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UNIT 3: GENETIC

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. Meiosis was discovered by

a)

Strasburger

b)

Hofmeister   

c)

Amici

d)

Sutton 

2.

In which of the following meiosis takes place

a)

Pollen grains

b)

Pollen tube  

c)

Pollen mother cells 

d)

Generative cells

3.

The significance of meiosis lies in

a)

Reduction of the diploid number of chromosomes to haploid

b)

Maintaining constancy in the number of diploid chromosomes during sexual reproduction   

c)

Production of genetic variability in the population of a species    

d)

All of the above

4.

Which of these scientists designed an experiment to show that DNA replication was semi-conservative?

a)

Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl

b)

James Watson

c)

Linus Pauling

d)

 All of the above

5.

Proposed the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis

a)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

b)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

c)

Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty and Colin MacLeod

d)

George Beadle và Edward Tatum

e)

Archibald Garrod

6.

Determined DNA as a transforming principle

a)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

b)

Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty and Colin MacLeod

c)

George Beadle và Edward Tatum

d)

Archibald Garrod

e)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

7.

Demonstrated DNA as a hereditary material of virus

a)

Archibald Garrod

b)

George Beadle và Edward Tatum

c)

Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty and Colin MacLeod

d)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

e)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

8.

Used X-ray crystallography to determine the structure of  DNA.

a)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

b)

Archibald Garrod

c)

George Beadle và Edward Tatum

d)

Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty and Colin MacLeod

e)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

9.

Postulated that Alcaptonuria disease was due to a defective enzyme

a)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

b)

George Beadle và Edward Tatum

c)

Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty and Colin MacLeod

d)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

e)

Archibald Garrod

10.

In a eukaryotic cell, a molecule of pre-mRNA is found to have four exons and three introns. Which of the following are possible combinations of the exons, if the order in which they are written is the order in which they will be translated?

a)

A. Exon 1, Exon 2, Exon 3, Exon 4

b)

B. Exon 1, Exon 3, Exon 4

c)

C. Exon 4, Exon 1, Exon 2, Exon 3

d)

All of the above

e)

A and B

11.

The sequence of part of an mRNA is 5’-AUGGGGAACAGCAAGAGUG-3’

The sequence of the coding (+, sense) strand is

a)

5’- ATGGGGAACAGCAAGAGTG-3’

b)

3’-ATGGGGAACAGCAAGAGTG-5’

c)

3’- CACTCTTGCTGTTCCCCAT-5’

d)

5’-CACTCTTGCTGTTCCCCAT-3’

12.

The sequence of part of an mRNA is 5’-AUGGGGAACAGCAAGAGUG-3’

The sequence of the template (-, antisense) strand is

a)

5’-CACTCTTGCTGTTCCCCAT-3’

b)

3’- CACTCTTGCTGTTCCCCAT-5’

c)

3’-ATGGGGAACAGCAAGAGTG-5

d)

5’- ATGGGGAACAGCAAGAGTG-3

13.

Suggest a means by which you could separate mRNA from the other types of RNA in a eukaryotic cell.

a)

Attach an oligo dA sequence to an inert support to create an affinity column.

b)

Attach an oligo dG or oligo U sequence to an inert support to create an affinity column.

c)

Attach an oligo dC or oligo U sequence to an inert support to create an affinity column.

d)

Attach an oligo dT sequence to an inert support to create an affinity column.

14.

__________ are parts of __________ molecules that do not contain information about a protein's primary structure.

a)

Exons . . . mRNA

b)

Introns . . . mRNA

c)

Introns . . . pre-mRNA

d)

Exons . . . pre-mRNA

15.

The primary transcript is much longer than the mRNA that will eventually be translated. This can be explained by which of the following?

a)

Exons have not yet been added to the transcript

b)

The 5' cap has not yet been added to the transcript

c)

Introns have not yet been removed from the transcript

d)

The poly-A tail is still on the primary transcript

16.

In most cases, introns are spliced out of mature messenger RNA (mRNA) and are not a part of the final translated protein product of a gene. Even though they are not included in the final protein, why are introns important?

a)

Introns can generate non coding RNAs that influence gene expression

b)

None of these

c)

All of these

d)

Introns are involved in some special regulatory functions like mRNA export and non-sense mediated decay

e)

Introns allow for alternative splicing of exons to create multiple proteins from one gene sequence

17.

