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Biology STAAR Mock Exam

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An organelle involved in breaking down lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, damage organelles, and bacteria are ___

a)

Golgi Appaparatus

b)

Vesicles

c)

Vacule

d)

Lysosomes

2.

Both mitochondria and chloroplasts ____

a)

contain their own unique ribosomes that are different than the cells

b)

contain their own unique DNA that are different than the cells

c)

are specialized organelles that capture and release energy

d)

are found in both in plants and animals

3.

Encloses the cell, it acts like a gatekeeper, allowing some materials to pass through it but not others.

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

4.

A rigid structure that surrounds the cell membrane for support and protection of the cell.

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

5.

Organelles where photosynthesis occurs, are green due to chlorophyll pigment found in them.

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

6.

A gel like fluid that takes up most of the space inside the cell. The organelles are found scattered throughout it.

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

7.

Organelles that package cellular materials and transports them within the cell or out of the cell.

a)

Golgi Body

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Large central vacuole

d)

Lysosomes

8.

A fluid like vesicle that stores water and provides support for the cell.

a)

Golgi Body

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Large central vacuole

d)

Lysosomes

9.

Powerhouse of the cell, organelle that is the site of ATP ( energy production ) and cellular respiration in plants and animals.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

10.

Is the structure located in a plant and animal cell that is home to DNA, where new cells are made and directs cell activity

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

11.

Where proteins are made in the cells.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

12.

Function of the cell membrane to block the movement of certain sizes, shapes and kinds of particles from entering the cell.

a)

permeable

b)

impermeable

c)

semi-permeable

13.

Plant cells and animal cells

a)

are both prokaryotic

b)

are both eukaryotic

c)

do not have a nucleus

d)

do not have DNA

14.

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

a)

does not have ribosomes on the membrane and makes lipids for the cell.

b)

has ribosomes on the membrane and makes proteins for the cell.

c)

has ribosomes on the membrane and makes lipids for the cell.

d)

does not have ribosomes on the membrane and make glucose for the cell.

15.

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

a)

does not have ribosomes on the membrane and transports proteins for the cell.

b)

does not have ribosomes and makes energy for the cell.

c)

does not have ribosomes and makes proteins for the cell.

d)

has ribosomes on the membrane and transports proteins for the cell.

16.

Check the three major differences between a plant cell and an animal cell.

a)

cell wall

b)

mitochondria

c)

large central vacuole

d)

chloroplasts

17.

Why do cells divide in humans?

a)

Growth and repair

b)

Making offspring

c)

Movement

d)

Creating Energy

18.

What do cells spend most of their time doing?

a)

Splitting cytoplasm (cytokinesis)

b)

Growing (interphase)

c)

Copying their nucleus (mitosis)

19.

Cancer cells ...

a)

differentiate.

b)

cause cancer.

c)

grow larger than other cells.

d)

divide more than other cells.

20.

How does your skin heal itself?

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Stem cells

d)

Mitosis

21.

What causes mutations that can lead to cancer?

a)

exercise

b)

UV light

c)

radiation

d)

water

e)

genetics

22.

One of the characteristics of life is that all living things have a limited lifespan. If fact, most cells can only divide about 50 times before they die. This pre-programmed cell death is called ....

a)

meiosis.

b)

apoptosis.

c)

mutation.

d)

mitosis.

23.

What is the main purpose of the cell cycle?

a)

During a cell’s lifetime, it spends most of the time growing and copying DNA and organelles. When it is time, the cell divides its DNA and organelles to create two new cells with identical DNA, helping an organism grow and to make repairs.

b)

The cell cycle is a process by which cells grow and replicate organelles and DNA in order to stay alive and maintain homeostasis. The process ensures that organisms have appropriate temperature and water level regulation.

c)

The process of the cell cycle is essential to keep a multicellular organism alive. It allows organisms to multiply their cells in a manner that different DNA is added to the differentiated cells like blood cells and bone cells. Then, all cells can carry out their function appropriately.

d)

The process of the cell cycle ensures that all cells in the body have an identical number of organelles and are able to divide rapidly to keep the organism functioning. It leads to differentiated cells like nerve cells and bone cells that work together to keep a multicellular organism functioning.

