.

Also called a nerve impulse.

a)

action potential

b)

synapse

c)

myelin sheath

d)

hyperpolarization

23.

The __ nervous system only contains all the sensory neurons and the voluntary motor neurons.

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

c)

enteric

d)

central

24.

Which ion triggers the release of the neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

calcium

d)

chloride

25.

The junction between two nerve cells is called a

a)

synapse

b)

neuromuscular junction

c)

node of Ranvier

d)

myelin sheath

26.

Depolarization of a membrane is begins with the

a)

opening of sodium channels

b)

opening of potassium channels

c)

opening of calcium channels

d)

closing of sodium channels

27.

Compared to unmyleninated axons, myelinated axons conduct impulses

a)

faster

b)

slower

c)

more often

d)

less often

28.

The portion of the nervous system that is considered involuntary is the

a)

autonomic nervous system

b)

somatic nervous system

c)

central nervous system

d)

peripheral nervous system

29.

The neuron before a synapse is a(n) ____ neuron.

a)

presynaptic

b)

postsynaptic

c)

motor

d)

inhibitory

30.

The critical level of depolarization that has to be reached for an action potential to occur is the _______.

a)

resting potential

b)

threshold potential

c)

depolarization

d)

repolarization

e)

hyperpolarization

31.

The nervous system has two principal divisions, the central nervous system and the ____.

a)

peripheral nervous system

b)

somatic nervous system

c)

parietal nervous system

d)

lateral nervous system

32.

There are _ pairs or spinal nerves, and _ pairs of cranial nerves.

a)

12, 150

b)

12, 31

c)

31, 31

d)

31, 12

e)

31, 150

33.

Which of the following are part of the Central Nervous System?

a)

brain

b)

spinal cord

c)

nerves throughout the body

34.

The Skeletal Muscles are controlled by the:

a)

cerebellum

b)

autonomic nervous system

c)

somatic nervous system

d)

cranial nerves

35.

Which part of the neuron receives information?

a)

dendrites

b)

axon terminals

c)

axon

d)

synapse

e)

neurotransmitter

36.

True/False: The sympathetic nervous system controls the "fight or flight" response.

a)

True

b)

False; parasympathetic

c)

False; central

d)

False; peripheral

37.

Identify the synapse.

A
B
C
D
E
38.

Identify the neurotransmitters.

A
B
C
D
E
F
39.

Which structures make up the brain stem?

a)

pons

b)

corpus collosum

c)

midbrain

d)

medulla oblongata

e)

temporal lobe

40.

Label the areas of the brain.

a)gyrus
b)hypothalamus
c)cerebellum
d)midbrain
e)pons
f)medulla oblongata
g)pituitary gland
h)corpus callosum
i)sulcus
j)thalamus
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
41.

Label the lobes of the cerebrum

a)frontal lobe
b)parietal lobe
c)occipital lobe
d)temporal lobe
1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
42.

Match the following areas of the brain to their function.

a)

cerebrum

1.

controls higher level functions, like decision making and learning

b)

hippocampus

2.

stores & retrieves memories

c)

cerebellum

3.

balance & coordination

d)

medulla oblongata

4.

heart rate, respiration & blood pressure

e)

limbic system

5.

emotional experiences

43.

The outermost membrane of the brain is the ______.

a)

skull

b)

dura mater

c)

pia mater

d)

arachnoid mater

44.

The diencephalon is made up of the _________ & _________.

a)

thalamus

b)

hippocampus

c)

hypothalamus

d)

cerebellum

e)

corpus callosum

45.

Mach each neuroglial cells & structures to their function.

a)

astrocytes

1.

connection blood vessels & neurons

b)

oligodendrocytes

2.

produce myelin sheaths in the PNS

c)

microglial cells

3.

digest debris, bacteria & viruses

d)

ependymal cells

4.

produce CSF to cushion the brain

e)

Schwann cells

5.

produce myelin sheaths in the CNS

46.

The longest cranial nerve and if damaged can result in death is the ______.

a)

glossopharyngeal

b)

trigeminal

c)

vagus

d)

optic

47.

The sympathetic division

a)

Increases heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration.

b)

Stimulates perspiration and release of glucose for energy.

c)

Stimulates digestion.

d)

Inhibits heart rate and respiration.

e)

Both a and b.

