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Tougaloo Cell Bio Final

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 2hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What could be defined as an organized network of extracellular materials found beyond the immediate vicinity of the plasma membrane?

a)

intracellular matrix

b)

extracellular matrix

c)

extracellular netrax

d)

intercellular material

2.

What substance joins proteoglycans together into gigantic complexes called proteoglycan aggregates? These complexes can occupy very large volumes.

a)

hyaluronidase

b)

hyaluronic acid

c)

proteoglycase

d)

fibronectin

e)

laminin

3.

What integral membrane protein family made of two membrane-spanning chains a and B is involved in attaching cells to their extracellular microenvironment?

a)

laminins

b)

fibronectins

c)

integrins

d)

myosins

e)

cadherins

4.

To what is the cytoplasmic domain of integrins in the region of a focal adhesion connected via various adaptors?

a)

Tubulins of the cytoskeleton

b)

actinin of the cytoskeleton

c)

actin of the cytoskeleton

d)

dynein of the cytoskeleton

5.

The tightest attachment between a cell and its extracellular matrix is seen at the site where an epithelial cell is attached to the underlying basement membrane. The specialized adhesive structure found at such a site is called a(n) _______.

a)

tight junction

b)

desmosome

c)

plasmodesma

d)

hemidesmosome

6.

Filaments connected to the dense plaque underlying the membrane in a hemidesmosome course outward into the cytoplasm. These filaments are composed of the protein _____ and are best known as ____.

a)

actin, microfilaments

b)

keratin, microfilaments

c)

actin, intermediate filaments

d)

keratin, intermediate filaments

e)

tubulin, intermediate filaments

7.

Focal adhesions _______.

a)

may act as a type of sensory structure

b)

collect information about the physical properties of the extracellular environment

c)

collect information about the chemical properties of the extracellular environment

d)

transmit information to the cell interior that may lead to changes in cell adhesion, proliferation or survival

e)

All of these are correct.

8.

_____ are members of an integral membrane glycoprotein family that bind to specific sugar arrangements in oligosaccharides that project from the surfaces of other cells.

a)

Selectins

b)

Integrins

c)

Immunoglobulin super family proteins

d)

Cadherins

e)

Calmodulins

9.

What is the function of most IgSFs?

a)

cell adhesion

b)

cell division

c)

mediating specific interactions of epithelial cells with cells needed for immune response

d)

mediating specific interactions of lymphocytes with cells needed for the immune response

e)

cell fusion

10.

You genetically engineer nonadhesive cells to express one variety of cadherins and then mix the cells in various combinations. You then monitor their interactions. What do you observe?

a)

The genetically engineered cells adhered preferentially to cells expressing one of the other cadherins

b)

The genetically engineered cells adhered preferentially to cells expressing the same cadherins

c)

The genetically engineered cells did not stick to any other cells.

d)

The genetically engineered cells died.

e)

The genetically engineered cells migrated to a different location.

11.

What determines the strength of adhesion between opposing cells held together by cadherins?

a)

the length of the cadherins connecting to the cells

b)

the width of the cadherins connecting to the cells

c)

the amount of tryptophan in the cadherins connecting the cells

d)

the number of cadherins in a cluster connecting the cells

e)

the number of tyrosine residues in the cadherins connecting the cells

12.

The activation of a membrane integrin by the binding of its cytoplasmic portion to molecules in the cytoplasm and the resultant increase in its affinity for an extracellular ligand is called _____.

a)

inside-out signaling

b)

outside-in signaling

c)

right-side-out signaling

d)

simple signaling

13.

When tight junctions , adherens junctions and desmosomes are arranged in a specific array, the assortment of surface specializations is called a(n) ______.

a)

junctional array

b)

synaptonemal complex

c)

belt complex

d)

junctional complex

14.

What type of cell adhesion molecule is associated with cells being held together by adherens junctions at the site of the junction?

a)

adherins

b)

selectins

c)

IgSFs

d)

integrins

e)

cadherins

15.

Cadherin clusters of adherens junctions _____. (select all correct answers)

a)

connect the external environment to the actin cytoskeleton

b)

connect cell to the extracellular matrix

c)

provide a pathway for signals to be transmitted from the cell exterior to the cytoplasm

d)

connect the external environment to the vimentin cytoskeleton

16.

