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APES Practice Test #2

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An ecosystem is a location on Earth that includes

a)

only biotic components

b)

only abiotic components

c)

interacting biotic and abiotic components

d)

positive and negative feedback loops

2.

What type of diagram is this?

a)

Food Chain

b)

Trophic pyramid

c)

Food web

d)

10% Rule

3.

What is the process that moves nitrogen from the atmosphere to the organic compound within the cycle?

a)

denitrification

b)

decomposition

c)

nitrogen fixation

d)

photosynthesis

4.

Which has the highest net productivity?

a)

Desert

b)

Tundra

c)

Savannah

d)

Tropical rain forest

5.

The total rate of photosynthesis in a given area.

a)

cellular respiration

b)

net primary productivity

c)

gross primary productivity

d)

primary productivity

6.

If an island is closer to the mainland, how will this impact the biodiversity?

a)

There will be a higher level of biodiversity here than an island that is further away.

b)

There will be a lower level of biodiversity here than an island that is further away.

c)

There will be no difference in biodiversity on islands based on distance to mainland.

7.

What is ecological succession?

a)

A set of environmental conditions within which an organism can best survive

b)

An organism's ability to adapt to its environment

c)

A peak community where the organisms are stable

d)

The process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time

8.

Which of the following is NOT a type of ecosystem service?

a)

Cultural

b)

Regulating

c)

Recreational

d)

Provisional

9.

Which best describes the concept of net primary production?

a)

total amount of energy available from the Sun

b)

total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

energy captured minus energy lost

d)

total amount of energy available from the producer

10.

In the nitrogen cycle, this process is carried out by decomposers and returns nutrients in organic matter back to the soil.

a)

Nitrification

b)

Assimilation

c)

Ammonification

d)

Denitrification

11.
Which biome receives between 0 to 25 centimeters of rain per year, has a temperature range of 0 to 50 degrees Celsius, has poor soil, and is home to lizards, scorpions, and snakes?
a)
desert
b)
mountain
c)
taiga
d)
tundra
12.
Which biome receives between 0 and 25 centimeters of precipitation each year, has a temperature range from -27 to 5 degrees Celsius, has frozen soil, and is home to hares, caribou, and wolves?
a)
desert
b)
mountain
c)
savannah
d)
tundra
13.
Which biome is represented by the rainfall amounts in letter C?
a)
desert
b)
prairie
c)
deciduous forest
d)
tropical rain forest
14.
Competitive interactions among members of the same species
a)
Intraspecific
b)
Interspecific
15.
Based on the graph shown, what is the effect of removing a keystone species from an ecosystem?
a)
biodiversity goes up
b)
biodiversity goes down
c)
biodiversity stays about the same
d)
not enough information to tell
16.
The number of different species a community contains
a)
richness
b)
evenness
c)
density
d)
abundance
17.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
18.

A population is...

a)

All members of one species in one area

b)

All members of all species that live in one area

c)

All of the living and nonliving things in an area

d)

None of these

19.

What is happening at the 'A' on the graph?

a)

the population overshoots above the carrying capacity

b)

the population stops growing

c)

growth begins to slow down due to limited resources

d)

growth is speeding up due to an abundance of resources

20.
Introduced or invasive species are often difficult because:
a)
They contribute to habitat fragmentation
b)
They do not adapt well to new environments
c)
They increase biodiversity
d)
They often lack natural predators
21.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
22.

Figure C shows an age structure diagram for a population that is _________?

a)

diminishing

b)

expanding

c)

stable

d)

birthrate is higher than deathrate

23.

Describes organisms with a high death rate (or low survivorship rate) immediately following birth. Examples include bacteria, fishes, and invertebrates.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

24.

These organisms typically live in unstable, unpredictable environments & are able to reproduce rapidly (exponentially). They do not take care of their young & are subject to predation.

a)

k-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

25.

What is the total fertility rate?

a)

average number of children a male fathers in his lifetime

b)

average number of children a female has during her lifetime

c)

average number of children a female has during her twenties

d)

average number of children on Earth

26.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

27.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

28.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
29.

Which wind system is closest to the equator?

a)

Doldrums

b)

Westerlies

c)

Polar easterlies

d)

Trade winds

30.

What type of population growth is being shown in this population pyramid?

a)

Rapid growth

b)

Stable growth

c)

Declining growth

31.