In eukaryotes, which of the following is true about introns and exons?

a)

Intronic regions typically code for transcription factors.

b)

The primary RNA transcript contains both intronic and exonic regions.

c)

Exons are repeating sequences that are typically found at the distal ends of a gene.

d)

The mature mRNA transcript contains a mix of introns and exons.

e)

The mature mRNA transcript only contains the introns because the exons have been spliced out.

18.

If a gene produces a pre-RNA that is 1200 basepairs long and has the following intron-exon structure:

Exon 1 - 200 bp

Intron 1 - 100 bp

Exon 2 - 50 bp

Intron 2 - 150 bp

Exon 3 - 700 bp

How many basepairs long would we expect the mRNA to be?

a)

1150 basepairs

500 basepairs

b)

1150 basepairs

950 basepairs

1000 basepairs

c)

950 basepairs

500 basepairs

900 basepairs

d)

950 basepairs

900 basepairs

19.

In the Meselson-Stahl DNA replication experiment, what percent of the DNA was composed of one light strand and one heavy strand after one generation of growth in 14N containing growth media?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

20.

In this diagram of the process of DNA replication at a replication fork, the strand labeled B is the:

a)

template strand

b)

RNA primer

c)

Okazaki fragment

d)

leading strand

e)

lagging strand

21.

In this diagram of the process of DNA replication at a replication fork, the newly synthesized DNA strand labeled C is the:

a)

coding strand

b)

lagging strand

c)

leading strand

d)

parental DNA

22.

In this diagram of the process of DNA replication at a replication fork, the black boxes labeled D and E are:

a)

RNA primers

b)

Newly synthesized DNA strand

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Okazaki fragments

e)

DNA template strands

23.

In the Meselson-Stahl DNA replication experiment, if the cells were first grown for many generations in 15N containing media, and then switched to 14N containing media, what percent of the DNA had 1 light strand and 1 heavy strand after 2 generations of growth in 15N growth media?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

24.

Frederick Griffith accidentally discovered transformation when attempting to develop a vaccine for pneumonia. He injected mice with samples from S-strain (virulent) and/or R-strain (nonvirulent) pneumococci bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae). Which of the following results is NOT consistent with Griffith's experiments?

a)

injected S-strain; mouse dies.

b)

injected mixture of heat-killed R-strain and live S-strain; mouse dies.

c)

injected mixture of heat-killed S-strain and live R-strain; mouse lives.

d)

 injected heat-killed S-strain; mouse lives.

e)

injected R-strain; mouse lives.

25.

For the DNA strand 5'-TACGATCATAT-3' the correct complementary DNA strand is:

a)

3'-TACGATCATAT-5'

b)

3'-TATACTAGCAT-5'

c)

3'-GCATATACGCG-5'

d)

 3'-AUGCUAGUAUA-5'

e)

3'-ATGCTAGTATA-5'

26.

Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis, serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively, are:

a)

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

b)

rRNA, mRNA ,tRNA

c)

tRNA, rRNA, mRNA

d)

tRNA, mRNA, rRNA

e)

rRNA, tRNA, mRNA

27.

A synthetic mRNA of repeating sequence 5'-CACACACACACACACAC... is used for a cell-free protein synthesizing system like the one used by Nirenberg. If we assume that protein synthesis can begin without the need for an initiator codon, what product or products would you expect to occur after protein synthesis?

a)

 one protein, consisting of a single amino acid

b)

one protein, with an alternating sequence of two different amino acids

c)

one protein, with an alternating sequence of three different amino acids

d)

two proteins, each with an alternating sequence of two different amino acids

e)

three proteins, each consisting of a different, single amino acid

28.

With what mRNA codon would the tRNA in the diagram be able to form a codon-anticodon base pairing interaction?

a)

3'-AUG-5'

b)

3'-GUA-5'

c)

3'-CAU-5'

d)

3'-UAG-5'

e)

3'-UAC-5'

29.

During their experiments, Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase helped confirm that DNA was the hereditary material. Which method did they use to discover this?

a)

Radio-labelling DNA and protein

b)

Transformation of DNA in Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

DNA linkage mapping

d)

X-ray crystallography of DNA molecules

30.

