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Ms. Dunn's 8th Grade Comp Science Review

Total questions: 168

Worksheet time: 2hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the dependent variable according to this graph.

a)

Seed Type

b)

Number of Bird Species

c)

Sunflower and Sorghum

d)

Sunflower

2.

What is the relationship between dependent and independent variables?

a)

The independent variable changes based on the dependent variable

b)

The dependent variable changes based on the independent variable

c)

the are not related

d)

they are the same

3.

An experiment was designed to determine the effect of fertilizer on plant growth. Two groups of plants were grown under identical conditions except one group was watered with a dilute fertilizer solution and one was received water without fertilizer. The group of plants without the fertilizer is known as the

a)

abiotic factor

b)

control

c)

variable

4.
In this graph, what is the dependent variable? 
a)
Walla Walla Island
b)
Time
c)
Number of Deer
5.

Andre planted wheatgrass in three different types of soil to see which one was the best for growing wheatgrass. Miguel and Darla decided to do the same experiment to see if they would get the same results.

What is this called?

a)

Repetition

b)

Replication

c)

Reptiliation

d)

Reposition

6.

Jennifer wanted to study the effect of sunlight on plant growth. So she decided to expose 10 identical plants to various amounts of sunlight each day (2 hours, 3 hours, 4 hours, 5 hours, and 6 hours). After one month, she measured the weight of the plants. What was the independent variable?

a)

Hours of sunlight

b)

Plant weight

c)

Type of plant

7.

Alex is showing his friend what he learned about comparing the objects of space by their relative sizes.

If “W” represents the universe, what would “X” most likely represent?

a)

A solar system because it contains planets and stars.

b)

A nebula because that is what the planets formed from.

c)

A galaxy because it contains billions of stars and the planets.

d)

A universe because it contains billions of stars and the planets.

8.

A huge collection of stars , gas and dust

a)

Universal

b)

Universe

c)

Galaxy

d)

Solar system

e)

Inner and Outer planets

9.

How is this technology such as satellites demonstrate improving our understanding of the universe?

a)

It can cont individual atoms in a substance in order for scientists to study them.

b)

It can send audio to communicate to other planets in our solar system.

c)

It has sent pictures of aliens and stars in other universes.

d)

Satellites have sent clear, distinct images of distant objects, like other galaxies that way we can learn about them

10.

A huge collection of stars

a)

Solar system

b)

Universe

c)

Gravity

d)

Galaxy

e)

Galaxium

11.

The distance light travels in one year.

a)

2 AUs

b)

An astronomic unit

c)

A light year.

d)

93 trillion miles.

12.
Our nearest star neighbor, Proxima Centauri, is 4 light years away from Earth. How old is the light by the time we see it?
a)
4,000 years-old
b)
400 years-old
c)
4 years-old
d)
40 years-old
13.

Which statement below best describes the Universe?

a)

The Universe is a black hole made of dark matter.

b)

The Universe is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space.

c)

The Universe contains the Milky Way galaxy which contains most of the stars in space.

d)

The Universe contains many billions of galaxies and each galaxy contains many billions

of stars.

14.

The sun is much larger than the moon. However, as viewed from Earth, the sun and moon appear to be the same size. Why do the sun and moon appear to be the same size when viewed from Earth?

a)

The moon is much hotter than the sun.

b)

The moon is much denser than the sun.

c)

The moon is much brighter than the sun.

d)

The moon is much closer to Earth than the sun.

15.

Which unit of measurement would we use to measure the distance between Earth and another body within our Solar System.

a)

Astronomical Unit (AU)

b)

Light Year (ly)

c)

Miles (mi)

d)

Kilometers (km)

16.

Which statement best describes stars?

a)

large planets that are composed mostly of gases

b)

celestial bodies made up of gas that give off light

c)

faint dots of light that can be seen from Earth’s surface

d)

objects that form in the outer parts of the solar system

17.