24.

Label the phases if the cell cycle.

25.

Match the following

a)

G1

1.

Gap or growth phase; cell doubles in size

b)

G2

2.

Cell prepares for division; doubles number of organelles

c)

S

3.

DNA is replicated

d)

Mitosis

4.

Process in which the nucleus is divided

e)

Cytokinesis

5.

Process of division of the cytoplasm

26.

Which phase do the chromosome pull apart?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

27.

Which phase does the DNA condense?

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

28.

What occurs in Cytokinesis?

a)

DNA replicates

b)

The cell grows

c)

The cell divides

d)

The nucleus divides

29.

What does the cell cycle allow an organism to do?

a)

Grow, Develop, and Repair

b)

Grow, Mutate, and Evolve

c)

Evolve. Develop, and Grow

d)

Develop, Repair and Evolve

30.

Which Phase does the cell spend 90% of its life in?

a)

M Phase

b)

Interphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase

31.

In which phase of the cell cycle does the DNA copy itself?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

e)

M

32.

What occurs in mitosis?

a)

The cell is growing

b)

The cell is divided

c)

Nucleus is divided

33.

Place to following steps of Mitosis in order.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

1)
2)
3)
4)
34.

Match the following

a)

Genetic material condenses

1.

Prophase

b)

Chromosomes line up in middle of cell

2.

Metaphase

c)

Sister chromatid moves apart

3.

Anaphase

d)

The cell starts to split into two

4.

Telophase

e)

Cell growth, and DNA replicates

5.

Interphase

35.

What stage of the Cell Cycle is shown in the image

a)

Interphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Telophase

36.

What phase of the Cell Cycle is the arrow pointing to

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Interphase

d)

Prophase

37.

Diploid number of chromosomes in humans is

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

12

38.

If a camel's daughter cells have 70 chromosomes after mitosis, how many chromosomes did the parent cell have?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

35

d)

70

e)

140

39.

The branch of biology that focuses on heredity is called _______.

a)

genetics

b)

traits

c)

translation

d)

protein synthesis

40.

The passing of traits from parent to offspring is called _____.

a)

heredity

b)

genetics

c)

DNA Replication

d)

photosynthesis

41.

Which organism did Gregor Mendel use to perform his genetic experiments on?

a)

guinea pigs

b)

babies

c)

pea plants

d)

horses

42.

When Mendel crossed a purebred purple-flowered pea plant with a purebred white-flowered pea plant, he noticed that all the pea plants of the first generation had only ______ flowers.

a)

light blue

b)

purple

c)

purple and white striped

d)

white

43.

Mendel determined that we have ____ copies of each gene (one from each parent).

a)

1

b)

2

c)

23

d)

46

44.

The alternative versions of genes are called _______.

a)

genies

b)

alleles

c)

traits

d)

alt-genes

45.

When 2 different alleles are found together, the one that is fully expressed (shows up) in the individual, is ________.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

hybrid

d)

stronger

46.

When 2 different alleles are found together, the allele that has no effect (is hidden) is called ______.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

non-existant

d)

ghost-trait

47.

In a Punnet Square, which letter is used to represent the dominant allele?

a)

Capital letter

b)

Lower-case letter

48.

In a Punnet Square, which letter is used to represent the recessive allele?

a)

Capital letter

b)

Lower-case letter

49.

If the 2 alleles of a trait are the same, the individual is ______.

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

50.

If the 2 alleles of a trait are different, the individual is ______.

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

51.

The physical appearance determined by a particular set of alleles is called the ______.

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

52.

In pea plants, tall is dominant over short. If a pea plant's genotype is Tt, what is it's phenotype?

a)

tall

b)

short

c)

medium

d)

tiny

53.