Desmosomes are particularly numerous in tissues ______.

a)

that are subjected to mechanical stress

b)

like cardiac muscle

c)

like the epithelial layers of the skin

d)

like the epithelial layers of the uterine cervix

e)

all of these are correct

17.

What forms the barrier of the tight junctions that seals off the space between adjacent cells?

a)

paired rows of aligned integral membrane proteins

b)

paired rows of aligned phospholipids

c)

paired rows of carbohydrates

d)

paired rows of polynucleotides

e)

interdigitating integral membrane proteins

18.

What kind of molecule does not pass through gap junction

a)

ions

b)

cAMP

c)

inositol phosphates

d)

ribosomes

e)

cGMP

19.

Which of the following is a function associated with the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in at least some cells?

a)

synthesis of steroid hormones

b)

detoxification of many organic compounds, like barbiturates and ethanol

c)

release of glucose into the bloodstream

d)

sequestration of calcium Ca2+ ions within the cisternal space

e)

all of these are correct

20.

What is the arrangement of organelles in a secretory cell from the basal end to the apical end, an arrangement that reflects the flow of secretory products from synthesis to discharge?

a)

nucleus and RER - Golgi complex - secretory vesicles

b)

Golgi complex - nucleus and RER - secretory vesicles

c)

nucleus and RER - secretory vesicles - Golgi complex

d)

Golgi complex - secretory vesicles - nucleus and RER

e)

secretory vesicles - nucleus and RER - Golgi complex

21.

What are the 2 sites within a cell at which protein synthesis is generally thought to occur?

a)

cytosolic surface of RER and cisternal surface of RER

b)

cytosolic of RER and free ribosomes

c)

cisternal surface of RER and free ribosomes

d)

free ribosomes and cytosolic surface of SER

e)

cytosolic surface of RER and cytosolic surface of SER

22.

What are the differences between ribosomes that make secretory proteins and those that make proteins intended for the cytosol

a)

the ribosomes that make secretory proteins are smaller

b)

the ribosomes that make cytosolic proteins are larger

c)

there are no differences between them

d)

the ribosomes that make secretory proteins are denser

e)

the ribosomes that secretory proteins have extra subunits

23.

What effect does the binding of the SRP to the growing polypeptide chain and the ribosome have on the protein synthesis?

a)

protein synthesis accelerates

b)

protein synthesis ceases temporarily

c)

protein synthesis ceases permanently

d)

proteins synthesis is terminated

e)

the ribosome dissociates

24.

Why is the ER so well-suited and ideally constructed for its role as a port of entry for secretory proteins?

a)

It has a large surface area allowing the attachment of many ribosomes

b)

The ER cisternae lumen favors unfolding and disassembly of proteins

c)

The RER can segregate secretory, lysosomal and cytoplasmic proteins from other newly made proteins, allowing their modification, and sends them to their final destination

d)

The ER cisternae lumen favors folding and assembly of proteins

25.

How are integral membrane proteins thought to enter the lipid bilayer?

a)

They insert into the membrane from the RER lumen after their synthesis is complete.

b)

The aqueous translocon channel seems to have a gate that continuously opens and closes, giving each nascent polypeptide segment a chance to partition itself into the lipid bilayer's hydrophobic care

c)

They insert into the membrane from the cytosol after their synthesis is complete.

d)

It is thought that they burrow into the lipid bilayer

e)

It is thought that they are enzymatically implanted in the lipid bilayer

26.

How and where is the asymmetry of the phospholipid bilayers initially established?

a)

It is initially established in the Golgi complex during the lipid and protein modification

b)

It is initially established in the ER during lipid and protein synthesis

c)

It is initially established in the secretory vesicles during lipid and protein modification

d)

It is initially established in the mitochondria by random insertion into the membranes

27.

Which of the proteins below is (are) not made on the membrane-bound ribosomes of the RER?

a)

Peripheral proteins of the inner surface of the plasma membrane

b)

soluble lysosomal proteins

c)

vacuolar enzymes

d)

proteins of the extracellular matrix

e)

all of these are correct

28.

Which part of the Golgi complex is thought to function primarily as a sorting station that distinguishes between proteins to be shipped back to the ER and those that are allowed to proceed to the next Golgi station?

a)

the cis cisternae

b)

the cis Golgi Network

c)

the medial cisternae

d)

the trans cisternae

e)

the trans-Golgi network

29.

