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HBS III (Endo/Repro/Immune)

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cells that ingest pathogens are

a)

antigens

b)

white blood cells

c)

red blood cells

d)

antibodies

2.

White blood cells involved in humoral immunity mature in the___________

a)

bone marrow

b)

spleen

c)

thymus

d)

tonsiles

e)

blood plasma

3.

Something that triggers an immune response is a/n

a)

antibiotic

b)

antigen

c)

antibody

d)

receptor

4.
What do scientists call bacteria and viruses that can make people sick?  
a)

diseases

b)

vaccines

c)

antibodies

d)

pathogens

e)

antigens

5.
 Like all other body systems, the immune system helps the body maintain homeostasis.  Which statement best describes how the immune system does this?  
a)
it protects other organs and tissues from infection and disease
b)
it breaks down food to provide cells with nutrients
c)
it gathers information through the senses and controls all other body systems
d)
 it transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
6.
Diseases are passed from human to human by these four types of germs: 
a)
Viruses, influenza, HIV, and vaccines
b)
Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites
c)
Viruses, cancers, mutagens, and DNA
d)
Viruses, blood, pollutants, and symptoms
7.

What do antibodies attach to on the pathogen?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antigens

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Antibodies

8.
Pathogens are recognized by their...
a)
antigens
b)
antibodies
c)
killer t-cells
d)
B-cells
9.
Antigens are part of...
a)
Your own immune system.
b)
The pathogen.
10.
Antibodies are made by...
a)
Your own cells.
b)
The pathogen.
11.
What is the role of antibodies?
a)
Kills pathogens
b)
Helps activate other immune cells
c)
Produces antibodies
d)
Binds to antigens and neutralizes pathogen
12.
The body detects pathogens by their...
a)

Antigens

b)

Antibodies

c)

Histamines

d)

DNA

e)

Allergens

13.
Antibiotics work against most
a)
Bacteria
b)
Bacteria & Viruses
c)
Vaccines
d)
Viruses
14.

You are a doctor and Little Billy is in your office with the flu. His mother wants you to prescribe an antibiotic. Which would be the best response?

a)

"Absolutely, get that kid an antibiotic!"

b)

"Actually, he just needs to take a painkiller."

c)

"Unfortunately, antibiotics do not work against viruses like the flu."

d)

"Give him a vaccine and he will feel better right away!"

15.

A/an ________ is an injection of a weakened form of a pathogen to help the individual gain immunity from a disease.

a)

Virus

b)

Vacuum

c)

Vaccine

d)

Antibiotic

16.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about vaccinations?

a)

Allow B cells to make antibodies for any type of antigen the body comes in contact with.

b)

Triggers the body to make memory cells for specific pathogens.

c)

They are substances prepared from killed or weakened pathogens.

d)

Always allows the body to resist an infectious disease any time it comes into contact with it.

17.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about someone's immune system that has allergies?

a)

Body cells are dividing at an uncontrolled rate.

b)

The body is reacting to foreign antigens that are not dangerous to most people.

c)

T cells and B cells in the body cannot be activated.

d)

The body is mistaking its own cells for foreign antigens.

18.

What is the term for a strong response to a harmless antigen in the environment?

a)

An allergy

b)

Cell-mediated immunity

c)

An autoimmune disease

d)

Inflammatory response

19.

The proteins found on the surface of RBCs that allow us to type blood as A, B, O or AB are called

a)

antigens

b)

antibodies

c)

aggluntates

d)

Rh factors

20.

Which blood types have Type A antibodies?

a)

Type AB

b)

Type A

c)

Type B

d)

Type O

21.

Destiny has blood type B, what antigens are present?

a)

None

b)

A

c)

B

d)

O

22.
If a red blood cell has no antigens on its surface, what is its blood type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
23.

Someone who has Type O blood has what for antibodies?

a)

No antibodies

b)

A antibodies

c)

B antibodies

d)

O antibodies

24.

What causes your body to have an allergic response?

a)

antibody

b)

allergens

c)

wbc

d)

macrophages

25.

__________ immunity is when the body makes its own antibodies.

a)

passive

b)

active

c)

lucid

d)

auto

26.

Which immunity is present at birth and passed from the mother to the baby through milk and the placenta?

a)

Artificial Active Immunity

b)

Natural Active immunity

c)

Natural passive immunity

d)

Artificial passive immunity

27.

immunity in which antibodies are given to a person rather than produced within the person's own body

a)

Artificial Passive Immunity

b)

Natural Passive Immunity

c)

Artificial Active Immunity

d)

Natural Active Immunity

28.
What body system is attacked by the HIV virus?
a)

The reproductive system

b)

The respiratory system

c)

The endocrine system

d)

The immune system

e)

The circulatory system

29.
What does the HIV virus do inside the T cell?
a)
destroy the T cell immediately
b)
make copies of itself then destroy the T cell
c)
hang out forever
d)
the virus doesn't affect the T cell at all
30.
When HIV destroys most of the T cells and the person becomes very sick, we say they have
a)
HIV 
b)
AIDS
c)
STI
d)
CVS
31.