One physical property of a star is apparent magnitude. Which of the following is used in determining the apparent magnitude of a star?

a)

the constellation the star is in

b)

the distance the star is from Earth

c)

the number of times the star rotates

d)

the number of prominences the star makes

18.

The chart below displays the names of different stars and their colors. Which of the groups below best orders the stars from hottest to coolest?

a)

A. Antares, Spica, Sun, Aldebaran

b)

B. Sun, Spica, Antares, Aldebaran

c)

C. Spica, Sun, Aldebaran, Antares

d)

D. Antares, Aldebaran, Sun, Spica

19.

One physical property of a star is absolute brightness. Which of the following is used in determining the absolute brightness of a star?

a)

how bright the star actually is

b)

how bright the star appears to be from the Earth

c)

the number of prominences the star makes

d)

the direction the star rotates

20.
What is the name of the gas/dust clouds that form stars?
a)
Nebulas
b)
Protostars 
c)
Supernova
d)
Neutron Star
21.

Stars that are very bright, large & burn at the highest temperature

a)

Blue Giant stars

b)

Red Giant

c)

White dwarves

d)

Proton stars

22.

Which star is the coldest?

a)

Yellow Star

b)

Red Star

c)

Orange Star

d)

Blue Star

23.
In the diagram given, what happens as we move to the left?
a)
Stars Get Larger
b)
Stars get Colder
c)
Stars get hotter
24.
As you move from the bottom to the top of the H R diagram the __________ changes.
a)
Temperature
b)
Luminosity or Brightness
25.

Which star is considered a main sequence star?

a)

Vega

b)

Betelgeuse

c)

Pollux

d)

Van Maanan's Star

26.

What is the Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram?

a)

A map which tells the approximate location of stars in the Milky Way galaxy and their distance from Earth.

b)

A table that alphabetically lists stars by name and includes dates of when the star was first charted.

c)

A chart which organizes stars into categories based on the amount of Hydrogen they burn.

d)

A graph used to classify stars according to their luminosity, color, temperature, and stage.

27.

Which category is our Sun located in?

a)

White Dwarfs

b)

Supergiants

c)

Main Sequence

d)

Giants

28.

Which factor is MOST responsible for the average temperature of a planet?

a)

distance from the sun

b)

the availability of water

c)

the length of a day on the planet

d)

the composition of the atmosphere

29.

Consider the data table. On which planet would you weigh less than you would weigh on Earth? (Table 1)

a)

Jupiter

b)

Neptune

c)

Saturn

d)

Uranus

30.

This is a diagram of the inner solar system (not to scale) including the four inner planets, the asteroid belt, and the sun.  The orbital paths of the planets have been added.

The pattern of motion of objects in the solar system indicates that which of these planets will be revolving the fastest around the sun?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

31.

A star begins as a ball of dust particles and gases pulled together by

a)

heat energy

b)

protostars

c)

inertia

d)

gravity

32.

How many planets are there in the solar system?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

9

d)

14

33.

The outer planets are also called ________.

a)

terrestrial planets

b)

larger planets

c)

gas giants

d)

farthest planets

34.

The four inner planets are:

a)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune

b)

Mercury, Venus, Earth and Pluto

c)

Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars

d)

Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune and Pluto

35.

The four outer  planets are:

a)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune

b)

Mercury, Venus, Earth and Pluto

c)

Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars

d)

Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune and Pluto

36.

Which of the following provides the best reasoning for a planet being able to form and maintain its spherical shape while also remaining in orbit around the Sun?

a)

The gravitational pull originating from the center of the planets allows them to retain their

shape and the gravitational pull of the Sun keeps them in orbit.

b)

The gravitational attraction of planets towards neighboring planets allows them to retain

their shape and the gravitational pull of the Sun keeps them in orbit.

c)

The gravitational pull originating from the center of the planets allows the planets to retain

their shape and the magnetic force exerted on the planets by the Sun keeps them in orbit.

d)

The gravitational attraction of the planets towards neighboring planets allows them to

retain their shape and the magnetic force exerted on the planets by the Sun keeps them

in orbit.

