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PTCB For Me

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Avopro

a)

Tramadol

b)

Irbesartan

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Warfarin

2.

Maxalt

a)

Oxycodone

b)

Irbesartan

c)

Rizatriptan

d)

Aricept

3.

Valtrex

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Valacyclovir

c)

Venlafaxine

d)

Valsartan

4.

Avelox

a)

Moxifloxin

b)

Medrol

c)

Latanoprst

d)

Dorzalamine

5.

Warfarin

a)

Coumadin

b)

Xarelto

c)

Amlodopine

d)

Motrin

6.

Xanax

a)

Alprazolam

b)

Hydrocodone

c)

Percocet

d)

Adderall

7.

Concerta

a)

Dexmethaylphenadate

b)

D-amphetamine

c)

Methylphenidate

d)

oxycodone

8.

Zyprexa

a)

Omeprezole

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Olanzapine

d)

Latanoprast

9.

Aricept

a)

Donepezil

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Doxipin

d)

Xanax

10.

Diphenhydramine

a)

Flonase

b)

Benadryil

c)

Albuterol

d)

Acetaminophen

11.

Pro-Air

a)

Flonase

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Albuteral

d)

Amlodopine

12.

Sildenafil

a)

Tramadol

b)

Thyroid

c)

Viagra

d)

Venlafaxine

13.

Xalatan

a)

Ofloxin

b)

Latanoprost

c)

Dorzalamine

d)

Timilol

14.

Flomax

a)

Tramadol

b)

Trazadone

c)

Tamsulosin

d)

Sulfamethasone

15.

Klonopin

a)

Citalopram

b)

Antivert

c)

Clonazepam

d)

Celecoxib

16.

Phenergan

a)

Progesterone

b)

Pantoprazole

c)

Promethazine

d)

Phenergan

17.

Antivert

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Metfromin

c)

Meclizine

d)

Mythlephenadate

18.

Fluoxetine

a)

Propanolol

b)

Pantoprazole

c)

Prozac

d)

Phenergan

19.

Zocor

a)

Simvastatin

b)

Sertraline

c)

Synthroid

d)

Sumatrimptan

20.

Ranitidine

a)

Zoloft

b)

Zyrtec

c)

Zantac

d)

Paxlovid

21.

Fluconazole

a)

Diltizam

b)

Diflucan

c)

Duloxetine

d)

Dexmethazone

22.

Amrix

a)

Cephaxelin

b)

Celexa

c)

Cyclobenzaprine

d)

Citalopram

23.

Norvasc

a)

Atorvastatin

b)

Acyclovir

c)

Amlodopine

d)

Diflucan

24.

Lopressor

a)

Metformin

b)

Metropolol Tartrate

c)

Metropolol Succinate

d)

Meclizine

25.

Which of the following is the smallest microbe

a)

fungus

b)

virus

c)

bacteria

d)

protozoa

26.

Minimum weight a class III balance is calibrated to

a)

120mg

b)

1gm

c)

500mg

d)

2gm

27.

What Vitamin interacts with warfarin

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin B6

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin D3

28.

Which of these is an external route drug

a)

mesalamine suppositories

b)

timolol

c)

Humalog injectios

d)

nystatin team

29.

A drug ending in -pril falls into which class of drugs

a)

alpha blocker

b)

anti-fungal

c)

ACE inhibator

d)

Quinolone Antibiotics

30.

Teragenicity can be caused by which medication

a)

Progesterone

b)

Loratadine

c)

Warfarin

d)

Acetaminophen

31.

What needle is used for treatment such as chemotherapy

a)

Huber

b)

Spinal

c)

Insuline

d)

Hypodermin

32.

Which is an example of underuse of medication adherence?

a)

Medication abuse

b)

side effects

c)

cost of medication

d)

forgetting to take

33.

Fill In The Blank

An amber unit- dose blister pack is used for___ and___

a)

Tablets and Capsules

b)

Creams and Ointments

c)

Suppositories and Transdermal Gels

d)

Oral Liquids and Suspensions

34.

An individual’s patient profile indicates that they are diagnosed with COPD; whatcondition does the patient have?

a)

Chrons Disease

b)

Constipations

c)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

d)

Congested obstructive pulmonary Disease

35.

A prescriber writes “brand name medically necessary”. What DAW should be assigned tothis prescription?

a)

DAW0

b)

DA1

c)

DAW2

d)

DAW3

36.

What Does The FDA Do

a)

- enforce Provisions of controlled substances Act

- enforces provision of imported illegal substances

b)

-evaluate safety of drug products

- maintains REMs list

- ensures safety for humans and vet.

c)

-safety and healthy working regulations

-pharmacy: hazardous compounds

d)

establishes the list of hazardous compounds

37.