Causes an overproduction of white blood cells that crowd the blood.

a)

leukemia

b)

heart disease

c)

hemophilia

d)

sickle-cell anemia

32.

White blood cells primarily involved in cell-mediated immunity are called...

a)

B-Cells

b)

T-Cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Phagocytes

e)

Antibodies

33.

Transplant recipients must take ___________ to avoid rejection.

a)

immune system boosters

b)

Antibodies

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Immunosuppressants

e)

Antigens

34.

Which of the following are part of a non-specific, physical, first line of defense

a)

Skin

b)

Cilia

c)

Oil and Sweat Gland Secretions

d)

Antigens

e)

Lysozyme

35.

Which of the following are part of a non-specific, second line of defense?

a)

Inflammatory Response

b)

Interferons

c)

Fever

d)

Antibodies

e)

Antigens

36.

Which of the following are part of a specific defense?

a)

Immune Response

b)

Interferons

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antibody Production

e)

Antigen Production

37.

What do you take to inhibit the inflammatory response when the trigger is nonpathogenic?

a)

Histamines

b)

Antihistamines

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Immunosuppressants

e)

Tylenol

38.

Why is it important to finish ALL of an antibiotic, even if you feel better?

a)

If all of the infectious bacteria are not killed, the bacteria may continue to multiply. Some of these bacteria may have a mutation that makes them resistant to the antibiotic. This could cause resistant bacteria to spread.

b)

If all of the antibiotic is not used, the surviving bacteria may learn how to fight off the antibiotic, causing the sickness to get even worse.

c)

If all of the antibiotic is not used, the bacteria may begin ingesting your skin cells, causing a new sickness to arise.

d)

If all of the antibiotic is not used, the surviving bacteria may cooperate with other infectious bacteria, resulting in two separate infections at the same time.

39.

Which option correctly outlines the sequence of events once bacteria are exposed to antibiotics?

a)

1. Non-resistant bacteria die.

2. Resistant bacteria exist due to variation.

3. Resistant bacteria survive, replicate and pass resistance to next generation.

b)

1. Resistant bacteria die.

2.Non-resistant bacteria exist due to variation.

3. Non-resistant bacteria survive, replicate and pass resistance to next generation.

c)

1. All bacteria die.

2. The person taking the antibiotic develops resistance to the antibiotic if used again.

40.

Which of the following are issues associated with the use of antibiotics and antibiotic resistance?

a)

Overuse of antibiotics can contribute to antibiotic resistance.

b)

Resistant bacteria can pass 'their resistance' to other bacteria.

c)

There are some bacteria which are resistant to antibiotics currently available.

d)

People themselves can develop resistance to antibiotics

41.

Select the example of something which does not cause antibiotic resistance.

a)

Not finishing a course of antibiotics.

b)

Giving antibiotics to live stock (animals we eat).

c)

Using antibiotics when we don't need them.

d)

Finishing a course of antibiotics.

42.

Endocrine glands secrete __________.

a)

Hormones

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

A wide range of chemical substances

d)

Glucose

e)

Antibodies

43.

What is the endocrine system?

a)

A system of vessels that circulates blood around the body.

b)

A group of bones and tissue that provides support and structure for the body.

c)

A group of glands that work together with the nervous system to coordinate all body functions

d)

A group of organs that is responsible for eliminating wastes.

44.

What is the main function of the endocrine system?

a)

It creates chemicals, or hormones, that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

b)

It creates electrical messages that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

c)

It maintains the correct level of oxygen in the body to maintain homeostasis.

d)

It releases waste from the body to maintain homeostasis.

45.

The "master gland" is known as the __________________.

a)

thyroid gland.

b)

adrenal gland.

c)

pancreas.

d)

pituitary gland.

e)

hypothalmus

46.
The gland that stimulates body metabolism
a)

thyroid

b)

testes

c)

ovary

d)

adrenal

e)

parathyroids

47.

The adrenal glands release adrenaline to help the body regulate _________________.

a)

diseases

b)

body temperature.

c)

stress.

d)

hormones.

e)

sexual development

48.

Which of the following are chemicals that travel in the blood and cause changes in different parts of the body?

a)

Hormones

b)

Glands

c)

Parathyroid

d)

Adrenal Gland

e)

Neurotransmitters

49.