48.
What are the two divisions of the nervous system?
a)
The brain and spinal cord. 
b)
The central nervous system and the skeletal system. 
c)
The central and peripheral nervous systems. 
49.
Which is the stimuli and which is the response?
Sweating
Heat from the sun
a)
Sweating is the stimuli, heat is the response
b)
Heat is the stimuli, sweating is the response
50.
The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves: 
a)
sodium & potassium ions into the cell
b)
sodium & potassium ions out of the cell
c)
sodium ions into the cell & potassium ions out of the cell
d)
sodium ions into the cell & potassium ions out of the cell
51.

Type of synapse which increases the chance of the next neuron firing

a)

Inhibitory

b)

Excitatory

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Neuron

52.

Type of synapse which decreases the chance of the next neuron firing

a)

Inhibitory

b)

Excitatory

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Neuron

53.
Acetylcholine (ACh) is heavily involved with 
a)
muscle movements
b)
making memories
c)
blocking pain
d)
elevating mood
54.
In order for a neuron to have an action potential, the neuron must receive more
a)
excitatory neurotransmitters
b)
inhibitory neurotransmitters
c)
agnostic neurotransmitters
d)
antagonistic neurotransmitters
55.
Which neurotransmitter is released in response to stress and trauma?
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
Endorphins
c)
Serotonin
d)
GABA
56.
What is a neurotransmitter?
a)
fatty covering of the axon
b)
nerve cell
c)
chemical messenger
d)
gap between neurons
57.

Which structure of the ear is the first to vibrate with the sound waves?

a)

Cochlea

b)

Tympanic Membrane

c)

Malleus

d)

Incus

58.
The receptor for sound waves in the inner ear is the ?
a)
organ of corti
b)
cochlea
c)
semicircular canal
d)
vestibule
59.
The "color" of someone's eye is actually the color of the ______.
a)
lens
b)
sclera
c)
cornea
d)
iris
60.
Opens and closes to adjust the total amount of light entering the eye.
a)
Iris
b)
Scelera
c)
Cornea
d)
Human lens
61.
This part of the eye has photoreceptors called rods and cones.  They help us to see color and see at night.  It is called:
a)
optic nerve
b)
brain
c)
retina
d)
cornea
62.

Which part of the eye is a gel material that keeps all of the parts in place?

a)

retina

b)

cornea

c)

lens

d)

vitreous humor

63.

Order the following structures to sequence the pathway soundwaves take through the ear.

a)

Auditory Canal

b)

Eardrum

c)

Ossicles

d)

Cochlea

e)

Auditory Nerve

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
64.
The cochlea and semicircular canals together form the structure called the:
a)
outer tunic
b)
organ of corti
c)
pons relay
d)
labrynth
65.
Nociceptors are responsible for detecting:
a)
toxins
b)
sound
c)
pain
d)
light
66.
Cataracts occur when:
a)
the retina becomes hardened
b)
the lens becomes cloudy
c)
the suspensory ligaments become weakened
d)
the pupil fails to dilate properly
67.

cavity of inner ear resembling a snail shell

a)

hammer

b)

cochlea

c)

anvil

d)

stirrup

68.

Some olfactory impulses travel to the _____ , which provides emotional responses to certain odors.

a)

limbic system

b)

medulla oblongata

c)

brain stem

d)

pineal gland

69.

organs of taste

a)

taste buds

b)

taste papillae

c)

taste buns

70.

taste receptors

a)

olfactory cells

b)

gustatory cells

c)

photoreceptors

71.

primary taste sensations

a)

sweet, sweaty, salty, bitter, sour

b)

sweet, salty, bitter, sour, yummy

c)

sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami

72.

Name this muscle.

a)

Gluteus medius

b)

Gastrocnemius

c)

Biceps femoris

d)

Tibialis anterior

73.

Name this muscle.

a)

Gluteus maximus

b)

Semitendinosus

c)

Quadricep

d)

Rectus femoris

74.

Name this muscle.

a)

Deltoid

b)

Biceps brachii

c)

Latissimus dorsi

d)

Trapezius

75.

Name this muscle.

a)

Deltoid

b)

Triceps brachii

c)

Trapezius

d)

Latissimus dorsi

76.

Name this muscle.

a)

Erector spinae

b)

Trapezius

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

d)

Deltoid

77.

Name this muscle.

a)

Biceps femoris

b)

Semitendinosus

c)

Fibularis longus

d)

Gastrocnemius

78.

Name this muscle.

a)

Trapezius

b)

Deltoid

c)

Triceps brachii

d)

Brachioradialis

79.