What kind(s) of modifications are made in proteins as they move through the Golgi complex?

a)

The protein's carbohydrates are modified by a series of stepwise enzymatic reactions

b)

Amino acids can be added to either end of the polypeptide chain

c)

Amino acids in the proteins may be chemically altered into nucleic acids

d)

Small segments of amino acids can be added into the center of an existing protein

e)

All of these are correct

30.

How do protein coats select the cargo molecules to be carried by the vesicles they help to form?

a)

They electromagnetically attract the correct cargo proteins

b)

the protein coats have a specific affinity for the cytosolic tails of integral membrane proteins that reside in the donor membrane

c)

The coats have a specific affinity for the luminal tails of integral membrane proteins that reside in the donor membrane

d)

The coat proteins directly attach to the cargo proteins in the lumen of the forming vesicle

e)

The coat proteins attach to the extracellular matrix

31.

The coat of vesicles that transport materials around the cell interior______

a)

is composed of two distinct protein layers

b)

possesses an outer cage or scaffolding that forms the framework for the coat

c)

possesses adaptors that are able to select specific cargo molecules

d)

possesses an inner layer of adaptors that serves primarily to bind the vesicle's cargo

e)

all of these are correct

32.

Which coated vesicles move materials in the retrograde direction from the ERGIC and Golgi stack backwards towards to ER?

a)

COPII-coated vesicles

b)

COPI-coated vesicles

c)

clathrin-coated vesicles

d)

cadmium-coated vesicles

e)

both COPII-coated vesicles and COPI-coated vesicles

33.

What mediates the interaction between integral membrane proteins to be transported in COPII-coated vesicles and the COPII-coat?

a)

ER export signals in the luminal tails of integral ER membrane proteins

b)

ER export signals in the cytosolic tails of integral ER membrane proteins

c)

ER export signals in the ER phospholipids that interact with the membrane proteins

d)

ER export signals in carbohydrates on the cytosolic tails of integral ER membrane proteins

e)

ER export signals in carbohydrates on the luminal tails of integral ER membrane proteins

34.

Where in the Golgi complex does most protein sorting out to be sent to the destination occur?

a)

the medial cisternae

b)

the Trans Golgi network

c)

the Cis Golgi Network

d)

the cis cisternae

e)

the trans cisternae

35.

Lysosomal enzymes are transported from the Trans Golgi network in vesicles coated with what protein?

a)

clathrin

b)

lysozyme

c)

dyamin

d)

COPI

e)

COPII

36.

What is thought to direct the movement of vesicles through the cytoplasm to their final destination?

a)

microfilaments

b)

microtubules

c)

intermediate filaments

d)

collagen

e)

keratin

37.

Which if the following enzymes are typically found in lysosomes?

a)

hydrolytic enzymes (acid hydrolases)

b)

oxidoreductase

c)

transderases

d)

lyases

e)

ligases

38.

What is thought to sheild lysosomal membranes against attack by their enclosed enzymes?

a)

DNA

b)

basic RNA

c)

carbohydrate chains attached to integral membrane proteins

d)

carbohydrate chains attached to peripheral membrane proteins

e)

the lipid bilayer itself

39.

Which of the following are proposed functions of autophagy?

a)

it plays a role in organelle turnover

b)

it is used to cannibalize organelles when a cell is deprived of nutrients

c)

it protects organisms against intracellular threats like abnormal protein aggregates and invading bacteria

d)

it plays a role in the regulated destruction of the cell's own organelles and their replacement

e)

all of these are correct

40.

The two separate (basic) categories of uptake of extracellular materials into cytoplasmic vesicles are _____ and _____.

a)

phagocytosis, exocytosis

b)

pinocytosis, exocytosis

c)

phagocytosis, endocytosis

d)

pinocytosis, endocytosis

e)

exocytosis, endocytosis

41.

What types of molecules below can a cell internalize by receptor-mediated endocytosis?

a)

hormones and growth factors

b)

enzymes

c)

bloode-borne proteins carrying certain nutrients

d)

hormones and growth factors and enzymes

e)

all of these are correct

42.

Which of the following is a function performed by cytoskeleton?

a)

provides structural support that determines cell shape and resists deforming forces

b)

positions various organelles within the cell interior

c)

provides a network of tracks over which materials like mRNA and organelles move within cells

d)

serves as a force-generating apparatus that moves cells from one place to another

e)

all of these choices

43.