The response to stress is called

a)

Stay or Stray Response

b)

Fight or Stay Response

c)

Flee or Stray Response

d)

Fight or Flight Response

50.

Which term refers to the body's use of energy for energy and growth?

a)

Excretion

b)

Metabolism

c)

Digestion

d)

Respiration

e)

Reproduction

51.

Hormone regulation operates mostly under which type of feedback mechanism?

a)

positive feedback

b)

negative feedback

c)

zero feedback

d)

Hormones are not regulated

e)

feedback inhibition

52.

Which hormone lowers blood sugar?

a)

insulin

b)

glucagon

c)

glycogen

d)

liver

e)

thyroxine

53.

Which hormone raises blood sugar?

a)

insulin

b)

glucagon

c)

glycogen

d)

glucose

e)

parathormone

54.

The liver stores excess glucose as ___________

a)

starch

b)

glucagon

c)

glycogen

d)

insulin

55.

Insulin and glucagon are produced by the _______

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

pituitary

d)

thyroid

e)

parathyroids

56.

Insulin and glucagon target the _______

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

pituitary

d)

thyroid

e)

adrenal cortex

57.

The part of the brain that coordinates with the endocrine system is the...

a)

pituitary

b)

hypothalamus

c)

thyroid

d)

pancreas

e)

cerebellum

58.

thyroxine production is inhibited by...

a)

hypocalcemia

b)

hypercalcemia

c)

low iodine levels

d)

high iodine levels

e)

hyperglycemia

59.

When you are hypocalcemic, the _______ will secret _______.

a)

parathyroid; PTH

b)

thyroid; PTH

c)

thyroid; Calcitonin

d)

parathyroid; Calcitonin

e)

thyroid; thyroxine

60.

When you are hypercalcemic, the _______ will secret _______.

a)

parathyroid; PTH

b)

thyroid; PTH

c)

thyroid; Calcitonin

d)

parathyroid; Calcitonin

e)

pancreas; insulin

61.

Calcitonin and PTH target which of the following tissues...

a)

Bones

b)

Kidneys

c)

Small intestine

d)

Parathyroids

e)

Liver

62.

Calcitonin causes the bones to...

a)

Release stored calcium into the blood

b)

Reabsorb calcium from the blood and store it

63.

TSH target which of the following tissues...

a)

Bones

b)

Kidneys

c)

Small intestine

d)

Parathyroids

e)

Thyroid

64.

PTH causes the bones to...

a)

Release stored calcium into the blood

b)

Reabsorb calcium from the blood and store in

65.

PTH causes the small intestine to...

a)

Absorb less calcium

b)

Absorb more calcium

66.

Calcitonin causes the small intestine to...

a)

Absorb less calcium

b)

Absorb more calcium

67.

Calcitonin causes the kidneys to...

a)

Reabsorb less calcium

b)

Reabsorb more calcium

68.

PTH causes the kidneys to...

a)

Reabsorb less calcium

b)

Reabsorb more calcium

69.

Which of the following is a sign of a thyroid disorder?

a)

goiter

b)

tetany

c)

adenoma

d)

hypoglycemia

e)

kidney stones

70.

Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperparathyroidism?

a)

goiter

b)

tetany

c)

adenoma

d)

osteoporosis

e)

kidney stones

71.
What is gland #3?
a)
Adrenal Gland
b)
Pancreas
c)
Ovaries
d)
Testes
72.
Letter H is pointing to
a)
Thymus
b)
Pancreas
c)
Pituitary
d)
Pineal
73.
Letter I is pointing to
a)
Testes
b)
Oviducts
c)
Ovaries
d)
Adrenals
74.

Letter J is pointing to

a)

Ovaries

b)

Pineal Gland

c)

Adrenal

d)

Testes

75.

The gland labeled 4 in the diagram is?

a)

the thymus gland

b)

the thyroid gland

c)

the parathyroid glands

d)

the adrenal glands

76.
Negative Feedback Loops:
a)
amplify processes
b)
prevent small changes from getting larger
c)
are initiated during childbirth
d)
are found only in plants
77.

Cells that have receptors for a particular hormone.

a)

gland cells

b)

neurons

c)

hormones

d)

target cells

78.

This structure releases what hormones?

a)

insulin and glucagon

b)

calcitonin and estrogen

c)

Parathyroid hormone and antidiuretic hormone

d)

epinephrine and testosterone

79.

Which of the following does NOT refer to the product of meiosis?

a)

zygote

b)

gamete

c)

egg cell

d)

sperm cell

80.