DNA replication in E. coli begins at a site in the DNA called the (a)   .

31.

At the replication fork the (b) ___________ strand is synthesized continuously while the (c) _________ strand is synthesized discontinuously.

(a)  

32.

On the strand synthesized discontinuously, the short pieces are called (d) (a)   fragments.

33.

An RNA primer for each of the fragments is synthesized by an enzyme called (e) __________, and this RNA primer is removed after the fragment is synthesized by the enzyme (f) ___________, using its (g) _____________ activity.

(a)  

34.

The nicks left behind in this process are sealed by the enzyme (h) (a)   .

35.

You have obtained a sample of DNA, and you transcribe mRNA from this DNA and purify it. You then separate the two strands of the DNA and analyze the base composition of each strand and of the mRNA. You obtain the data shown in the table to the right. Which strand of the DNA is the coding strand, serving as a template for mRNA synthesis?

a)

Strand 1

b)

Too little information to tell

c)

Neither strand 1 nor 2

d)

Both strands 1 and 2

e)

Strand 2

36.

The Meselson-Stahl experiment established that:

a)

DNA polymerase has a crucial role in DNA synthesis.

b)

newly synthesized DNA in E. coli has a different base composition than the preexisting DNA.

c)

DNA synthesis requires dATP, dCTP, dGTP, and dTTP.

d)

DNA synthesis in E. coli proceeds by a conservative mechanism.

preexisting DNA.

e)

DNA synthesis in E. coli proceeds by a semiconservative mechanism.

37.

When a DNA molecule is described as replicating bidirectionally, that means that it has two:

a)

chains.

b)

replication forks.

c)

termination points.

d)

origins.

e)

independently replicating segment.

38.

An Okazaki fragment is a:

a)

fragment of DNA resulting from endonuclease action.

b)

segment of mRNA synthesized by RNA polymerase

c)

segment of DNA that is an intermediate in the synthesis of the lagging strand.

d)

piece of DNA that is synthesized in the 3' ® 5' direction.

e)

fragment of RNA that is a subunit of the 30S ribosome.

39.

Which one of the following statements about enzymes that interact with DNA is true?

a)

E. coli DNA polymerase I is unusual in that it possesses only a 5' ® 3' exonucleolytic activity.

b)

Primases synthesize a short stretch of DNA to prime further synthesis.

c)

Many DNA polymerases have a proofreading 5' ® 3' exonuclease.

d)

Exonucleases degrade DNA at a free end.

e)

Endonucleases degrade circular but not linear DNA molecules.

40.

E. coli DNA polymerase III:

a)

represents over 90% of the DNA polymerase activity in E. coli cells.

b)

requires a free 5'-hydroxyl group as a primer.

c)

is the principal DNA polymerase in chromosomal DNA replication.

d)

is efficient at nick translation.

e)

can initiate replication without a primer.

41.

The 5' -> 3' exonuclease activity of E. coli DNA polymerase I is involved in:

a)

formation of a nick at the DNA replication origin.

b)

sealing of nicks by ligase action.

c)

removal of RNA primers.

d)

proofreading of the replication process.

e)

formation of Okazaki fragments.

42.

At replication forks in E. coli:

a)

DNA helicases make endonucleolytic cuts in DNA.

b)

RNA primers are synthesized by primase.

c)

RNA primers are removed by primase.

d)

DNA topoisomerases make endonucleolytic cuts in DNA.

e)

DNA primers are degraded by exonucleases.

43.

Which of the following is true about DNA polymerase?

a)

It can synthesize DNA in the 5' to 3' direction

b)

It can synthesize mRNA in the 5' to 3' direction

c)

It can synthesize mRNA in the 3' to 5' direction

d)

It can synthesize DNA in the 3' to 5' direction

44.

The reaction in DNA replication catalyzed by DNA ligase is

a)

Addition of new nucleotides to the leading strand

b)

Base pairing of the template and the newly formed DNA strand

c)

Formation of a bond between one Okazaki fragment and the next one

d)

Addition of new nucleotide to the lagging strand

45.

Which of the following enzymes remove supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of the replication fork?

a)

DNA polymerases

b)

Helicases

c)

Primases

d)

Topoisomerases

46.

DNA opening and unwinding is done by

a)

Ligase

b)

Hexonuclease

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

Helicase

47.