37.

Which statement below best describes how scientists explain gravity’s role in the formation of our Solar System?

a)

The combined gravitational attraction between our planets was so large that it pulled the

Sun away from a nearby star cluster into the center of our Solar System.

b)

The eight planets in our Solar System were originally orbiting a nearby star, and the Sun’s

gravity was large enough to pull those planets into orbit around the Sun.

c)

Due to the expansion of neighboring solar systems, the gravitational attraction of our

planets to those solar systems forced the formation of the planets around our Sun.

d)

As the Sun was forming, the force of gravity caused surrounding dust grains to collide and

stick together, forming dust granules into increasingly larger bodies that became planets.

38.

Throughout history different models of the solar system have been used to describe where the sun and planets are in relation to each other. Which statement below best compares the heliocentric model to the geocentric model?

a)

The heliocentric model has the Sun at the center of the solar system, while the geocentric

model does not.

b)

The geocentric model has the Sun at the center of the solar system, while the heliocentric

model does not.

c)

The heliocentric model has the elliptical orbits of the solar system, while the geocentric

model shows circular orbits.

d)

The geocentric model has the elliptical orbits of the solar system, while the heliocentric

model shows circular orbits.

39.

What is an example of natural satellite

a)

a nebula

b)

the Hubble Space telescope

c)

the moon

d)

a galaxy

40.

Mercury is closer to the Sun than Venus but the average temperature of Venus is higher than Mercury. Which of the following statements best describe the reason the Venus has overall higher temperature than Mercury?

a)

Venus is larger in size when compared to Mercury.

b)

Venus has a thicker atmosphere that traps heat energy.

c)

Venus’ revolution around the Sun is shorter.

d)

Venus’ rotation is shorter than Mercury’s

41.
What moon phase is this picture?
a)
This is the waning crescent phase.
b)
This is the waxing gibbous phase.
c)
This is the waning gibbous phase.
d)
This is the new moon phase.
42.
As the moon's shape appears to get smaller, we say that the moon is _.
a)
swelling
b)
waxing
c)
waning
d)
disappearing
43.
Phases of the moon in which the moon appears to be getting larger are referred to as _.
a)
waxing
b)
waning
c)
new
d)
eclipse
44.
How long is a lunar month?  
a)
30
b)
29.5
c)
27
d)
27.3
45.
The Moon orbits Earth in a ________________ direction
a)
clockwise
b)
counterclockwise
c)
upwards
d)
downwards
46.

If Katherine wanted to represent a solar eclipse, at what position should she place the Moon?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

47.
Which type of eclipse occurs when the Moon comes directly between Earth and the Sun?
a)
Lunar eclipse
b)
Solar eclipse
48.
What is illuminating the Moon?
a)
Nuclear Fusion
b)
Sunlight
c)
Mirrors
d)
Flood Lights
49.

Name the eclipse.

a)

solar eclipse

b)

lunar eclipse

50.
A lunar eclipse only occurs during which moon phase?
a)
New Moon
b)
3rd Quarter
c)
Full Moon
d)
1st Quarter
51.
What are the reasons for the season?
a)
Earth's tilt & rotation
b)
Earth's tilt & revolution
c)
Earth's rotation & rovolution
d)
Earth's tilt & resolution
52.
What causes there to be longer number of hours of light during the summer
a)
Earth tilt's away from the sun in summer
b)
Earth's revolves slower in summer
c)
Earth tilts toward the sun in summer
d)
Earth is closer to the sun
53.
Why is it warmer in the summer?
a)
Closer to the sun
b)
More direct light from Earth's tilt
c)
Stronger light from the sun
d)
Earth spins slower
54.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
55.
When the moon is at full moon or new moon, what type of tide will we experience?
a)
rip tide
b)
spring tide
c)
neap tide
d)
breaker tide
56.

Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)

full moon tide

b)

new moon tide

c)

neap tide

d)

spring tide

57.
What happens when there is a spring tide
a)
high tides 
b)
really high tides
c)
low tides
58.
At higher temperatures
a)
particles in an object have less energy
b)
particles in an object move faster
c)
a gas contracts
59.

The slower the particles in a substance move,

a)

the colder it is.

b)

the warmer it is.

c)

the more energy it has.

60.
The temperature of a substance increases as___.
a)
the substance expands
b)
the average kinetic energy of its particles increases
c)
the substance's volume increases
d)
the substance's mass increases
61.

Basic state of matter with the greatest amount of energy.

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

62.

What happens to particles when their temperature increases?

a)

The particles move slower

b)

The particles move faster

c)

The particles lose mass

d)

The particles gain mass

63.

Liquid to Gas

a)

Condensation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Sublimation

64.

Solid to Gas

a)

Deposition

b)

Sublimation

c)

Evaporation

65.

The state of matter that has no definite size or shape is

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

66.
Which state of matter has a definite shape?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
67.

Boiling

a)

liquid to gas

b)

gas to solid

c)

gas to liquid

68.

Freezing

a)

Solid to gas

b)

Liquid to solid

c)

Gas to solid

69.
The amount of matter in an object is a measure of the object's ________________.
a)
volume
b)
density
c)
mass
d)
solubility
70.
Which of the following units provides the best measure for the amount of space that matter occupies?
a)
mL
b)
grams
c)
cm3
d)
Both mL and cm3
71.
What is the volume of the rock? The water level is displaced from 20 mL to 23 mL with the rock.
a)
3 mL
b)
23 mL
c)
20 mL
d)
43 mL
72.
Which statement is true?
a)
Oil is the most dense substance.
b)
Corn syrup is less dense than water.
c)
Oil is less dense than water.
d)
Oil and corn syrup have the same density but different masses.
73.
In which state does matter completely fill its closed container?
a)
Gas
b)
Liquid
c)
Solid
d)
Ice
74.
Which state of matter has a fixed shape and volume and it's molecules move very slowly?
a)
Liquid
b)
Gas
c)
Solid
d)
Plasma
75.
The boiling point of water is ______________.
a)
0° C
b)
50° C
c)
200° C
d)
100° C
76.
The volume of water in a beaker was 215 mL. After 5 days, the volume of the water was 200 mL. What best explains the change in volume?
a)
Some of the water absorbed the air. 
b)
Some of the water evaporated and escaped into the air as water vapor.
c)
Some of the water disappeared.
d)
Some of the water was released due to condensation.
77.
When a gas turns into a liquid, it is called ___________________.
a)
Condensation
b)
Evaporation
c)
Melting
d)
Freezing
78.
5 grams of salt was mixed with 50 mL of water to form a solution. In the solution, the water was which of the following?
a)
Solvent
b)
Saturate
c)
Solute
d)
Transparent
79.
I added scoop after scoop of a specific solute until I saw the solute build up at the bottom of the test tube and knew the solute was no longer able to dissolve. This is an example of a(n) _____________.
a)
Insoluble solute
b)
Solvent
c)
Saturated Solution
d)
Homogeneous Mixture
80.

A substance that cannot be broken down any further without losing its properties.

a)

Compound

b)

Mixture

c)

Element

d)

Suspension

81.

Subatomic particle with a positive charge

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

82.

The subatomic particle(s) found in the nucleus of an atom

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

83.

Subatomic particle with a negative charge

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

84.

Subatomic particle(s) located in the shells outside the nucleus

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

85.

Atoms are mostly...

a)

Tightly packed

b)

Empty space

86.

The mass of an atom is found by adding which subatomic particles?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

87.

The number of _______________ in an atom is represented by its atomic number.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

88.

If an atom has 12 neutrons and 11 protons, what is its atomic mass?

(a)  

89.

In an electrically-neutral atom, what two subatomic particles are equal in number?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

90.

How many protons does Helium (He) have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

91.

How many neutrons does Hydrogen (H) have?