Given that axons growing out of a neuron require the growth outward of microtubules to support the lengthening axon, what would be likely to happen to axons growing out from a neuron when they are exposed to colchicine, which functions in preventing microtubules assemble?

a)

Axons would grow more rapidly

b)

Axonal outgrowth would cease

c)

Axons would branch more often

d)

axonal outgrowth would change direction more frequently

e)

There would be no change in axonal outgrowth

44.

In what form are proteins and neurotransmitters usually transported down the axon of a nerve cell?

a)

individually by diffusion

b)

in groups of ten

c)

inside transport vesicles

d)

inside the Golgi complex

e)

tied individually to microtubules

45.

Which of the following molecular motors is associated with microfilaments?

a)

kinesins

b)

dyneins

c)

myosins

d)

kinesins and dyneins

e)

kinesins and myosins

46.

Which of the following molecular motors is known to travel in retrograde direction along microtubules (from plus end to the minus end)?

a)

kinesins

b)

dyneins

c)

myosins

d)

kinesins and myosins

e)

kinesins and dyneins

47.

What is the direct source of energy that powers molecular motors?

a)

hydrolysis of GTP

b)

hydrolysis of ATP

c)

a proton gradient

d)

a H+ gradient

e)

condensation of ATP

48.

What part of the molecular motor kinesin is responsible for binding to the cargo to be hauled?

a)

the motor domain

b)

the neck

c)

the rod-like stalk

d)

the fan-shaped tail

e)

the motor domain and the neck

49.

The current model for the nucleation of microtubules is that a helical array of y-tubulin subunits forms an open, lock-washer-like ring-shaped template upon which the first row of aB-tubulin dimers assembles. How does this model account for the polarity of mictrotubules?

a)

Only the a-tubulin of a heterodimer can bind to the ring of y-subunits

b)

Only B-tubulin of a heterodimer can bind to the ring of y-subunits

c)

The ring structure straightens out the microtubule

d)

The ring structure interacts with a homodimer instead of a heterodimer

e)

Only the a-tubulin of a heterodimer can bind to the ring of y-subunits and the ring structure straightens out the microtubule

50.

The building blocks of a nucleotide are _____.

a)

a pentose sugar and a phosphate group

b)

a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base

c)

a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base

d)

a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base

e)

a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and an amino acid

51.

With which of the following structures are intermediate filaments associated?

a)

the nuclear envelope in the center of the cell

b)

hemidesmosomes

c)

desmosomes

d)

the neurofilaments of neuron axons

e)

all of these choices are correct

52.

The backbone of a DNA molecule is ____.

a)

made up of sugars alone

b)

made up of nitrogenous bases alone

c)

made up of phosphate groups alone

d)

made up of alternating phosphate and sugar groups

e)

made up of alternating sugars and nitrogenous bases

53.

____ refers to the fact that the sequence of one DNA strand specifies the sequence of the other strand in the double helix

a)

interdirectionality

b)

complexity

c)

complementarity

d)

similarity

e)

compulsivity

54.

The information encoded in DNA resides in ____.

a)

phosphates in the backbone

b)

sugars in the backbone

c)

the DNA base sequence

d)

the sugars and phosphate groups together

e)

the phosphodiester linkages

55.

Which type of DNA sequence is typified by short sequences of DNA (five to a a few hundred base pairs in length) repeated a large number of times in tandem to form very large clusters, each containing up to several million base pairs of DNA?

a)

satellite DNAs

b)

minisatellite DNAs

c)

microsatellite DNAs

d)

consensus sequences

e)

microminisatellite DNAs

56.

DNA sequences in bacteria that on rare occasions moved from one place in the genome to another are called

a)

movers

b)

jumpons

c)

transposons

d)

transpodons

e)

jumposons

57.

Histone is an abundant protein inside the eukaryotic cells. The gene encodes for histone belongs to ___________ in the genome.

a)

single copy non repetitive DNA sequence

b)

highly repeated DNA sequence

c)

moderately repeated DNA sequence

d)

No answer text provided

58.

Retrotransposon is a type of jumping element in the eukaryotic cells. It can cause the genome instability by ________ mechanism.

a)

cut-and-paste

b)

copy-and-paste

c)

copy-and-cut

d)

no answer text provided

59.