If a primary consumer contains 1,000 kcal of energy, the secondary consumer gains how much energy when it eats the primary consumer?

a)

1,000 kcal

b)

100 kcal

c)

10 kcal

d)

10,000 kcal

32.

Which soil horizon has very little organic matter and accumulates soluble metals and nutrients that are transported from other soil layers?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

33.

Corn is a crop that grows best in soil that drains well.

Which of the following soils is best suited to grow corn?

a)

Clay because it has at least 45% clay so it absorbs water very well.

b)

Silt loam because it is about 80% silt and has low amounts of sand.

c)

Sandy loam because it has large amounts of sand and less than 20% clay.

d)

Silty clay loam because it has all three soil components.

34.

The most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere is

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

water vapor

d)

carbon dioxide

35.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
36.
The geological layer, consisting of underground caverns and porous layers of sand, gravel, or bedrock, where groundwater flows, is called
a)
The zone of saturation
b)
Recharge point
c)
Aquifer
d)
bedrock
37.
The Mississippi River carries agricultural runoff to the Gulf of Mexico.  What phenomenon results?
a)
a dead zone
b)
regular flooding of the Mississippi delta
c)
return of mining refuse water
d)
Gold tides
38.
Which of the following is NOT one of the primary sources of groundwater contamination?
a)
Industry
b)
Agriculture
c)
Mining
d)
Lawn fertilizers
39.
Of the following organisms, the group that is least likely to cause disease is:
a)
Bacteria
b)
Protzoa
c)
Algae
d)
Parasitic worms
40.

When irrigation water evaporates, salts are left behind on the soil surface and can cause plant death or lead to

a)

soil salinization

b)

desertification

c)

waterlogging

d)

monocropping

41.

One of the advantages to using genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is

a)

reduce the need for pesticides

b)

they are not regulated by the government

c)

the concern about safety to consume

d)

they can cause food allergies

42.

Because global fisheries have dramatically seen a reduction in fish numbers, this technique has been used recently to supplement that loss.

a)

monocropping

b)

IPM

c)

contour farming

d)

aquaculture

43.

The systematic removal of rock or other substance for financial gain.

a)

smelting

b)

mining

c)

urban farming

d)

forestry

44.

Reclamation is the process of

a)

Removing coal from a subsurface seam

b)

Extracting ore minerals from gangue minerals

c)

Returning land to its original or better condition

d)

Protecting the habitats of local wildlife

45.

An ecological footprint is

a)

The amount of wilderness available on the earth

b)

The amount of biologically productive land and water a person uses

c)

A measure of the earth's biological capacity

d)

A measure of a person's contribution to creating a sustainable environment

46.

This method of forestry management involves the removal of certain trees with disease or trees of a desired height for use in industry.

a)

clearcutting

b)

selective cutting

c)

controlled burning

d)

reforestation

47.

Which is NOT a contaminant associated with CAFOs?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Oil spills

d)

E. coli

48.

Excess nitrogen and phosphorous in waterways can cause

a)

Eutrophication

b)

CAFOs

c)

Asthma

d)

I know we've talked about this...

49.
Effect of sulfur dioxide
a)
Deprives body of oxygen
b)
Irritates the eyes
c)
Causes global warming
d)
Causes acid rain
50.
A colorless, odorless gas that decreases the blood's ability to carry oxygen.  Can cause faintness, death.
a)
Nitrogen oxides
b)
Ground-level ozone
c)
Carbon monoxide
d)
Sulfur dioxide
51.

What percent of energy consumption is made of renewable energy?

a)

92%

b)

50%

c)

20%

d)

8%

52.

Which type of renewable energy is pictured?

a)

photovoltaic cells

b)

parabolic solar collection

c)

hydroelectric

d)

geothermal

53.

Which location would be best for solar energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

54.

Which location would be best for geothermal energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

55.

Which location would be best for wind energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

56.

Which renewable energy does not require spinning a turbine?

a)

hydroelectric

b)

wind

c)

tidal

d)

photovoltaic cells

57.

What is given off as waste in a hydrogen fueled car?

a)

H2

b)

O2

c)

H2O2

d)

H2O

58.

Which of the following is not a biofuel or a biomass?

a)

wood

b)

ethanol from corn

c)

dung

d)

methane

59.