The enzyme used to replace RNA primer with DNA is

a)

DNA polymerase I

b)

DNA Polymerase III

c)

Primase

d)

Endonuclease

e)

DNA ligase

48.

ecause DNA polymerase III can only act from 5' to 3', continuous strand growth can be achieved only along one of the template strands (Leading strand) and strand growth along the other strand must occur discontinuously resulting in the production of a series of short sections of new DNA called:

a)

Replicon fragments

b)

Klenow fragments

c)

Okazaki fragments

d)

None of the above

49.

Since the first nucleotides cannot be linked in a newly synthesized strand in DNA replication, ___________ is required.

a)

a DNA primer

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

ligase

d)

an RNA primer

e)

helicase

50.

In DNA, thymine always pairs with

a)

adenine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

thymine

e)

uracil

51.

DNA replication is called semiconservative because _______________ of the original DNA molecule appears in the DNA formed in replication.

a)

none

b)

most

c)

half

d)

hardly any

e)

all

52.

Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is a

a)

nucleolus

b)

nucleotide

c)

nucleosome

d)

histone

e)

genetisome

53.

In replication of DNA, the helix is opened and untwisted by

a)

polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

deoxase

d)

ligase

e)

ribase

54.

In a nucleic acid, the bases are always attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar.

a)

5'

b)

4'

c)

3'

d)

2'

e)

1'

55.

In nucleic acids, the phosphate group is attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar.

a)

5'

b)

4'

c)

3'

d)

2'

e)

1'

56.

_______________ join DNA fragments on the lagging strand.

a)

Telomeres

b)

Centromeres

c)

Helicases

d)

Ligases

e)

Antiparallel strands

57.

DNA polymerase catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5'-->3' direction.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

A DNA molecule has the same amount of adenine and thymine.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

During semiconservative replication, the original double helix remains intact and a new double helix forms.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The elongation of Okazaki fragments during DNA synthesis progresses away from the replication fork.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

DNA is made up of a phosphate group, an organic base, and:

a)

none of the above

b)

A fat

c)

a molecule of ATP

d)

a protein

e)

a sugar

62.

In the DNA molecule:

a)

adenine pairs with guanine

b)

All of the above are possible.

c)

None of the above are possible

d)

cytosine pairs with thymine

e)

guanine pairs with thymine

63.

If one side of a DNA molecule contains the following sequence of nucleotides, AGTCCG, the complementary sequence on the other side would be:

a)

GCCTGA

b)

TCAGGC

c)

AGTCCG

d)

CTGAAT

e)

none of the above

64.

You isolate a previously unknown virus. Analysis of its genome reveals that it is composed of a double stranded DNA molecule containing 14% T (thymine). Based on this information, what would you predict the %C (cytosine) to be?

a)

14%

b)

28%

c)

36%

d)

72%

65.

The two sides of the double helix structure of DNA are held together with hydrogen bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

DNA replication is called semiconservative because half of each of the two new strands of DNA is "old" DNA from the original DNA molecule and half is "new"

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when

a)

the cyclic AMP level is high and and lactose is absent within the cell

b)

the lactose and glucose levels are both high within the cell

c)

the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both low within the cell

d)

the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell

68.

In E. coli, adenylate cyclase is activated when

a)

The ATP and glucose levels are high in the cell.

b)

The cAMP and glucose levels are high in the cell

c)

Phosphate accumulates on proteins in presence of glucose

d)

Phosphate accumulates on proteins in absence of glucose

69.

In E. coli, tryptophan switches off the trp operon by

a)

binding to the repressor and increasing the latter's affinity for the operator

b)

inactivating the gene for the first enzyme in the pathway (feedback inhibition)

c)

binding to the operator

d)

inactivating the repressor protein

70.

A mutation that renders nonfunctional the product of a regulatory gene for a repressible operon would result in

a)

continuous transcription of the genes of the operon

b)

none of the above

c)

blocking the operator of operon.

d)

stopping transcription of the genes of the operon

71.

Inducible enzymes are

a)

usually involved in anabolic pathways

b)

produced when a small molecule inactivates the repressor protein

c)

produced when an activator molecule enhances the attachment of RNA polymerase to the operator

d)

regulated by inherently inactive repressor molecules

72.

