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AP Biology Unit 6 Review

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are pyrimidines?

a)

adenine and cytosine

b)

adenine and guanine

c)

adenine and thymine

d)

cytosine and guanine

e)

cytosine and thymine

2.

A nucleic acid contains 35% adenine, 36% thymine, 14% guanine, and 15% cytosine. This nucleic acid is

a)

single-stranded RNA

b)

single-stranded DNA

c)

double-stranded RNA

d)

double-stranded DNA

3.

A nucleic acid consists of 29% cytosine, 35% uracil, 10% adenine, and 26% guanine. This nucleic acid is

a)

single-stranded RNA

b)

single-stranded DNA

c)

double-stranded RNA

d)

double-stranded DNA

4.

Which is not a component of DNA nucleotides?

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Deoxyribose sugar

5.

Eukaryotic DNA is located in

a)

the nucleus

b)

the cytoplasm

c)

anywhere in the cell

6.

During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA?

a)

DNA is the template, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

b)

DNA is the template, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

c)

RNA is the template, DNA reads RNA in 3' -> 5' direction

d)

RNA is the template, DNA reads RNA in 5' -> 3' direction

7.

What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

triplet box

d)

wobble

8.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

9.

How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?

a)

Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA

b)

Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA

c)

Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has circular DNA

d)

Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA

10.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

c)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

11.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'?

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

12.

Gene expression is the ability for a gene to be:

a)

in the genome.

b)

transcribed.

c)

non-coding.

d)

a dominant allele.

13.

Translation is a process where:

a)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of rRNA codons.

b)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of tRNA codons.

c)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of mRNA codons.

d)

a DNA nucleotide sequence is used to produce mRNA codon sequence.

14.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

15.

What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Amino Acids

16.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
17.
 A frameshift mutation could result from 
a)
a base insertion only.
b)
a base deletion only. 
c)
a base substitution only. 
d)
either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
18.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
19.
Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes? 
a)
RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase
b)
RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript.
c)
RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript. 
d)
Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome. 
20.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
21.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
22.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
23.
A small molecule that binds to the repressor and makes it inactive is
a)
corepressor
b)
inducer
c)
promoter
d)
operator
24.
Which of these enzymes is not part of transcription?
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
Helicase
c)
Topoisomerase
d)
None of these are transcription enzymes
25.
Which phase of which process does this picture show?
a)
Elongation of Transcription
b)
Termination of Transcription
c)
Termination of Translation
d)
Elongation of Translation
26.
What is genetic engineering?
a)
Manipulation/addition of genes
b)
Naturally breeding two animals with desired traits
c)
Cross-pollinating two crops
d)
Harvesting stem cells
27.
What is recombinant DNA?
a)
DNA containing genes foreign to that organism
b)
DNA which has been impacted by epigenetics
c)
DNA that has restriction enzymes
d)
DNA that has been sequenced
28.
What is a restriction digest?
a)
Using enzymes to cut DNA at specific locations
b)
Using enzymes to replication DNA
c)
Using science to make genetic clones
d)
Analysis of DNA with an electrical current
29.

YOU did a restriction digest to....

a)

Remove the rfp from anemone DNA

b)

Confirm the presence of rfp in your pARA-R plasmid

c)

Play with DNA

d)

Fuse the rfp into our vector

30.
The process of putting recombinant DNA into an organism is called....
a)
Transformation
b)
Ligating
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
Incubating
31.
What is not a type of genetic engineering
a)
gene cloning
b)
gene therapy
c)
biological resistance
d)
GMO's
32.
Which products are not made from gene therapy?
a)
insulin
b)
bacteria to digest oil for oil spills
c)
human proteins
d)
viruses
33.
How do we describe transformation in bacteria? 
a)
the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule 
b)
the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule 
c)
the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
d)
 assimilation of external DNA into a cell
34.
tRNA is involved in
a)
carrying amino acids 
b)
carrying ribosomes
c)
carrying glucose
d)
carrying lipids
35.
What makes up a spliceosome and what does a spliceosome do?
a)
proteins & snRNPs, cuts out DNA pieces
b)
proteins & snRNPs, cuts out exons & reconnects introns
c)
proteins & snRNPs, cuts out introns & reconnects exons
d)
many nucleosomes, cuts the cheese
36.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
alternative splicing
d)
snRPs
37.
The process by which a cell becomes specialized for a specific structure or function.
a)
cell multiplication
b)
cell division
c)
mitosis
d)
cell differentiation
38.
What type of operon is the lac (lactose) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
39.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
40.
A mutation that does NOT alter the protein production is called a 
a)
deletion mutation
b)
inversion mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
transverse mutation
41.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
42.
When the Ribosome reaches ________________ the process of translation stops
a)
Stop Codon
b)
Okazaki Fragment
c)
Terminator
d)
taq Polymerase
43.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
44.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the promoter for transcription
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
45.