Name this muscle.

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Biceps femoris

c)

Flexor digitorum

d)

Deltoid

80.

Name this muscle.

a)

Nasal

b)

Zygomatic

c)

Masseter

d)

Mastoid

81.

Name this muscle.

a)

Biceps femoris

b)

Rectus femoris

c)

Vastus femoris

d)

Semitendinosus

82.

This gentleman is exercising which muscles?

a)

triceps

b)

biceps

c)

adductor magnus

d)

vastus intermedius

83.

Identify the Deltoid

a)
b)
c)
d)
84.

Identify the Pectoralis Major

a)
b)
c)
d)
85.
Largest back muscle that extends, rotates, and lowers arms; pulls shoulders back
a)
latissimus dorsi
b)
gluteus maximus
c)
biceps femoris
d)
soleus
86.
Rotates and retracts the shoulder blades
a)
deltoid
b)
biceps brachii
c)
trapezius
d)
latissimus dorsi
87.
#19. The 3 functions of the muscular system are: Help to protect your joints, create heat to keep the body warm, and
a)
Protect your bones
b)
Protect your organs
c)
Protect your arteries and veins
d)
Accounts for all the ways that the parts of the body move
88.
#20. Muscles usually work in pairs, one on either side of the joint. When one contracts, the other relaxes. Select the correct pair
a)
Deltoids - Trapezius
b)
Biceps – Triceps
c)
Quadriceps - Abdominal
d)
Gluteus Maximus - Gastrocnemius
89.

The ___ can be found attached to the femur & fibula/tibia. When it contracts, it flexes & rotates the thigh laterally. It can also extend the thigh if the lower leg is held rigid.

a)

Rectus femoris

b)

Biceps femoris

c)

Soleus

d)

Gastrocnemius

90.

Which muscle is responsible for chewing?

a)

masseter

b)

orbicularis oris

c)

orbicularis oculi

d)

zygomaticus

91.

Which muscle is responsible for the adduction of the arm at the shoulder joint?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Pectoralis Major

c)

Latissimus Dorsi

d)

Trapezius

92.

Which muscle is involved in the extension of the forearm?

a)

Brachialis

b)

Triceps Brachii

c)

Biceps Brachii

d)

Brachioradialis

93.

Which muscle is responsible for the flexion of the arm at the elbow?

a)

Biceps Brachii

b)

Triceps Brachii

c)

Brachialis

d)

Brachioradialis

94.

Which muscle raises the lower jaw and presses it against the upper jaw?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Frontalis

c)

Masseter

d)

Zygomaticus

95.

Which muscle elevates the shoulders in a shrug?

a)

latissimus dorsi

b)

masseter

c)

sternocleidomastoid

d)

trapezius

96.

Identify the muscle

a)

gluteus medius

b)

gluteus maximus

c)

adductors

d)

hamstring group

97.

a)

external oblique

b)

serratus anterior

c)

pectoralis major

d)

rectus abdominus

e)

internal oblique

98.

a)

external oblique

b)

serratus anterior

c)

pectoralis major

d)

rectus abdominus

e)

internal oblique

99.
a)

deltoid

b)

serratus anterior

c)

pectoralis major

d)

rectus abdominus

e)

internal oblique

100.

What muscle is shown here?

a)

the deltoid

b)

the external obliques

c)

the rectus abdominis

d)

the sternocleidomastoid

101.

Which letter identifies the adductor longus muscle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

102.

Structure A is on either side of the sarcomere, it is called the

a)

A band

b)

I band

c)

Z disc

d)

fascia

103.

The unit between A and A is called

a)

a sarcomere

b)

The I band

c)

the Z disc

d)

fascia

104.

Structure C is known as the thick filament of the sarcomere, it is also known as

a)

myosin

b)

actin

c)

fascia

d)

myofibrils

105.

Structure B is known as the thin filaments of the sarcomere, what is another name for the thin filaments?

a)

myosin

b)

actin

c)

fascia

d)

myofibril

106.

Name the following in order from largest to smallest:

a)

muscle, muscle fascicle, muscle cell, myofibril, filaments

b)

muscle, muscle fascicle, muscle cell, filaments, myofibril

c)

muscle, muscle cell, muscle fascicle, myofibril, filaments

d)

muscle, muscle cell, muscle fascicle, filaments, myofibril

107.