In E. coli, tryptophan switches off the trp operon by

a)

inactivating the repressor protein

b)

inactivating the gene for the first enzyme in the pathway

c)

binding to the repressor and increasing the latter's affinity for the operator

d)

binding to the operator

73.

certain mutations of the lac operon E. coli involve a change to the operator region. this modified operator is unable to bind the repressor protein, whether or not the repressor is bound to allolactose. In such cells

a)

enzymes for the utilization of lactose would always be produced, even in the absence of lactose

b)

RNA polymerase would be unable to bind to the operator region to initiate RNA synthesis

c)

RNA polymerase would be unable to bind to the promoter region to initiate RNA synthesis

d)

enzymes for the utilization of lactose would never be produced, even in the presence of lactose

74.

Proinsulin is a polypeptide created directly by translating a mRNA molecule. to become insulin, it is cleaved and the pieces joined covalently. This is an example of

a)

post transcriptional regulation

b)

eterochromatin regulation

c)

alternative splicing

d)

post translational regulation

75.

The results of the human genome project have indicated that a euk cell can produce more different proteins than it has genes. Given that most genes code for proteins, how is this possible?

a)

some transcripts can be spliced in more than one way, producing messages for multiple proteins from the same gene

b)

some proteins can be produced on the cell without info from genes

c)

some proteins are the result of transcription from the genes of viruses that have infected the cell

d)

darwinian theory requires extra proteins as the raw material for natural selection and evolution

76.

which of the following would you expect to find as a part of a receptor protein that binds with a steriod hormone?

a)

a domain that binds to DNA and protein binding domains

b)

a binding domain that enables it to bend the DNA to bring bound activators closer to the promoter

c)

an activated promoter region that allows attachment of RNA polymerase

77.

In snails, sell coiling can either be right handed or left handed. The pattern of coiling in a snail is related to the genotype of its mother and not to the genotype of the individual. This curious observation suggests that shell coiling is controlled by

a)

a maternal effect gene (Orgenelle genetic)

b)

an oncogene

c)

a piRNA

d)

a morphogen

78.

Which of the following might a proto-oncogene code for

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

receptor protein for growth factors

d)

an enhancer

79.

a tumor suppressor gene could cause the onset of cancer if

a)

a-both alleles have mutations that decrease the activity of the gene product

b)

both a and c are correct

c)

c- a proto oncogene has also become an oncogene

d)

b- it ins inherited from a parent in mutated form

80.

Apoptosis is

a)

a cell suicide program that may be initiated by p53 protein in response to DNA damage

b)

metastasis, or the spread of cancer cells to a new location in the body

c)

the mutation of a G protein into a hyperactive form

d)

the transformation of a proto-oncogene to an oncogene by a point mutation

81.

All of the following are made up of nucleic acid except a

a)

repressor

b)

structural gene

c)

promotor

d)

regulatory gene

e)

operator

82.

Why was the rediscovery of Mendel’s experiments important for the development of molecular biology?

a)

Mendel’s experiments suggested that DNA was the hereditary material

b)

All of the above

c)

Mendel’s experiments with pea plants gave molecular biologists a useful model organism

d)

Mendel’s laws of inheritance suggested that there were discrete biochemical pa

83.

Where are Barr bodies typically found?

a)

Male gametes

b)

Female somatic cells

c)

Male and female somatic cells

d)

Male somatic cells

84.

If a female’s cells contain three X chromosomes, how many Barr bodies will each cell have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

None

85.

Which of the following applies to the Xist gene?

a)

It activates genes on X chromosomes

b)

It prevents the inactivation of genes

c)

It inactivates genes on X chromosomes

d)

It contains the XIC

86.

A cell is going through meiosis. The sister chromatids are lined up on the metaphase plate. What phase of meiosis is this?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Prophase II

87.

An adult organism has 60 chromosomes or 30 homologous chromosomes. 30 are maternally derived, 30 are paternally derived. How many chromosomes are in each cell after mitosis?

a)

60 chromosomes, 30 homologs.

b)

120 chromosomes, 60 homologs

c)

30 chromosomes, no homologs.

88.