What does the DEA do

a)

-establishes the list of hazardous compounds

b)

-authority for all prescription OTC meds manufactured in the US

-establishes standards for food ing and dietary supplement

c)

-enforce Provisions of controlled substances Act

-enforces provision of imported illegal substances

d)

can't give laws but guidance

38.

Which are the P-List Waste

a)

Warfarin

epipen

Phertermine

Nicotine

Nytroglycerin

b)

Phenol

Mercury

c)

Blank

d)

Blank

39.

According to DEA, the original and transferred prescription for a controlled substance must be maintained for a minimum period of (a)   from the date of the last refill.

40.

Pharmacies must keep all records that pertain to controlled substances in C-III through C-V—including receipts, inventories, prescriptions, documentation of theft or loss, and disposition for at least (a)   years.

41.

Which Act defines the kinds of drugs that cannot be safely used without medical supervision and restricts their sale to prescription by a licensed practitioner?

(a)  

42.

Manufacturing status report should include:

a)

Dates and number of customers notified

b)

Number of customers notified and responded

c)

Quantity of recalled product returned during recall

d)

All Of The Above

43.

What form is used to report the theft of controlled substances?

a)

DEA Form 222

b)

DEA Form 41

c)

DEA Form 224

d)

DEA Form 106

44.

What classification of drug recall will cause serious adverse health consequences or Death?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

45.

Which organization is responsible for reviewing and approving REMS?

a)

OSHA

b)

CMS

c)

FDA

d)

DEA

46.

What is the generic name of Zyprexa?

a)

Chlorpromazine (antipsychotic

b)

Prochlorperazine (nausea/vomiting)

c)

Olanzapine (antipsychotic)

d)

promethazine (nausea/vomiting)

47.

In a graduated cylinder, which part of the concave meniscus should the pharmacy technician use to measure the liquid?

a)

Top

b)

Right

c)

Bottom

d)

Left

48.

Which of the following medications should most likely not be taken prior to operating heavy machinery?

a)

Famotidine (stomach)

b)

Hydrochlorothiazide (diuretic)

c)

Penicillin (antibiotic)

d)

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl

49.

In regards to a non-sterile compound, which of the following may indicate incompatibility?

a)

The resuspendable caking of a suspension

b)

A lack of cloudiness in a solution

c)

An unanticipated change in color

d)

The absence of precipitation

50.

Which of the following antibiotic products may cause across-sensitivity reaction in patients who may be allergic to penicillin?

a)

Amphotericin

b)

Aminophylline

c)

Amikacin

d)

Augmentin

51.

A particular manufacturer packages amlodipine 2.5mgtablets with an NDC of 00603-2108-02. If a pharmacy technician wants to receive another medication from the same manufacturer, which of the following NDCsshould they order?

a)

0603-3855-21 (first 5 numbers designate the manufacturer)

b)

16590-580-90

c)

-2108-10

d)

42543-710-02

52.

When referring to an oral suspension, which of the following auxiliary labels should always be placed on the medication?

a)

Medication should be taken with plenty of water

b)

Tk with food

c)

Do not take dairy products, antacids, or iron preparations within one hourof

this medication

d)

Shake well before use (because suspensions settle)

53.

According to federal law, pharmacists must be alerted for consultations with the patient in all of the following situations except:

a)

DUR Prescriptions

b)

New prescriptions

c)

Refills

d)

OTC advice

54.

Some medications must be dispensed in its original container; for which of the following products is this true?

a)

Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual tablets (with a snap cap)

b)

Oxycodone 5 mg immediate release tablets

c)

Isosorbide mononitrate 30 mg sustained release tablets

d)

Some medications must be dispensed in its original container; for which of the following products is this true?

55.

Which vitamin should be avoided during pregnancy in order to prevent birth (neural tube) defects?

a)

Riboflavin

b)

Folic acid

c)

Niacin

d)

Thiamine

56.

The following medications should be avoided by patients allergic to sulfadrugs?

a)

Ceftin (cephalosporin)

b)

Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)

c)

Keflex (cephalosporin)

d)

Biaxin (macrolide)

57.

One of the important steps to follow that helps ensure that prescriptions are filled for and dispensedto the correct patient is:

a)

patient profiling

b)

patient identification (patient name, dob to verify the correct profile)

c)

principal diagnosis

d)

prescription prioritization

58.

Which of the following has a potential to produce a drug-disease interaction?

a)

cephalexin-asthm

b)

gemfibrozil-arthritis

c)

digoxin-diabetes

d)

pseudoephedrine-hypertension

59.

According to federal law and required by the DEA, how long, in years, must a pharmacy maintain recordsfor each controlled substance purchased, received, distributed, or dispensed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

10

d)

5

60.