What is the name of the place where a nerve meets a muscle fiber?

a)

Nerve junction

b)

Muscle junction

c)

Neuromuscular junction

d)

Cross bridge

108.

How does the sarcomere shorten (contract) ?

a)

The myosin filaments contract

b)

The myosin is pulled by the actin

c)

The actin filaments contract

d)

The actin is pulled by the myosin

109.

___ and ___ are regulatory proteins bound to actin.

a)

Myosin and actin

b)

Calcium and oxygen

c)

Glycogen and hemoglobin

d)

Troponin and tropomyosin

110.

What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?

a)

Niacin and Potassium

b)

Sodium and Potassium

c)

Calcium and ATP

d)

Acetylcholine and Potassium

111.

What is the structure that stores calcium in the muscle cell?

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Neuron

c)

Myoglobin

d)

Neuromuscular junction

112.

Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell.

a)

Muscle cell

b)

Neuron

c)

Gland

d)

Sarcomere

113.

The neurotransmitter that signals muscle contraction is...

a)

Calcium

b)

Myosin

c)

Actin

d)

Ach (acetylcholine)

114.

The contractile unit of the muscle cell is the:

a)

Sarcomere

b)

Osteon

c)

Myofilament

d)

Muscle fiber

115.

Which of the following refers to the muscle cell?

a)

Myofibril

b)

Fascicle

c)

Myofilament

d)

Muscle fiber

116.

Which connective tissue surrounds the whole muscle?

a)

epimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

perimysium

117.

Which connective tissue surrounds fasicles?

a)

epimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

perimysium

118.

Which connective tissue surrounds individual muscle fibers?

a)

epimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

perimysium

119.
Involuntary
a)
skeletal
b)
cardiac
c)
smooth
d)
smooth and cardiac
120.

Found in the heart and contains intercalated disks.

a)

smooth

b)

cardiac

c)

skeletal

d)

cardiac and smooth

121.

When muscle tension develops but the load is not moved.

a)

Muscle tone

b)

Tetanus

c)

Isotonic contraction

d)

Isometric contraction

122.

When the muscle tension developed overcomes the load and muscle shortening occurs.

a)

Muscle tone

b)

Tetanus

c)

Isotonic contraction

d)

Isometric contraction

123.

Determined by alternating motor units of a muscle organ even when the muscle is at rest.

a)

Muscle tone

b)

Tetanus

c)

Isotonic contraction

d)

Isometric contraction

124.

A sarcomere is the distance between two ________.

a)

Myosin

b)

I band

c)

A band

d)

Z discs

125.

Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle.

a)

Fixator

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergist

d)

Agonist (prime mover)

126.

Muscle that is primarily responsible for bringing about a particular movement.

a)

Fixator

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergist

d)

Agonist (prime mover)

127.

Muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement.

a)

Fixator

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergist

d)

Agonist (prime mover)

128.

Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle.

a)

Fixator

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergist

d)

Agonist (prime mover)

129.

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

a)

Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads.

b)

Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

c)

Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

d)

Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules.

130.

Myoglobin ________.

a)

stores oxygen in muscle cells

b)

is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP

c)

produces the end plate potential

d)

breaks down glycogen

131.

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

a)

forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin

b)

forming a chemical compound with actin

c)

storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

d)

inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments

132.

A tendon is ______, whereas an aponeurosis is ______.

a)

cordlike and connects muscles to bones; a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles

b)

a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles; cordlike and connects bones to bones

c)

a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects bones to bones; cordlike and connects muscles to muscles

d)

cordlike and connects bones to bones; a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles

133.

Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross-bridges with molecules of

a)

ATP.

b)

myosin.

c)

tropomyosin.

d)

troponin.

134.

Rigor mortis occurs because ________.

a)

proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions

b)

the cells are dead

c)

no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

d)

sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions

135.

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

a)

hydrochloric acid

b)

stearic acid

c)

lactic acid

d)

a strong base

136.

The first event in muscle fiber contraction is that

a)

the muscle fiber membrane is stimulated and a muscle impulse travels deep into the fiber through transverse tubules.

b)

acetylcholine is released from the end of the motor neuron.

c)

acetylcholine diffuses across a gap at a neuromuscular junction.

d)

calcium ions diffuse from sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm and bind to troponin molecules.

137.

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.

a)

hydrolysis

b)

the citric acid cycle

c)

the electron transport chain

d)

glycolysis

138.