An adult organism has 60 chromosomes or 30 homologous pairs of chromosomes. 30 are maternally derived, 30 are paternally derived. How many chromosomes are in each cell after meiosis?

a)

30 chromosomes, no homologous chromosomes.

b)

120 chromosomes, 60 homologous chromosomes.

c)

60 chromosomes, 30 homologous chromosomes

89.

A cell duplicates its DNA, divides into two cells, then divides into two cells again. Effectively, the cell reduces its DNA in half. Did this cell go through mitosis?

a)

Yes, but only one

b)

Yes

c)

No

90.

During mitosis, the chromosomes have condensed, lined up on the metaphase plate, and the chromatids are being separated by an enzyme? Which phase of mitosis is this?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

91.

Yeast, the asexually reproducing organism used to create alcohol, eats sugar to create energy and reproduce. To make beer or wine, yeast is placed in sugar water of different flavors, and the yeast go to work creating alcohol. Typically, large amounts of yeast are added to the sugar water. However, if only a few yeast are added, the mixture will still produce the same amount of alcohol and deplete the sugar, in a similar amount of time. What process allows this?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

 Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

92.

Meiosis I creates ___________________.

a)

two dissimilar daughter cells from one cell

b)

four same daughter cells from two cells

c)

four dissimilar daughter cells from one cell

d)

two same daughter cells from one cell

93.

In which phase does the tetrad first make its appearance?

a)

S phase of the natural cell cycle

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Anaphase B

d)

Prophase I

94.

Why is it important that cells have the ability to signal one another?

a)

It is not important

b)

Communication between cells always necessary for individual cellular processes

c)

Communication allows coordination, allowing the organism to survive

95.

species has 6 homologous chromosome pairs in somatic, non-gamete cells. How many chromosomes are present in the gamete cells? How many homologous pairs?

a)

6 chromosomes, 6 homologous pairs

b)

6 chromosomes, no homologous pairs

c)

12 chromosomes, 3 homologous pair

96.

The DNA has been replicated in a cell containing 4 chromosomes. The cell is going through mitosis, and sister chromatids are being separated in anaphase. Before the cell divides, chromosomes will exist in the same cell. How many chromosomes will exist in the cell between anaphase of mitosis and cytokinesis, or cell division?

a)

4 chromosomes

b)

8 chromosomes

c)

2 chromosomes

97.

Crossing over occurs during which stage of meiosis

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Metaphase I

98.

What is the evolutionary purpose of cells that undergo crossing over?

a)

To produce two cells instead of one

b)

To increase genetic diversity

c)

To keep mutations from forming

d)

To keep the redundancy of the cell high

e)

To produce gametes that are genetically identical

99.

What structures exchange genetic material during crossing over?

a)

Nonsister chromatids

b)

Egg and sperm chromosomes

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Non-homologous chromosomes

100.

During crossing over, two homologous chromosomes pair to form which of the following choices?

a)

Chromatid

b)

Tetrad

c)

None of these

d)

Base Pair

e)

Mitotic Bond

101.

Crossing over is a phenomenon that happens during Meiosis I in the attempt to create genetic diversity. Crossing over typically occurs between which of the following structures?

a)

Tetrads

b)

Homologous chromosomes

c)

Chromatin

d)

Sister chromatids

102.

Which of the following is the cause of complete monosomy? A. Partial deletions B. Partial monosomy C. Translocations D. Nondisjunction

a)

Partial deletions

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Translocations

d)

Partial monosomy

103.

What do most monosomies lead to in humans?

a)

 Infertility

b)

Most aren’t dangerous and lead to no problems

c)

Death

d)

Small feet

104.

In humans, Turner’s and Down’s syndromes are examples of: A. Monosomy B. A monsomy and a trisomy, respectively C. A trisomy and a monosomy, respectively D. An aneuploidy and a monosomy, respectively

a)

An aneuploidy and a monosomy, respectively

b)

A trisomy and a monosomy, respectively

c)

A monsomy and a trisomy, respectively

d)

Monosomy

105.

Which of the following is a missense mutation?

a)

Serine is substituted for Serine

b)

Arginine is substituted for Glutamine

c)

 A STOP signal is substituted for Cysteine

106.

Molecules of mature mRNA are short, single-stranded and contain the following components:

a)

adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil, exons, 5’-cap and 3’-poly-tail

b)

adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil, introns, exons, 5’-cap and 3’-poly-tail

c)

adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil, introns

d)

introns, 5’-cap and 3’-poly-tail

107.