The enzyme in eukaryotes that is responsible for the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template is called _____.

a)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

b)

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

c)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

d)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

60.

The site on DNA to which RNA polymerases bind before initiating transcription is called the ______.

a)

terminator

b)

operator

c)

promoter

d)

silencer

61.

Which of the following is not a normal property of eukaryotic mRNAs?

a)

They contain a continuous nucleotide sequence encoding a specific polypeptide

b)

They are found in the cytoplasm and inside the Golgi complex

c)

They are attached to the ribosomes when they are translated

d)

Most have significant noncoding segment that does not direct assembly of amino acids

e)

Eukaryotic mRNAs have special modifications at their 5' and 3' termini

62.

The macromolecular complex that associates with each intron and splices it is called a(n) _____.

a)

splicer

b)

acrosome

c)

spliceosome

d)

splicing body

e)

splice engine

63.

Which of the phenomena below is responsible for the ability of one gene to code for more than one polypeptide?

a)

transcription

b)

alternative splicing

c)

transposition

d)

hybridization

e)

exon shuffling

64.

A tRNA has an anticodon with the sequence 5'-CAU-3'. What would be the sequence of the complementary codon? For the moment do not consider the wobble hypothesis.

a)

3'-UAC-5'

b)

'3-AUG-5'

c)

5'-AUG- 3'

d)

5'-AUC-3'

e)

5'-ATG-3'

65.

The greatest similarities among codons that specify the same amino acid occur _______.

a)

in the first two nucleotides of the triplet

b)

in the last two nucleotides of the triplet

c)

in the first and third nucleotides of the triplet

d)

in the third nucleotide of the triplet

e)

in the middle nucleotide of the triplet

66.

What enzyme is responsible for covalently linking amino acids to the 3'- end of the cognate tRNA?

a)

peptidyltransferase

b)

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

c)

glutamine synthetase

d)

RNA polymerase

e)

ATP synthase

67.

Which of the following is not required for protein synthesis?

a)

All of the various tRNAs with their attached amino acids

b)

ribosomes

c)

mRNA

d)

transcription factors

68.

What are the three distinct activites of protein synthesis in the correct order?

a)

initiation, elongation, termination

b)

termination, initiation, elongation

c)

initiation, termination, elongation

d)

elongation, initiation, termination

e)

elongation, termination, initiation

69.

The initiator tRNA enters the 60S ribosomal subunit at the ____ during eukaryotic protein synthesis

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

d)

Q site

e)

60S attachment point

70.

the specific site on the bacterial chromosome at which replication begins is called the _____.

a)

beginnging

b)

origin

c)

initiation site

d)

initiator

e)

replicon

71.

Replication moves outward from the origin in _____ direction(s) and is said to be _____.

a)

both, unidirectional

b)

both, bidirectional

c)

one, bidirectional

d)

unique, unidirectional

e)

one, unidirectional

72.

Why is an intact, linear double helix an effective template for DNA polymerase?

a)

It has a 3'-hydroxyl group, but lacks a template

b)

It lacks a 3'-hydroxyl group, but has a template

c)

It lacks a 3'-hydroxyl group and a template

d)

it has a 3'-hydroxyl group and has a template

e)

It lacks a 5'-hydroxyl group and has a template

73.

Why is a single-stranded, circular DNA an ineffective template for DNA polymerase?

a)

It has a 3'-hydroxyl group, but lacks a template.

b)

It lacks a 3'-hydroxly group, but has a template.

c)

It lacks a 3'-hydroxly group and a template.

d)

It has a 3'-hydroxly group and has a template.

e)

It lacks a 5'-hydroxly group and has a template.

74.

All DNA polymerases lay down nucleotides in a _____ direction and move along the template in a _____ direction.

a)

3'-->5' , 5'-->3'

b)

N-->C. C-->N

c)

5'-->3' , 3'-->5'

d)

C-->N, N-->C

e)

N-->C, 5'-->3'

75.

During replication, DNA is constructed in small segments called____ that are rapidly linked to longer pieces of DNZ synthesized earlier.

a)

Watson fragments

b)

Tokyo fragments

c)

Osaka fragments

d)

Okazaki fragments

e)

Ouabain fragments

76.

The enzyme that joins the small fragments of the lagging strand together into a continuous strand is called____.

a)

DNA gyrase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

primase

e)

deoxyribonuclease

77.