In pea plants purple flowers are dominant over white flowers. If a pea plant's genotype is PP, what is its phenotype?

a)

Purple flowers

b)

White flowers

c)

Striped flowers

d)

Clear flowers

54.

Complete this Punnet Square : Tt x tt (T=tall; t=short). What is the percentage of tall plant offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

55.

Complete this Punnet Square: RR x Rr (R=round seeds; r=wrinkled seeds). What is the percentage of wrinkled seed plant offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

56.

Complete this Punnet Square: BB x bb (B=brown eyes; b=blue eyes). What is the percentage of blue-eyed offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

57.

Which is not part of the cell theory?

a)

The cell is the basic unit of structure and function

b)

All living things are composed of cells

c)

all cells come from preexisting cells

d)

Cells spontaneously appeared

58.

To change over time is _____________.

a)

Evolution

b)

spontaneous generation

c)

aerobic

d)

anaerobic

59.

Who was known as the Father of Microbiology and Immunology?

a)

Francessco Redi

b)

Louis Pastuer

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Aristotle

60.

When something exists with oxygen, is called?

a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

c)

prokaryotic

d)

eukaryotic

61.

Who is known as "The Father of Evolution" and believed in the process of natural selection?

a)

James Mendel

b)

Aristotle

c)

Louis Pasteur

d)

Charles Darwin

62.

When something exists without oxygen, it's called?

a)

prokaryotic

b)

anaerobic

c)

aerobic

d)

eukaryotic

63.

Theory that explains the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells is called?

a)

Organic Evolution

b)

Cell Theory

c)

Endosymbiotic Theory

d)

Chemical Evolution

64.

Organism that does not make its own food and gets its food from an outside source, is called?

a)

autotrophic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

heterotrophic

d)

prokaryotic

65.

Organisms that make their own food are called?

a)

heterotrophic

b)

autotrophic

c)

prokaryotic

d)

eukaryotic

66.

What did Charles Darwin study on the Galapagos Islands?

a)

Deer and rabbits

b)

snails and ants

c)

tortoises and birds

d)

horses and chickens

67.

Refer to the picture. This is representing

a)

Directional selection

b)

Disruptive selection

c)

Stabilizing selection

d)

Artificial selection

68.

Refer to the picture. This is representing

a)

Directional selection

b)

Disruptive selection

c)

Stabilizing selection

d)

Artificial selection

69.

Refer to the picture. This is representing

a)

Directional selection

b)

Disruptive selection

c)

Stabilizing selection

d)

Artificial selection

70.

This is the combinations of all of the genes present in a given population.

a)

genome

b)

allele frequency

c)

microevolution

d)

gene pool

71.

Which of the following is NOT part of the founder effect

a)

Some members of the group migrate

b)

The new population can have a different allele frequency

c)

Both the original population and new population survive

d)

Can be caused by a natural disaster

72.

Having a small gene pool can lead to extinction

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Which of the following IS NOT part of the Bottleneck Effect?

a)

The new population can have a new allele frequency

b)

The new population size decreases

c)

Can be caused by a natural disaster

d)

The populations are geographically separated

74.

The random change to allele freqencies of a population is known as genetic drift.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Which of the following would PREVENT evolution from occurring?

a)

Large population

b)

Mutatons

c)

Non-random mating

d)

Immigration of new individuals

76.

allele frequency

a)

the number of a certain allele present in a population

b)

the act of leaving one's own territory to settle permanently in another

c)

the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis

d)

the action of coming to live permanently in a new territory

77.

gene pool

a)

the collective alleles of all members of a population

b)

the exchange of alleles between populations by immigration and emigration

c)

changes of allele frequencies in a gene pool due to random/chance events

d)

cell division which forms gametes

78.

gene flow

a)

the collective alleles of all members of a population

b)

the exchange of alleles between populations by immigration and emigration

c)

changes of allele frequencies in a gene pool due to random/chance events

d)

cell division which forms gametes

79.