Which of the following statements are true about the differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic mRNA?

a)

In contrast to eukaryotes that transcribe in the nucleus and translate in the cytoplasm, prokaryotes, transcribe and translate the mRNA simultaneously in the cytoplasm

b)

Prokaryote mRNA is primarily polycistronic and eukaryotic mRNA is primarily monocistronic.

c)

 Bacterial mRNAs are short-lived to allow for flexibility in rapidly changing environments, while eukaryotic mRNAs are stable up to a few days.

d)

All of the above are correct.

108.

What happens during the important pre-mRNA to mRNA processing step?

a)

Non-coding introns are removed or “spliced out”.

b)

The mRNA is translated into protein.

c)

The pre-mRNA is exported out of the nucleus

d)

All of the above.

109.

Mutations are sometimes carried on the sex chromosomesX and Y. Why might a male inherit a mutation carried by his mother, even though his mother does not have the mutation, herself?

a)

The male inherited the recessive mutation on his X chromosome, while his mother inherited the recessive mutation on one X chromosome and a dominant form of the gene on her other X chromosome.

b)

The male inherited the dominant mutation on his Y chromosome, because his mother carried the recessive mutation on her Y chromosome.

c)

The male inherited the dominant mutation on his Y chromosome, because his mother carried the dominant mutation on her Y chromosome.

d)

 The male inherited the dominant mutation on his X chromosome, because his mother carried the dominant mutation on both of her X chromosomes.

110.

Male calico cats are rare because:

a)

The gene for fur color is carried on the X chromosome, and is inherited exclusively from the mother. The mother would have to carry both the gene for orange fur and the gene for black fur for her male offspring to be a calico

b)

The gene for fur color is carried on the X chromosome, and male cats only have one X chromosome. A male cat would have to have two X chromosomes, or the Klinefelter’s syndrome mutation, to inherit both orange and black fur.

c)

The gene for fur color is carried on the X chromosome, and male cats do not always inherit the X chromosome. This is why there are so many albino male cats.

d)

The gene for fur color is carried on the Y chromosome, and male cats do not usually inherit two Y chromosomes. A male cat must therefore have an XYY genotype to be a calico.

111.

One of the following examples includes a silent mutation. Which one?

a)

A sunbather forgets to put sunscreen on. The DNA within many skin cells is damaged, and several mutations happen when it is repaired.

b)

the third spot of the codon, a C mutates to a G. Both codons call for threonine amino acid

c)

Due to a mutation, a changed amino acid within an enzyme cause it to slow down.

112.

What is the difference between a nonsense mutation and a silent mutation?

a)

Nothing, they both change protein function

b)

A nonsense mutation does not create a change in the protein

c)

A silent mutation does nothing, while a nonsense mutation can be significantly disruptive

113.

On the inside of a protein, a mutation causes the swap of one amino acid with another. This change does not affect the internal structure of the protein, and both proteins act similarly in their roles. Which of the following represents this situation?

a)

Silent mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Missense mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

114.

A complex protein has thousands of amino acids, but only a few of them exist in the active site. The active site requires a specific sequence of amino acids, to bind to a substrate. If a deletion mutation of 3 nucleotides removes one of these amino acids, will the protein still function?

a)

No

b)

Yes, just not as well

c)

Maybe, it depends on the protein.

115.

While replicating a gene, polymerase accidently slips on the template strand, and skips a nucleotide. The resulting DNA produced is missing that nucleotide counterpart, and forms a mismatch in the DNA. Exonuclease senses the lump in the DNA, and cuts the strand open, allowing polymerase to insert the proper nucleotide and reseal the DNA. What just happened?

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

A deletion mutation, and an insertion mutation

c)

Normal DNA replication

d)

A deletion mutation

116.

What does the Svedberg unit measure?

a)

Volume

b)

Time taken for sedimentation

c)

Molecular weight

d)

Density

117.

What nitrogenous bases do pyrimidines always pair with?

(a)  

118.

How many backbones does DNA have?

(a)  

119.

How many backbones does RNA have?

(a)  

120.

What is the backbone of DNA and RNA made of?

(a)  

121.

What are at the ends of a DNA strand?

(a)