Strand initiation during replication is carried out by an enzyme that makes a short RNA molecule that is used as a primer; the enzyme is a distinct type of RNA polymerase, called_____.

a)

RNA gyrase

b)

RNA ligase

c)

ribonuclease

d)

primase

e)

deoxyribonuclease

78.

Which of the following may be a further advantage of using RNA primers during initiation of a strand in replication?

a)

Using primers may decrease mistakes; such errors as mismatched bases are more likely during initiation than elongation, and the use of a short, removable RNA segment avoids inclusion of mismatched bases.

b)

Using primers is faster.

c)

The RNA of the primers is more stable.

d)

The RNA of the primers is more likely to lead to changes in base sequence, which enhances the rate of mutation and thus evolution.

e)

The RNA of the primers allows more efficient packing of the chromosomes after its removal.

79.

What proteins bind selectively to single-stranded DNA and are responsible for keeping it extended and preventing it from being rewound?

a)

DNA helicase

b)

DNA gyrase

c)

single-stranded DNA binding (SSB) proteins

d)

ATPase

e)

DNA unwindase

80.

What is the name of the noncatalytic component of the DNA polymerase III holoenzyme that keeps the polymerase associated with the DNA template?

a)

B-pleated sheet

b)

a-helix

c)

a-clamp

d)

B-clamp

e)

y-clamp

81.

What is the function of the 5'--->3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I ?

a)

It removes mismatched nucleotides that have been incorporated by mistake.

b)

It replaces mismatched nucleotides with the correctly matched nucleotides.

c)

It removes the DNA primer laid down by the primase at the 5' end of the Okazaki fragment.

d)

It removes the RNA primer laid down by the primase at the 5' end of the Okazaki fragment.

e)

It nicks DNA to create a primer in the middle of a DNA chain.

82.

Which type of DNA repair removes via a cut-and-patch mechanism a variety of bulky lesions, like pyrimidine dimers and nucleotides to which various chemical groups have been attached?

a)

nucleotide excision repair

b)

base excision repair

c)

mismatch repair

d)

double-strand breakage repair

e)

All of these are correct.

83.

What is the advantage of transcription-coupled repair?

a)

It allows the cell to do two things at once.

b)

It ensures that the genes of least importance to the cell receive the highest priority on the repair list.

c)

It ensures that the genes of greatest importance to the cell receive the highest priority on the repair list.

d)

It is repairs noncoding sequences preferentially.

e)

It is the most accurate method of repair.

84.

What must the mismatch repair system be able to distinguish in order to tell which nucleotide of a mismatched pair to replace?

a)

It must be able to distinguish the newly-made strand from the parental strand.

b)

It must be able to distinguish which chain possesses the newest phosphate groups.

c)

It must be able distinguish which chain contains the ribose sugars.

d)

It must be able to distinguish which chain contains the oldest phosphate groups.

85.

A double-stranded breakage repair pathway that requires the presence of a second chromosome carrying the same sequence of genes as the damaged chromosomes is called____.

a)

nonhomologous end joining repair

b)

homologous recombination

c)

NHEJ

d)

DNA methylation repair

e)

nonhomologous recombination

86.

Which of the following statements accurately characterize cells?

a)

Cells are highly complex and organized.

b)

Cells possess a genetic program and the means to use it.

c)

Cells are capable of producing more of themselves.

d)

Cells acquire and utilize energy.

e)

All choices are correct.

87.

You are conducting an experiment by trying to reproduce the work performed in 1891 by Hans Driesch, a German embryologist. Working with a fertilized sea urchin egg, you allow it to complete the first cell division after fertilization. You then carefully separate the two cells of the embryo and allow their development to continue. Based on Driesch's experiment, which results below would you expect to happen?

a)

Both of the cells will die.

b)

Both of the cells will develop into complete and normal embryos.

c)

One cell will develop into a normal, though smaller, embryo; the other dies.

d)

One cell will develop into half an embryo; the other will develop into the other half of the embryo.

e)

One cell will develop into a defective embryo and the other will die.

88.

The genectic material of a prokaryotic cell is present in the ____, a poorly defined region of the cell that lacks a boundary membrane to separate it from the surrounding cytoplasm.

a)

nucleus

b)

chromatic region

c)

nucleoid

d)

mitochondria

89.