The functional connection between a neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber is a

a)

neuroma.

b)

fascia.

c)

synapse.

d)

dendrite.

139.

When a calcium ion binds to troponin,

a)

actin heads will bind to myosin.

b)

active sites on actin are exposed.

c)

active sites on myosin are exposed.

d)

acetylcholine is released.

e)

muscle relaxation occurs.

140.

The ability of muscle to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated is known as ________, and sets muscle apart from other tissue types.

a)

excitability

b)

elasticity

c)

contractility

d)

extensibility

141.

The term used to describe muscular growth in response to usage is

a)

myopathy.

b)

hypertrophy.

c)

muscular dystrophy.

d)

multiple sclerosis.

e)

atrophy.

142.

A person whose genetic makeup makes him or her a better marathon runner than a sprinter probably has more ________ in his or her leg muscles.

a)

slow fibers

b)

fast fibers

c)

red fibers

d)

intermediate fibers

e)

dark fibers

143.

Fast fibers

a)

have many mitochondria.

b)

have loosely packed myofibrils.

c)

are about half the diameter of slow fibers.

d)

have a high concentration of myoglobin.

e)

have high glycogen reserves.

144.

A single stimulus-contraction-relaxation sequence in a muscle fiber is known as a(n) ________.

a)

latent period

b)

complete tetanus

c)

incomplete tetanus

d)

summation

e)

twitch

145.

As a skeletal muscle contraction is initiated, acetylcholine binding alters the motor end plate membrane's permeability to

a)

sodium ions.

b)

acetylcholinesterase.

c)

calcium ions.

d)

potassium ions.

e)

chloride ions.

146.

The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.

a)

actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other

b)

the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past

c)

actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

d)

the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments

147.

A plank position is part of a yoga/Pilates workout. The person supports the body on the floor in a prone position with the arms and feet supporting the body. It is a little like the "up" position of a push-up, held for 30 to 60 seconds. Contraction of the abdominal muscles in a plank is most likely

a)

concentric.

b)

isometric.

c)

eccentric.

d)

isotonic.

148.

The characteristic reddish brown color of skeletal muscle comes from which substance?

a)

Calcium

b)

Actin

c)

Myoglobin

d)

Myosin

149.

A myogram is

a)

a chart that shows how many muscle cells a neuron synapses with.

b)

a recording of the events of a twitch.

c)

a depiction of the results of a stress test.

d)

a measurement of muscle tone.

150.

Myasthenia gravis is a disease that is believed to be caused by autoimmune disorder, resulting in the loss of ACh receptors at the motor end plate of muscle fibers. Which of the following is likely to be a symptom of myasthenia gravis?

a)

dehydration with headache

b)

seizures and uncontrollable muscle movement

c)

weakness of muscle

d)

coma and loss of voluntary muscle movement

151.

The increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation is called

a)

threshold stimulation.

b)

recruitment.

c)

latency.

d)

sustained contraction.

152.

What is the major factor controlling how levers work?

a)

the weight of the load

b)

the direction the load is being moved

c)

the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

d)

the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever

153.

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?

a)

The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively.

b)

The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.

c)

The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively.

d)

The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.

154.

________ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint.

a)

Triceps brachii

b)

Biceps brachii

c)

Brachialis

d)

Brachioradialis

155.

The more movable end of a muscle is its

a)

source.

b)

insertion.

c)

origin.

d)

fulcrum.

156.

Which of the following muscles is named for its shape?

a)

pectoralis major

b)

tibialis anterior

c)

biceps brachii

d)

deltoid

e)

erector spinae

157.

The less-movable end of a skeletal muscle is the

a)

insertion.

b)

proximal end.

c)

belly.

d)

origin.

158.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Pectoralis major

a)

Location of muscle

b)

Direction of the muscle fibers

c)

Relative size of the muscle

d)

Number of origins

e)

Location of the muscle's origin and insertion

159.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Frontalis

a)

Size of the muscle

b)

Shape of the muscle

c)

Action of the muscle

d)

Location of the muscle

e)

Direction of muscle fibers

160.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Rectus abdominis

a)

Action of the muscle

b)

Number of origins

c)

Location of the muscle

d)

Size of the muscle

e)

Direction of the muscle fibers

161.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Extensor digitorum longus

a)

Direction of muscle fibers

b)

Location of muscle

c)

Action of muscle

d)

Relative size of the muscle

e)

Shape of the muscle

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