Fuel cells that use a chemical reaction to generate electricity are using

a)

hydrogen gas

b)

methane gas

c)

water

d)

oil

60.

What is a drawback of using ethanol as a fuel alternative to gasoline?

a)

it is produced from a food item

b)

produces more pollution than gas

c)

nonrenewable and comes from the ground

d)

burns worse than gasoline

61.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Energy-dense and abundant—will last up to 200 years

· No refining needed

· Easy, safe to transport

· Economic backbone of many small towns

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

62.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Cogeneration power plants can have efficiencies up to 60%

· Efficient for cooking, heating, etc.

· Fewer impurities than coal or oil

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

63.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Emits no CO2

· Offers independence from imported oil

· High energy density, ample supply

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

64.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Radioactive waste

· Emissions from uranium mining

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

65.
Why do we depend on fossil fuels? 
a)
Electricity, transportation, and heating
b)
Food
c)
Sunlight
d)
Growing, building muscle, calcium
66.

Which fuel contains the most SULFUR?

a)

wood

b)

oil

c)

natural gas

d)

coal

67.

Type of fuel source that causes DEFORESTATION

a)

Solar energy

b)

Nuclear fission

c)

Geothermal

d)

Biomass

68.

What is the half-life of Iodine 131?

a)

32 days

b)

24 days

c)

16 days

d)

8 days

69.

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a renewable energy source?

a)

wind

b)

solar

c)

nuclear

d)

biomass

70.

Based on the diagram, which processes would provide the energy used to generate electricity at the power plant?

a)

absorption of incoming solar radiation

b)

fusion of atomic nuclei to form heavier atomic nuclei

c)

fission in radioactive fuel

d)

combustion of fossil fuels

71.

Which climate conditions would be best suited for the formation of photochemical smog?

a)

Cool, wet, cloudy

b)

Cool, dry, sunny

c)

Warm, wet, cloudy

d)

Warm, dry, sunny

72.

Cool air trapped below warm air, with the possibility of trapping pollutants near the surface.

a)

Cold Front

b)

Warm Front

c)

Temperature Inversion

d)

Heat Island

73.

Check all that are true about carbon dioxide.

a)

It is nonessential to life on earth

b)

It is responsible for all changes to Earth's climate

c)

It is very stable and remains in atmospheric form for years

d)

It is a contributor to ozone depletion

74.

Why has atmospheric carbon increased in recent history?

a)

Increased human population and respiration

b)

Increase in consumption of fossil fuels

c)

Rapid deforestation in some areas of the world

d)

A decline in the phytoplankton producer population

75.

What do scrubbers do to control air pollution?

a)

They increase the efficiency of electricity generation

b)

They remove gases and particulates from exhaust

c)

They use electric charge to remove pollutants

d)

They convert pollutants to something less harmful

76.

Check all that is true of the Clean Air Act.

a)

It set air quality standards for public health

b)

It was signed by 71 nations in Montreal

c)

It developed motor vehicle emission standards

d)

It gave a timeline to power plants to cut emissions

77.

Implicated in human neurological damage

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrocarbons

e)

Particulates

78.

Most often cited as the causative factor for acid deposition

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrocarbons

e)

Particulates

79.

A paper company located on the banks of a river discharges its treated wastewater into the river.


Which of the following water quality indicators should be measured to best determine if the wastewater is increasing the acidity of the river?

a)

The amount of dissolved oxygen

b)

The total suspended solids

c)

The amount of hydrogen ions

d)

The species richness

80.

Which is NOT an air pollutant address by the Clean Air Act of 1970?

a)

O3

b)

CO

c)

NOx

d)

CH4

e)

All of these were addressed by the Clean Air Act

81.

Which is NOT a source of SO2?

a)

combustion of fossil fuels

b)

volcanic eruptions

c)

forest fires

d)

lightning

e)

none of these are sources of SO2

82.

What is TRUE of carbon monoxide?

a)

It is CO2

b)

It is an odorless gas

c)

It has a purple color

d)

It is the product of complete combustion

e)

None of these are true

83.

Photochemical smog results from a reaction between

a)

nitrogen, oxygen and sunlight

b)

nitrogen, carbon and sunlight

c)

oxygen, water and lead

d)

sunlight, sulfur and carbon

e)

carbon, hydrogen, and methane

84.

The global atmospheric CO2 concentration in 1980 was

a)

340 ppm

b)

100 ppm

c)

400 ppm

d)

450 ppm

e)

510 ppm

85.