Some bacteria can pass a piece of DNA from a donor bacterial cell to a recipient bacterial cell through a structure called a pilus. What is this process called?

a)

transmission

b)

transduction

c)

transformation

d)

conjugation

e)

fission

90.

The process by which a relatively unspecialized cell becomes highly specialized is called______.

a)

differentiation

b)

determination

c)

degeneracy

d)

denaturation

e)

renaturation

91.

Which of the following is NOT a feature shared by all cells?

a)

plasma membrane with similar chemical construction

b)

genetic information encoded in DNA nucleotides

c)

shared metabolic pathways

d)

division of cells into nucleus and cytoplasm

e)

similar energy storing chemicals such as ATP

92.

Which organelle is found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

ribosome

e)

Golgi apparatus

93.

Which of these cell types does NOT possess membrane-bound organelles?

a)

human cells

b)

cat cells

c)

E. coli

d)

yeast cells

e)

plants cells

94.

Which of the following statements about viruses is NOT true?

a)

All viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites

b)

All viruses are obligatory intercellular parasites

c)

Viruses occur in a wide variety of very different shapes, sizes, and constructions

d)

A viral host may be a plant, animal, or bacterial cell

e)

viral genetic material can be either RNA or DNA

95.

Which of the following is NOT typically a behavior exhibited by a cell with a proviral infection?

a)

immediate production of new viruses and subsequent lysis of the host cell

b)

Normal behavior until exposure to a stimulus, live UV radiation, that activates dormant viral DNA, leading to lysis of the host cell and release of viral progeny

c)

Production of new viral progeny that bud at the cell surface without lysing the infected cell

d)

loss of control in animal cells over their growth and division followed by malignancy

96.

Which of the folowing is a tenet of the Cell theory? (select all correct choices)

a)

All organisms are composed of one or more cells

b)

The cell is the structural unit of life

c)

Cells can arise only by division from a preexisting cell

d)

Cells divide only by fission

97.

What factor of factors discovered with electron microscopy distinguished prokaryotic from eukaryotic cells? (Select all correct choices)

a)

their size

b)

their shape

c)

the types of their internal structures or organelles

d)

their plasma membrane structure

98.

Which of the following description of adult stem cells is wrong __________.

a)

They are undifferentiated cells

b)

They are capable of self-renewal

c)

They are capable of giving rise to other kinds of cells

d)

They can differentiate into every type of cell in the body

e)

They can be used for the cell replacement therapy

99.

Which of the following is NOT a function of membranes?

a)

transporting solutes

b)

providing a scaffold for biochemical activities

c)

energy transduction

d)

protein degradation

e)

signal transduction

100.

Gorder and Grendel extracted lipids from human red blood cells. They calculated the total surface area for these red blood cell lipids and found it to be 36 µm2. How much surface area would these lipids cover once they were spread across the surface of water?

a)

72 µm2

b)

36 µm2

c)

18 µm2

d)

144 µm2

e)

30 µm2

101.

What kind of membrane protein is found entirely outside the bilayer on either the extracellular or cytoplasmic surface and is covalently linked to a membrane lipid situated within the bilayer?

a)

integral proteins

b)

lipid-anchored protein

c)

peripheral proteins

d)

carbohydrate-anchored protein

e)

transmembrane

102.

What characterizes the amino acids that are found in a-helical segment that spans a membrane?

a)

exclusively circular

b)

predominantly hydrophilic

c)

predominantly hydrophobic

d)

predominantly antiparallel

e)

totally parallel

103.

Which of the following is an observed function of integral membrane proteins?

a)

mechanical support for membrane

b)

enzyme activity

c)

receptor activity

d)

factors that transmit transmembrane signals

104.

While culturing some cells, you lower the temperature of the culture. WHat happens immediately to the membrane fluidity?

a)

Nothing happens

b)

The membrane becomes less fluid

c)

The membrane becomes more fluid

d)

The membrane fluidity fluctuates back and forth from high to low

e)

The membrane fluidity fluctuates back and forth from low to high

105.

Which of the following cell processes depend on the movement of membrane components and would probably not be possible if membranes were rigid, nonfluid structures?

a)

cell movement

b)

cell division

c)

formation of intercellular junctions

d)

endocytosis

e)

all of these are correct

106.