Which of the following does NOT refer to a purpose for mitosis?

a)

growth

b)

repair

c)

asexual reproduction

d)

sexual reproduction

81.
What is structure #3
a)
Ovary
b)
Fundus
c)
Fallopian Tube
d)
I don't know
82.
reproductive organs that produce eggs and hormones
a)

cervix

b)

vagina

c)

ovaries

d)

uterus

e)

fallopian tubes

83.
The part of the female reproductive system where fertilization takes place
a)

Uterus

b)

Womb

c)

Vaginal opening

d)

Fallopian Tubes

e)

Ovaries

84.

The two hormones that maintain the lining of the uterus are:

a)

FSH and estrogen

b)

LH and estrogen

c)

estrogen

d)

Progesterone and estrogen

85.
On what day of the cycle is ovulation?
a)

Day 4

b)

Day 8

c)

Day 14

d)

Day 28

e)

Day 1

86.
What do we call a fertilized egg?
a)
Sperm
b)
Testosterone
c)
Zygote
d)
Egg
87.
What is the process called when a sperm and egg produce a zygote?
a)
Reproduction
b)
Excretion
c)
Fertilization
d)
Sneezing
88.

The human male reproductive system is adapted for the production of

a)

sperm and the delivery of these cells for internal fertilization

b)

gametes that transport food to the egg

c)

zygotes and the development of these cells into a fetus

d)

hormones that stimulate placenta formation in the male

89.

A diagram of the human male reproductive system is given. Which structure produces cells that become sperm?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

90.

Base your answers to questions 10 on

the picture given which represents systems in a

human male and on your knowledge of biology.

Which structure has both reproductive and

excretory functions?

a)

A

b)

G

c)

C

d)

D

91.

The diagram GIVEN represents a human reproductive system. Meiosis occurs within structure

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

92.
The nesting of a fertilized egg in the wall of the uterus.
a)
Implantation
b)
Fertilization
c)
Conception
d)
Menstruation
93.
Where a baby grows and develops for approximately 9 months.
a)
Stomach
b)
Bladder
c)
Vagina
d)
Uterus
94.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
95.
Compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?
a)
The same number
b)
One-fourth as many
c)
Twice as many
d)
Half as many
96.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
97.

The diagram below represents some stages of early embryonic development. Which process is represented by the arrows in the diagram?

a)

meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Fertilization

d)

Evolution

98.

LH and FSH are produced in the ____ and target the ____.

a)

ovaries, pituitary

b)

pituitary, ovaries

c)

hypothalamus, pituitary

d)

testes, pitutary

e)

pituitary, mammary glands

99.

What is the periodic shedding of tissues and blood from the inner lining of the

uterus?

a)

menopause

b)

ovulation

c)

pregnancy

d)

menstruation

100.

What is considered as the ovulation day for regular menstrual cycle?

a)

1st day

b)

7th day

c)

14th day

d)

28th day

101.

In males, which is the correct pathway of sperms release?

a)

Seminiferous tubules - Vas deferens - Epididymis - Urethra

b)

Vas deferens - Seminiferous tubules - Epididymis - Urethra

c)

Epididymis - Vas deferens - Seminiferous tubules - Urethra

d)

Seminiferous tubules - Epididymis - Vas deferens - Urethra

102.

Identify the structure labeled "B".

a)

Fallopian Tubes

b)

Ovaries

c)

Uterus

d)

Placenta

103.

The entire nervous system arises from the:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

104.
Stem cells are
a)
cells that grow uncontrollably
b)
undifferentiated and can be any type of cell
c)
never go through cell division
d)
only found in embryos
105.

On what day of the cycle is menstruation?

a)

Day 4

b)

Day 8

c)

Day 14

d)

Day 18

e)

Day 1

106.

Which phase follows ovulation?

a)

menstruation

b)

follicular

c)

luteal

d)

gastrulation

e)

neurulation

107.

Which phase follows menstruation?

a)

menstruation

b)

follicular

c)

luteal

d)

gastrulation

e)

neurulation

108.

Which hormones most directly influence the uterus during pregnancy?

a)

testosterone and insulin

b)

progesterone and testosterone

c)

estrogen and insulin

d)

progesterone and estrogen

109.

The hormones estrogen and progesterone are produced within this structure.

a)

Ovaries

b)

Testes

c)

Uterus

d)

Pituitary

e)

Fallopian Tubes

110.

Which phase most immediately follows implantation?

a)

menstruation

b)

follicular

c)

luteal

d)

gastrulation

e)

neurulation

111.

Which phase includes the development of the brain and spinal cord?

a)

ovulation

b)

follicular

c)

luteal

d)

gastrulation

e)

neurulation

112.

From which embryonic layer do muscle and bone develop?

a)

mesoderm

b)

endoderm

c)

ectoderm

d)

epidermis

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