mutation

a)

random and irreversible changes in the DNA of an organism

b)

the individuals in a population that are best suited to the environment and will leave more offspring than those which are not

c)

mating which is the result of certain individuals selecting a mate based on phenotype

d)

the differences in the genetic makeup of organisms within a gene pool

80.

natural selection

a)

random and irreversible changes in the DNA of an organism

b)

the individuals in a population that are best suited to the environment and will leave more offspring than those which are not

c)

mating which is the result of certain individuals selecting a mate based on phenotype

d)

the differences in the genetic makeup of organisms within a gene pool

81.

Which is not the assumption of Hardy-Weinberg law

a)

Large population

b)

No mutation

c)

No random mating

d)

No migration

82.

Look at the cladogram.

Which of the following characteristics is shared by the following animals: tiger, gorilla, and human?

a)

Hair

b)

No Tail

c)

Dry Skin

d)

Jaws

83.

The table shows the taxonomic classification of two marine organisms living along the Pacific Coast.

The two organisms differ only based on their ___________ and __________ using the Linnaean System.

(a)  

84.

The study of naming and classifying organisms


(a)  
Choose from the below words
Taxonomy
Classification
Dichotomous Key
Cladogram
85.

The father of taxonomy.

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Carl Linnaeus

d)

Watson and Crick

86.

The system of giving a species a unique name that has two parts (usually in Latin or Greek)


(a)  
Choose from the below words
Binomial nomenclature
Classification
Taxonomy
Dichotomous Key
87.

The process of grouping things based on their similarities.

a)

Classification

b)

Binomial nomenclature

c)

Taxonomy

d)

Cladogram

88.

A tool that provides the reader with two choices that describes the characteristics about items or living things.

a)

Histogram

b)

Cladogram

c)

Dichotomous Key

d)

Textbook

89.

Most inclusive taxon (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya)

a)

KIngdom

b)

Domain

c)

Eukaryote

d)

Dichotomous key

90.

(a)   is the second highest taxon including Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia.

91.

Kingdom of unicellular organisms that are prokaryotic like bacteria, but lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls

a)

Kingdom Archaea

b)

Kingdom Bacteria

c)

Kingdom Animalia

d)

Kingdom Protista

92.

Mainly single celled eukaryotic cells that are plant-like, fungus-like, or animal-like (Example: algae, and amoeba)

a)

Kingdom Bacteria

b)

Kingdom Plantae

c)

Kingdom Fungi

d)

Kingdom Protista

93.
The 3 categories of carbohydrates are:
a)
Monosaccharide, disaccharide, polysaccharide
b)
glucose, fructose, galatose
c)
starch, cellulose, chitin
d)
There are no categories of carbohydrates
94.
Which is not a chemical element needed to build sugars?
a)
Carbon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Hydrogen
95.
What is the function of a carbohydrate?
a)

Stores easily accessible (quick) energy

b)
Movement
c)
Stores genetic information
d)
Speeds up reactions
96.
What are two main functions of fats within the body?
a)
energy storage and cellular transport
b)
energy storage and insulation
c)
building blocks for DNA and hormones
d)
storing cellular information and in the cell membrane
97.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a)
cellulose
b)
glycogen
c)
wax
d)
lipids
98.
What is a protein: 
a)
A polymer composed of many sugars.
b)
A polymer composed of many amino acids. 
c)
A polymer composed of fatty acids. 
d)
A polymer composed of nucleotides. 
99.
_______ dictates the function of a protein
a)
Shape
b)
Temperature
c)
pH
d)
Time
100.
What is the monomer of proteins?
a)
amino acids
b)
polypeptides
c)
nucleotides
d)
monosaccharides
101.
If you change the shape of a protein, will it work the same/properly?
a)
Yes
b)
No
102.
What is the monomer of nucleic acids?
a)
Glycerol
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Nucleotides
103.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
Stores energy
b)
Stores genetic information
c)
Movement
d)
Physical structure
104.
DNA and RNA are examples of...
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
105.
What is the monomer of a lipid?
a)
Monosaccharide
b)
Nucleotide
c)
Glycerol+Fatty Acid
d)
Amino Acid
106.
What is the monomer of a carbohydrate?
a)
Monosaccharide
b)
Amino Acid
c)
Nucleotide
d)
Glycerol+Fatty Acid
107.