Which substance will cross a plasma membrane least effectively?

a)

Molecule AA with an octanol-water partition coefficient of 5

b)

Molecule AB with an octanol-water partition coefficient of 0.5

c)

Molecule AC with an octanal-water partition coefficient of 50

d)

Molecule AD with an octanol-water partition coefficient of 0.05

107.

A channel that opens in response to the binding of a specific molecule, which is usually not the solute that passes through the channel is called a _______.

a)

voltage-gated channel

b)

charge-gated channel

c)

ligand-gated channel

d)

positive-gated channel

e)

electric-gated channel

108.

An important aspect of transport by facilitated transporters and pumps is ________.

a)

conformation change

b)

rigidity

c)

softness

d)

a-helix secondary structure

109.

The sodium-potassium pump makes the cell interior more _______ by pumping _______ sodium ions out of the cell for every ________ potassium ions pumped in

a)

negative, 3, 2

b)

negative, 2, 3

c)

positive,3,2

d)

positive, 2, 3

110.

What is the distinguishing characteristic of a P-type pump?

a)

It must be pumped during the cycle

b)

It must be phosphorylated during the cycle

c)

It must be protonated during the cycle

d)

It must be methylated during the cycle

111.

In the Na+/glucose cotransporter, ________ moving down its gradient drive the transport of ________ against it gradient.

a)

Na+ ions, K+ ions

b)

Na+ ions, glucose

c)

glucose, Na+ ions

d)

glucose, K+ ions

e)

K+ ions, glucose

112.

What factor(s) directly or indirectly determine the transition temperature? (Select all correct choices)

a)

the ability of lipid molecules to be packed together

b)

whether the fatty acid chains of the lipids are saturated or unsaturated

c)

the extent to which the fatty acid chains of the lipids contain double bonds

d)

the length of the fatty acid chains

113.

In what way can a given solute get through a membrane? (Select all correct choices)

a)

The solute can pass through the bilayer

b)

The solute can pass through cholesterol

c)

The solute can pass through an aqueous channel

d)

The solute can pass through a pore

114.

What advantage do the cristae confer on the mitochondria?

a)

They allow the mitochondria to shrink

b)

They greatly increase the surface area for aerobic respiration machinery

c)

They confer resiliency on the cells

d)

They allow swelling of mitochondria

e)

They activate the matrix

115.

Mitochondria are site of the ________. (Select all correct choices)

a)

synthesis of certain amino acids

b)

synthesis of heme groups

c)

uptake of Ca2+ ions

d)

release of Ca2+ ions

116.

In which two alternative ways can pyruvate and NADH be metabolized?

a)

fermentation; hydrolysis of PGAL

b)

condensation of PGAL; fermentation

c)

aerobic processes using the Krebs cycle; fermentation

d)

anaerobic processes using the Krebs cycle; fermentation

117.

What happens to the carbons of pyruvate that do not enter the Krebs cycle?

a)

They are converted to carbohydrates

b)

They are converted to CO2

c)

They are converted to glucose

d)

They are converted to ATP

e)

They are converted to carbon monoxide (CO)

118.

Where are most of the enzymes of the Krebs cycle located?

a)

in the intercristal space

b)

on the cristae

c)

on the ribosomes

d)

in the soluble phase of the mitochondrial matrix

e)

in the intermembrane space

119.

What is the terminal electron acceptor of the electron-transport chain in cells undergoing aerobic respiration?

a)

water

b)

O2

c)

CO2

d)

glucose

120.

How do mitochondria generate and store the energy used to produce most of the ATP made during aerobic respiration?

a)

by producing heat

b)

by generating a heat gradient

c)

by generating a proton gradient

d)

by generating a Cl- ion gradient

e)

by generating a Na+ ion gradient

121.

What properties do mitochondria share with peroxisomes?

a)

Both form by splitting from preexisting organelles, using some of the same proteins to accomplish the feat.

b)

Both import preformed proteins from the cytosol

c)

Both engage in similar types of oxidative metabolism

d)

At least one enzyme is found in the mitochondria of some mammals and the peroxisomes of others

e)

All of these are correct

122.

Of the five types of electron carriers, which is/are able to move freely in the mitochondrial inner membrane or the inter membrane space to transfer electrons from the electron donor to the electron receiver?

a)

Complex I

b)

cytochromes

c)

Complex II

d)

ubiquinone

e)

complex III