(a)  

92.

 Steel 

a)

 Heterogeneous 

b)

 Homogeneous 

c)

 Compound 

d)

Element

93.

 Sugar 

a)

 Homogeneous 

 

b)

 Heterogeneous 

c)

 Compound 

d)

Element

94.

 Table Salt (NaCl) 

a)

 Heterogeneous 

b)

 Homogeneous 

c)

 Compound 

d)

 Element 

95.

 Coffee 

a)

 Homogeneous 

b)

 Heterogeneous 

c)

 Compound 

d)

Pure Substance

96.

 Orange juice with pulp

a)

 Homogeneous 

b)

 Heterogeneous 

c)

Compound

d)

Pure Substance

97.

 Copper 

a)

 Homogeneous 

b)

 Heterogeneous 

c)

Compound

d)

Element

98.

 Bronze 

a)

 Homogeneous 

b)

 Heterogeneous 

c)

 Element 

d)

 Compound 

99.

Milk

a)

 Heterogeneous 

b)

 Homogeneous 

c)

 Element 

d)

 Compound 

100.

Ice water

a)

 Homogeneous 

b)

 Heterogeneous 

c)

 Element 

d)

 Compound

101.

Pure Substances: matter that is always made up of the same combination of atoms.

Elements and compounds can both be considered pure substances.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Heterogeneous: A mixture in which the substances that make up the mixture are not evenly mixed.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Compounds are two or more substances chemically bonded together.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Depends on the compound

d)

Compounds are not chemically bonded together

104.

Which of the following is an example of a compound?

a)

Iron

b)

Water

c)

Bronze

d)

Steel

105.

Which of the following best describes compounds?

a)

They can only be separated chemically

b)

They are always liquid at room temperature

c)

They contain the atoms of just one element

d)

They are the same properties as their elements

106.

 Air 

a)

 Homogeneous 

 Mixture 

b)

 Heterogeneous 

 Mixture 

c)

 Pure Substance

d)

 Element 

107.

___________ are the smallest unit of an element that maintains the properties of that element.

a)

Atoms

b)

Elements

c)

Compounds

d)

Mixtures

108.

An _______________ is made up of one or more of the same kind of atom chemically combined.

a)

atom

b)

element

c)

molecule

d)

compound

109.

A ______________ is made up of different kinds of atoms chemically combined.

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

mixture

d)

molecule

110.

True or False: elements AND compounds are pure substances.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Elements are broadly classified as metals, nonmetals, and _________________.

a)

compounds

b)

organic

c)

metalloids

d)

Metallica

112.

A ______________ mixture is one that does not have a uniform composition.

a)

heterogeneous

b)

homogenous

c)

pure substance

113.

A _________________ mixture is one where the substances are evenly spread throughout.

a)

heterogeneous

b)

homogeneous

c)

pure substance

114.

In a ______________, one substance is dissolved in another substance.

a)

solution

b)

suspension

c)

colloid

115.

Fruit Loops, pizza, and Skittles are examples of ____________________ mixtures.

a)

heterogeneous

b)

homogeneous

c)

pure

116.

Coffee, mouthwash, and vinegar are examples of __________________ mixtures.

a)

heterogeneous

b)

homogeneous

c)

pure

117.

Which of these is an element?

a)

Salt (NaCl)

b)

Water (H20)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

118.

Air is:

a)

An element

b)

A compound

c)

A mixture

d)