The global atmospheric CO2 concentration in 2020 was

a)

340 ppm

b)

100 ppm

c)

410 ppm

d)

450 ppm

e)

510 ppm

86.
What are the pollutants known to cause acid rain?
a)
nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide (sulfur compounds)
b)
Low pH and Acid
c)
Lemon Juice and Battery Acid
d)
Particulate Matter and Carbon Dioxide
87.
Which of the following correctly lists the 6 “criteria” air pollutants as specified under the Clean Air Act?
a)
Pb, SO2, NOX, CO, PM, and tropospheric O3
b)
Tropospheric O3, SO2, NOX, PM, Pb, and CO2
c)
SO4, NOX, CO, PM, Pb, and tropospheric O3
d)
SO2, NOX, CO, Hg, PM, and tropospheric O3
88.
The chemical formula for ozone?
a)
0
b)
02
c)
03
d)
OZn
89.
Of the following cities, which regularly experiences the worst levels of photochemical smog that is enhanced by thermal inversions?
a)
New York City, NY
b)
Los Angeles, California
c)
Portland, Oregon
d)
Atlanta, Georgia
90.

What areas are more likely to experience temperature inversions?

a)

small cities in the mountains

b)

large cities in valleys

c)

large cities near oceans

d)

small cities near a river

91.

Which of the following examples includes both a point and a nonpoint source of pollution?

a)

A factory smokestack and a sewage overflow

b)

Runoff from city streets and pesticides from agricultural fields

c)

Waste from animal feedlots and sediment from construction sites

d)

Fertilizer from suburban lawns and wastewater from a water treatment plant

92.

Which of the following will result in accelerated eutrophication when introduced into streams, lakes, and bays?

a)

Bacteria and viruses

b)

pesticides

c)

herbicides

d)

phosphates

e)

acid wastes

93.

The diagram shows a power plant designed to generate electricity for a nearby city.

The water used in this type of power plant is often released back into a reservoir.

Which of the following effects could this released water have on the reservoir?

a)

The released water is radioactive and is lethal to a variety of organisms in the reservoir.

b)

Chemical pollutants in the released water cause algal blooms in the reservoir.

c)

Ash from the power plant is dissolved in the released water and will precipitate out into the reservoir.

d)

The temperature of the released water causes a decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in the reservoir.

94.

Which of the following best explains why top predators can have up to 60 times as much of persistent organic pollutant (POP) as their prey and up to 600 times as much of the pollutant as producers?

a)

POPs accumulate in the body fat of living organisms. POPs  increase in concentration as they move up the food chain.

b)

POPs can travel over long distances by wind or water. Predators have greater access to different locations than do producers and therefore have higher concentrations of POPs.

c)

POPs are not carbon-based compounds, so animal digestive systems lack enzymes capable of breaking them down.  POPs biomagnify in the fatty tissues of animals but not in plants.

d)

POPs are solids, which only animals can ingest. Therefore, POPs have a greater effect on secondary and tertiary levels of food chains.

95.
The largest component of municipal solid waste in the US is:
a)
Paper
b)
Plastic
c)
Yard Trimmings
d)
Metal
96.

Endocrine disruptors cause the following impacts to organisms

a)

increased respiratory rate

b)

damage to the cardiovascular system

c)

increased size of individual organisms

d)

birth defects and cancer

97.
Increased use of inorganic (lab-made) fertilizers on crops contributes to:
a)
Hypoxia in the Gulf of Mexico
b)
Increase in storm severity in southeastern U.S.
c)
Water shortages in California
d)
Saltwater intrusion on the East Coast.
98.

What is it called when a persistent pollutant (like mercury or PCBs) builds up in the tissues of an organism as they continue to eat something that contains the pollutant

a)

Subsidence

b)

Biomagnification

c)

Tragedy of the commons

d)

Bioaccumulation

99.

"Bad ozone" occurs in the

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Stratosphere

d)

Troposphere

100.

Which of the following best describes the importance of ozone in the stratosphere to life on Earth?

a)

Ozone reflects X-rays from the Sun back into space.

b)

Ozone absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.

c)

Ozone helps to moderate surface temperature by absorbing CO2 and CH4.

d)

Ozone increases mutation rates and accelerates evolution in a variety of species.