Order the biological levels from the most complex to the simplest.

a)

biomes

b)

ecosystem

c)

community

d)
population
e)

species

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
108.

Order the biological levels from the simplest to the most complex.

a)

body systems

b)

organs

c)

tissues

d)

cells

e)

organism

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
109.

Which of the following help convert nitrogen into usable forms? Check all that apply.

a)

blue-green algae/cyanobacteria

b)
c)
d)
e)

burning fossil fuels

110.

Which biomolecules contain nitrogen in their chemical structure?

a)

Protein

b)
c)
d)
111.

Phosphorus is needed to make the biomolecule called ​ (a)   ​ ​ the building blocks of life and ​ (b)   that make up our cells.

Choose from the below words
DNA, a nucleic acid
phospholipids
carbohydrates
protein
112.

Justin has learned that the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves work together. What do they combine to form?

a)

a cell

b)

organ

c)

tissue

d)

organ system

113.

Which sequence BEST describes the levels of organization from most complex to the simplest?

a)

Organism, Organ, Tissue, Cell

b)

Organism, Cell, Organ System, Organ

c)

Cell, Organ, Tissue, Organ System

d)

Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System

114.

Which of the following examples is correctly matched with its level of organization?

a)

A monarch butterfly is an organ system.

b)

The brain is a type of tissue

c)

A liver is a type of cell.

d)

The skin is an organ.

115.

There are many criteria that are used to define living things. Living things reproduce, grow, and develop. They respond to stimuli, use materials and energy, and evolve and adapt over time to their environment. What is another criteria used to define living things?

a)

All living things are complex.

b)

All living things are able to move.

c)

All living things are made of cells.

d)

All living things are intelligent.

116.

Atom → molecule → organelle → cell→ tissue → organ

→ system → organism→ population → community→ ecosystem → biosphere.

a)

Taxonomic System

b)

Classification system

c)

Levels of Organization

d)

Periodic Table

117.

The basic unit of structure and function for the body.

a)

cell

b)

organelle

c)

atom

d)

molecule

118.

. A science class is planning a field trip to a local farm that has a large pond. Which of the following lists the order of biological organization from smallest to largest that the students can expect to find at the pond?

a)

Organism, community, population, ecosystem

b)

Organism, population, community, ecosystem

c)

Population, organism, community, ecosystem

d)

Population, organism, ecosystem, community

119.

The human body is composed of organ systems. Which list represents a systems from the least to most complex?

a)

Heart --> cardiac muscle --> muscle tissue --> muscle cell

b)

Muscle cell --> muscle tissue --> biceps muscle --> muscular system

c)

Lung tissue --> trachea --> nostrils --> circulatory system

d)

Integumentary system --> skin cell --> hair --> sweat glands

120.

Match the following

a)
1.

Primary succession

b)
2.

pioneer species

c)
3.

abiotic factor

d)
4.

secondary sucession

e)
5.

climax community

121.

___ are the first organisms to colonize an area and begin the process of ecological succession.

a)

foundational organisms

b)

introductory organisms

c)

primary organisms

d)

pioneer species

122.