Which of these carries the code for making a protein?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

46.

The process of creating a protein from RNA is called

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

reverse transcription

47.

The process of creating mRNA based on a DNA sequence is called

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

reverse transcription

48.

Codons are found on which molecule?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

49.

In RNA, the base thymine is replaced with

a)

uracil

b)

guanine

c)

cytosine

d)

adenine

50.

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

51.

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

52.

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

53.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
54.

Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template TGGCAAGTACGT?

a)

ACCGTTCATGCA

b)

UGGCAAGUACGU

c)

UCCGUUCUUGCU

d)

ACCGUUCAUGCA

55.

How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides? ATGGGAACTCCA

a)

4

b)

2

c)

6

d)

12

56.

To which end of an mRNA molecule is a guanine cap added after transcription?

a)

5' end

b)

3' end

57.

To which end of an mRNA molecule is a poly-A tail added after transcription?

a)

5' end

b)

3' end

58.

Which of the following correctly describes exons? Choose ALL that apply.

a)

They code for proteins.

b)

They do not code for proteins.

c)

They may remain in mRNA after editing.

d)

They are usually removed from mRNA during editing.

59.

Which of the following correctly describes introns? Choose ALL that apply.

a)

They code for proteins.

b)

They do not code for proteins.

c)

They may remain in mRNA after editing.

d)

They are usually removed from mRNA during editing.

60.

Nucleic acids are always built in which direction?

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

61.

A protein produced by a freely floating ribosome could serve which of the following functions? (Choose ALL that apply.)

a)

Digestive enzyme inside a lysosome

b)

Metabolic enzymes remaining within the cell

c)

Channel or receptor proteins embedded in the cell membrane

d)

Hormones or other messages secreted from the cell via vesicles

e)

Structure/support within the cell (e.g. cytoskeleton)

62.

A protein produced by a ribosome bound to the rough ER could serve which of the following functions? (Choose ALL that apply.)

a)

Digestive enzyme inside a lysosome

b)

Metabolic enzymes remaining within the cell

c)

Channel or receptor proteins embedded in the cell membrane

d)

Hormones or other messages secreted from the cell via vesicles

e)

Structure/support within the cell (e.g. cytoskeleton)

63.

Amino acids are held together by _____ bonds.

a)

hydrogen

b)

peptide

c)

glycosidic

d)

ionic

64.

Monomers of proteins are called

a)

nucleic acids

b)

amino acids

c)

monopeptides

d)

nucleotides

65.

Which of the following statements correctly describe differences between DNA and RNA? Select all that apply!

a)

RNA contains ribose sugar, while DNA contains deoxyribose

b)

RNA is more stable than DNA

c)

RNA contains the base uracil, while DNA contains thymine

d)

RNA is single stranded, while DNA is double-stranded

e)

DNA can have catalytic properties, while RNA cannot

66.

What is an operon?

a)

a unit of a ribosome that is necessary for translation

b)

a part of an RNA molecule

c)

a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task

d)

an enzyme needed for DNA replication

67.

DNA polymerase always reads DNA in which direction?

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

68.

To what portion of an operon does the repressor protein bind?

a)

Promoter

b)

Operator

c)

Structural genes

d)

Regulatory gene

69.

To what portion of an operon does RNA polymerase bind?

a)

Promoter

b)

Operator

c)

Structural genes

d)

Regulatory gene

70.
Alternative RNA splicing ____.
a)
is a mechanism for increasing the rate of translation
b)
can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA
c)
can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs
d)
increases the rate of transcription
71.
If an mRNA molecule has introns and exons in it, where is it?
a)
At a ribosome
b)
In the nucleus
c)
in the rough ER
d)
could be in the nucleus or the ribosome
72.
Which of these is not a part of mRNA processing
a)
5' cap
b)
chromatin packaging
c)
3' Poly A tail
d)
splicing
73.

You have given bacteria a plasmid with an ampicillin resistance gene. Which of the following results would indicate that transformation of the bacteria occurred?

a)

Growth in agar without the ampicillin by bacteria with the plasmid

b)

Growth in ampicillin agar by bacteria with the plasmid

c)

Growth in ampicillin agar by bacteria without plasmid

d)

Growth in agar without the ampicillin by bacteria without the plasmid

74.
During gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from the ___ end to the ___ end.
a)
positive, negative
b)
negative, positive
75.
DNA analysis performed by a forensic scientist on blood found at a crime scene is compared to the DNA analysis of four suspects as shown below.

Which suspect was most likely present at the crime scene? 
a)
Suspect A
b)
Suspect B
c)
Suspect C
d)
Suspect D
76.
Which of the following sequences is most likely to be cut by a restriction enzyme?
a)
AATTCT
TTAAGA
b)
AATATT
TTATAA
c)
AAAATT
TTTTAA
d)
ACTACT
TGATGA

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