101.
Amount of a toxic material per unit of body weight of test animals that kills half the test population in a certain time
a)
risk assessment
b)
risk management
c)
LD50
d)
LD60
102.

A factory discharges a mercury-based waste into the local river. This is

a)

point-source pollution

b)

nonpoint-source pollution

c)

not a problem, mercury is natural

103.

Choose the zone in which populations of organisms with high oxygen requirements will most likely be absent.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

104.
What is the first step in the water treatment process?
a)
coagulation
b)
filtration
c)
flocculation
d)
sedimentation
105.
What does chlorination do to the water?
a)
Removes microorganisms
b)
Cleans the water
c)
Makes the water taste nice
d)
Removes twigs and sediment
106.

Which of the following best identifies the reason that chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) were banned in 1996 by the Montreal Protocol?

a)

CFCs increased acid deposition in northern latitudes.

b)

CFCs increased the rates of cancer in workers in mining operations.

c)

CFCs led to a spike in the number of respiratory illnesses diagnosed in children.

d)

CFCs led to the destruction of stratospheric ozone.

107.

The main elements in CFCs are

a)

Carbon, Calcium, Francium

b)

Carbon, Chlorine, Fluorine

c)

Chromium, Chlorine, Fluorine

d)

Chlorine, Fluorine, Calcium

108.

Which of the following best exemplifies global collaboration for a sustainable environment? (Getting rid of CFCs)

a)

The Antarctic Treaty of 1961

b)

The Clean Air Act of 1972

c)

CERCLA (Superfund)

d)

The Montreal Protocol

109.

Which of the following best describes the importance of ozone in the stratosphere to life on Earth?

a)

Ozone reflects X-rays from the Sun back into space.

b)

Ozone absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.

c)

Ozone helps to moderate surface temperature by absorbing CO2 and CH4.

d)

Ozone increases mutation rates and accelerates evolution in a variety of species.

110.

The second step of ozone formation involves atomic oxygen combining with what molecule?

a)

CO2

b)

O2

c)

NO2

d)

2H2O

111.

The breakdown of CFCs in the atmosphere is caused by UV rays.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that comes only from human sources?

a)

Nitrous oxide

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Methane

d)

Chlorofluorocarbons

113.

The ocean becomes this with the absorption of excess CO2

a)

alkaline

b)

acidic

c)

neutral

d)

shallower

e)

none of these

114.

A species who is very close to extinction

a)

threatened

b)

endangered

c)

invasive

d)

least concern

e)

alien

115.

committing industrialized countries and economies in transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with agreed individual targets

a)

Kyoto Protocol

b)

CITES

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Endangered Species Act

e)

NEPA

116.

Organisms that are successful in a new environment due to access to abundant resources and no predators

a)

threatened

b)

keystone

c)

endangered

d)

least concern

e)

invasive

117.

The international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species

a)

CITES

b)

Endangered Species Act

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Kyoto Protocol

e)

Sioux Falls Animal Act

118.

Which of the following anthropogenic activities is most closely associated with depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer?

a)

Flooded cropland

b)

Garbage incineration

c)

Mining of talc

d)

Disposal of refrigerators and air conditioners

e)

None of these

119.

What evidence is there to support that Global Warming is occurring?

a)

Rising ocean temperatures

b)

Declining arctic sea glacers

c)

Sea levels rising

d)

Increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

120.
Carbon dioxide and seawater combine to form
a)
calcium carbonate
b)
carbon monoxide
c)
carbonic acid 
121.
Marine organisms make their shells from calcium and
a)
chloride
b)
carbonate
c)
seawater
122.
As the ocean becomes more acidic, the pH of the water
a)
increases
b)
decreases
123.

How does ocean acidification impact marine calcifiers?

a)

It weakens their shells and bodies

b)

It makes their food die

c)

It makes the water too warm for them

d)

It adds too much weight to their shells

124.

All of the following gases have been implicated in contributing to the increase in global temperature via the greenhouse effect EXCEPT

a)

O2

b)

CH4

c)

N2O

d)

CO2

e)

CFCs

125.

Which of the following is part of a positive feedback mechanism associated with global climate change?

a)

Increased cloudiness caused by more moisture in the atmosphere

b)

Melting of Arctic sea ice

c)

Increased growth of CO2 -absorbing trees and grasses

d)

Increased acidity of seawater