If a pharmacy technician is asked by a patient picking up a prescription for naproxen if the pharmacy hasOTC ibuprofen, the technician’s response should be to:

a)

----

b)

inquire if the ibuprofen is for the same patient as the naproxen;if so, notify the pharmacist of a potential therapeutic duplication

c)

inquireiftheibuprofenisforthesamepatientasthenaproxen;ifso,notifythe patient of a potential therapeutic dupl

d)

inform the patient that OTC ibuprofen is available and direct the patient tothe OTC pain reliever

61.

Warfarin has a potential to interact with which of the following foods?

a)

lengthy shifts

b)

Beer and wine

c)

Kale and broccoli

d)

Milk and cheese

62.

A hospital's Pharmacy and Therapeutics (P&T) Committee that reviews medication error reports can help to:

a)

determine if a medication should be added to the hospital's formulary

b)

provide appropriate safeguards for patients involved in investigational

studies

c)

decrease the number of adverse drug events caused by systemweaknesses

d)

keep track of therapeutic substitutions made due to drug shortages

63.

If two components of a non-sterile compound are incompatible, it may result in the:

a)

FDA issuing a manufacturer recall

b)

decreased toxicity of one or more components

c)

final product not having the correct color or texture

d)

assignment of a boxed warning

64.

In order to prevent cross-contamination between solid dosage forms like tablets andcapsules, a pharmacy technician should:

a)

Use a different counting tray for each medication

b)

Disinfect all equipment using bacteriostatic

c)

Wipe a counting tray clean after each use

d)

Wearafacemaskwhilecountingoutmedicatio

65.

What does DTD stand for on a prescription

a)

written on label

b)

Weight

c)

Take as directed

d)

give of such dose

66.

The directions for use for Timoptic is "2 gtts os bid.". What is the meaning of os?

a)

With food

b)

Before bedtime

c)

Out of stock

d)

Left Eye

67.

An order reads "Tylenol 325mg pr q 4 h prn". What dosage form should be dispensed?

a)

Caplets

b)

Suppositories

c)

Tablets

d)

Liquid

68.

A physician prescribes Ceclor 375mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription?

a)

IDK TBH

b)

Dosage

c)

There is no duration

d)

Quantity

69.

What is the term for the process by which substances are taken up and transported to the bloodstream?

a)

Flushing

b)

Detox

c)

Absorption

d)

Intake

70.

What is "room temperature" in Fahrenheit

a)

15-20

b)

70-80

c)

55-65

d)

40-50

71.

A patient enters the pharmacy complaining of persistent heartburn. The pharmacy technician should:

a)

Have the pharmacist speak with them

b)

Give them recommendations

c)

Send them another pharmacy

d)

tell them to go to hospital

72.

The directions for use of a medication are " ii gtts au q 4 h x 5d". What is au?

a)

inject

b)

on the skin

c)

In eyes

d)

Both ears

73.

The NDC on a medication bottle refers to the:

a)

Drug Product

b)

Quantity

c)

Manufacture

d)

All the above

74.

Which of the following is NOT required on a unit-dosed packaged drug?

a)

How to store

b)

expiration

c)

lot number

d)

strength

75.

Nonprescription drugs should not be included in the patient profile.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Which drug is likely to cause a photosensitivity reaction?

a)

Biaxin

b)

Cipro

c)

Penicillin

d)

Tetracycline

77.

Which of the following 2 drug classes have cross sensitivity?

a)

tetracycline and penicillin

b)

penicillin and erythromycin

c)

penicillin and cephalosporin

d)

erythromycin and penicillin

78.

How many times can an unscheduled prescription be refilled on a PRN prescription order?

a)

Does not expire

b)

As needed for one year

c)

6 Months

d)

2 Years

79.

Acetaminophen possesses all of the following except

a)

analgesic

b)

Anti-immflamitory

c)

antipyretic

d)

contains none

80.

Estraderm is available in which dosage form?

a)

Suspension

b)

Patches

c)

Tablets

d)

Caplsules

81.

A patient hands you an empty vial of Ritalin and asks for the Rx to be refilled. What should you do?

a)

Call cops

b)

Fill it

c)

Tell them it cannot be refilled

82.

Which of the following drugs is used in chest pain

a)

meperidine

b)

nitroglycerin

c)

diltiazam

d)

piroxicam

83.

Codeine, meperidine and oxycodone all belong to which controlled schedule

a)

II

b)

III

c)

IV

84.

Which of the following drugs is not a laxative?

a)

Dulcolax

b)

Colace

c)

Metamucil

d)

Imodium

85.

A patient on warfarin therapy should never take which of the following medications?

a)

Demerol

b)

Percocet

c)

Percodan

d)

Tylenol

86.

Which of the following medications is an anticonvulsant?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Atenolol

c)

Dextromethorphan

87.

Which drug has a loading dose as part of the regimen?

a)

Macrodantin

b)

Zithromax

c)

Cipro

d)

Doxycycline

88.

Which drugs listed should be taken on an empty stomach

a)

NSAIDS

b)

Dilatin

c)

Tetracycline

d)

All of the above

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