What is the main difference between primary and secondary ecological succession?

a)

Primary begins WITHOUT soil; Secondary begins WITH soil

b)

Primary is the first state and secondary is the second stage

c)

Primary builds plant community; secondary builds animal community.

d)

Primary begins WITH soil; Secondary begins WITHOUT soil

123.
What is ecological succession?
a)
A slow change in an environment
b)
A change that takes days in an environment
c)
No change
d)
Abiotic change
124.
What are examples of pioneer species in a primary succession?
a)
Bushes and Shrubs
b)
Oak trees
c)
Mossess and Lichens 
d)
A rose Bush
125.

After a volcanic eruption, volcanic rock is present (but no soil). Which of the following states the most likely order of succession that would be seen?

a)

Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees

b)

Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses

c)

Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees

d)

Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees

126.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
127.

An ecological symbiotic relationship between two organisms where one benefits and the other is harmed…

a)

parasitism

b)

herbivore

c)

mutualism

d)

carnivore

e)

commensalism

128.

This is the job or role of a specific organism within its habitat...

a)

producer

b)

prey

c)

carnivore

d)

niche

e)

photosynthesis

129.

What you would call an ecological symbiotic relationship between two organisms where one benefits, but the other is not helped or harmed?

a)

mutualsim

b)

predator

c)

commensalism

d)

parasitism

e)

herbivory

130.

The name of the process that producers use to make their own food…

a)

respiration

b)

commensalism

c)

food chains

d)

photosynthesis

e)

symbiosis

131.

The pearlfish receives protection from predators by living inside a sea cucumber. The sea cucumber is not affected during this interaction. This ecological relationship is known as -

a)

predator-prey because the pearlfish is prey to the sea cucumber

b)

mutualism because only the pearlfish benefits in this ecological relationship

c)

parasitism because the pearlfish causes harm to the host sea cucumber

d)

commensalism because only the pearlfish benefits while the sea cucumber is not affected

e)

competition because the sea cucumber and pearlfish often fight for living space

132.

The food webs model relationships among the organisms in two ecosystems.

Which ecosystem would be more likely to survive if a disease killed the grasses?

a)

The forest ecosystem, because most of the animals can eat other organisms.

b)

The grassland ecosystem, because several predators compete for food.

c)

The forest ecosystem, because it has three top predators.

d)

The grassland ecosystem, because it has many herbivores.

133.
In this energy pyramid, what is the proper name for ANY ORGANISM ABOVE THE PRODUCER LEVEL?
a)
decomposers
b)
consumers
c)
producers
d)
omnivores
134.
Which organism in figure 1 contains the most available energy?
a)
plants
b)
mountain lions
c)
hawks
d)
none of the above
135.
A pond ecosystem is shown in the diagram below. Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
a)
The frogs make energy available to this ecosystem through the process of photosynthesis.
b)
The algae directly provide food for both the rotifers and the catfish.
c)
The green-backed heron provides energy for the mosquito larvae.
d)
The catfish population helps control the populations of water boatman and waterfleas.
136.
The diagram represents a food chain. The arrows in the diagram indicate the  
a)

return of chemical substances to the
environment
b)
order of importance of the various organisms.  
c)
direction of energy flow through a series of organisms
d)
direction in which organisms move in the environment. 
137.
The mouse in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Primary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Tertiary Consumer
d)
Secondary Consumer
138.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
139.
In an ecological pyramid, which type of organism always has the least amount of energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Top Predator
140.

This type of organism eats dead stuff (animals and plants).

*THEY DO NOT GIVE BACK TO THE SOIL.*

a)

Decomposer

b)

Detritivore

141.

The living and non-living factors of a community.

a)

endovironment

b)

exovironment

c)

exosystem

d)

ecosystem

142.

When an animal is killed for the benefit of another. (+, death)

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

d)

predation

143.

The percentage of energy carried up each trophic level.

a)

90%

b)

10%

144.

The 'top dogs' of some food webs/chains. The organism that eats the secondary consumer.

a)

quarternary

b)

secondary

c)

primary

d)

tertiary consumer

145.

The diagram used to show energy flow in an ecosystem.

a)

energy square

b)

energy circle

c)

energy pyramid

d)

energy rectangle