None of these

119.
The picture shown here is what type of mixture?
a)
homogeneous
b)
hetergeneous
c)
pure substance
d)
element
120.
What is the smallest unit of matter?
a)
atom
b)
element
c)
molecule
d)
compound
121.
Which of the following is a physical property of matter? 
a)
Flammability
b)
Reactivity
c)
Solubility
d)
Combustability 
122.
Physical or chemical change?
cutting a piece of paper in half
a)
Physical
b)
Chemical
123.
Physical or chemical change?
a sliced banana turns brown after sitting out for a while
a)
Physical
b)
Chemical
124.
Physical or chemical change?
sugar is dissolved into hot tea
a)
Physical
b)
Chemical
125.
Physical or chemical property?
density
a)
Physical
b)
Chemical
126.
How are physical and chemical properties different?
a)
Chemical properties only apply to chemicals. Physical properties apply to everything.
b)
Chemical properties are only observable as the substance is changing. Physical properties are easily observed or measured.
c)
Chemical properties are easy to reverse, and physical properties cannot be reversed. 
127.
Over time, pure silver that is exposed to air turns a strange greyish brown color. This is an example of a ________________ change. 
a)
Physical
b)
Chemical
128.
Name that physical property!
the ability of a substance to be hammered into thin sheets
a)
Thermal conductivity
b)
Ductility
c)
Solubility
d)
Malleability
129.
Name that physical property!
the ability of a substance to carry heat from one area to another
a)
Thermal conductivity
b)
Ductility
c)
Solubility
d)
Malleability
130.
Name that physical property!
The ability of a substance to be pulled into thin wires
a)
Thermal conductivity
b)
Ductility
c)
Solubility
d)
Malleability
131.

Flammability?

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

132.

Chemical or Physical:

A characteristic of matter that can be observed with your 5 senses is a ____________ property.

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

133.

Chemical or Physical:

A characteristic of matter that can only be observed when matter is changed into a new kind of matter.

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

134.

Chemical or Physical:

The words "blue", "large", and "soft" all describe __________ properties.

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

135.

Chemical or Physical:

The ability to cook, burn, rust, tarnish, or explode is an example of a ___________ property.

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

136.
Reacts with Acid: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
137.

This change is a

a)

chemical reaction

b)

physical change

c)

musical change

d)

Ice Ice baby

138.
Hydrochloric acid reacts with potassium hydroxide to produce a salt, water,and heat.
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
139.
Sugar dissolves in water
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
140.

Anything that has mass and takes up space is

a)

matter

b)

mass

c)

concentration

d)

dissolve

141.
Which organelle performs PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria
142.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
143.
What process occurs when light energy is captured in autotrophs and converted into sugar?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Cellular Respiration
144.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
145.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
146.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
147.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
148.
What is photosynthesis?
a)
The process in which humans eat their food
b)
When a photographer takes a photo.
c)
To get your pictures from the photo lab.
d)
The process in which plants make their food.
149.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
150.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
151.
Fermentation enables glycolysis to continue under 
a)
anaerobic conditions
b)
aerobic conditions
c)
photosynthetic conditions
d)
hydrophobic conditions
152.

Cellular Respiration occurs in what cell organelle?

a)

chloroplast

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

animal

153.

Which molecule is the reactant of Glycolysis?

a)

water

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ATP

154.
What type of respiration requires oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
155.
What type of respiration does not require oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
156.
Which type of respiration is most efficient?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
157.

What are the reactants (taken into) of cellular respiration? (Mark all of them!)

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

e)

energy

158.

Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration (Kreb's Cycle and Electron Transport Chain) occurs in the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

vacuoles

159.

Cellular Respiration's goal is to

a)

make water

b)

make ATP

c)

make glucose

d)

make oxygen

160.

What are the products (what is released) of cellular respiration? (Mark all of them!)

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

e)

ATP (energy)

161.
What does NOT produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
162.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
163.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
164.
What process occurs when coal (fossil fuel) is used for energy?
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Pressurization 
d)
Respiration 
165.
Respiration is the process by which animals take in _____ and release _____. 
a)
photosynthesis, air
b)
carbon, oxygen
c)
oxygen
d)
oxygen, carbon dioxide
166.

Which gas do plants release, that humans depend on for survival?

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sugar

167.

The process of plants turning carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and sugar is called

a)

Respiration

b)

Oxidation

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Combustion

168.

How does the human body return carbon to the atmosphere in the carbon cycle?

a)

Waste products

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Formation of glucose

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