Free Printable 137 Semester 2 Final Exam

1.

A gray elephant stampeding across the Savannah is an example of a observation.

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Neither quantitative nor qualitative

2.

Steve used a ruler to measure the length of a cube. He found the cube to be 3 cm. This is an example of a observation.

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Neither qualitative nor quantitative

3.

What kind of observation is in the picture?

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Neither quantitative nor qualitative

4.

What kind of observation is this: 30 mL of water

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Neither quantitative nor qualitative

5.

What kind of observation is this: 10 grams of sugar in a snack

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Neither quantitative nor qualitative

6.

Larry wants to test different types of fertilizer on tomato plants. He wants to see if one works better than the rest. He has 4 plants. The first one gets no fertilizer, the second one gets fertilizer A, the third Fertilizer B, and the fourth Fertilizer C. They each get the same amount of sunlight, same amount of soil, same type of soil, same amount of water, and are grown in the same air temperature in the same greenhouse. Larry is counting the total weight of tomatoes produced by each plant to determine how well the fertilizers worked. what is the independent variable/

a)

type of fertilizer

b)

same type of soil

c)

weight of tomatoes grown

d)

same amount of soil

7.

Larry wants to test different types of fertilizer on tomato plants. He wants to see if one works better than the rest. He has 4 plants. The first one gets no fertilizer, the second one gets fertilizer A, the third Fertilizer B, and the fourth Fertilizer C. They each get the same amount of sunlight, same amount of soil, same type of soil, same amount of water, and are grown in the same air temperature in the same greenhouse. Larry is counting the total weight of tomatoes produced by each plant to determine how well the fertilizers worked. what are the constants?

a)

Fertilizer A

b)

same amount of sunlight

c)

same type of soil

d)

same air temperature

8.

Larry wants to test different types of fertilizer on tomato plants. He wants to see if one works better than the rest. He has 4 plants. The first one gets no fertilizer, the second one gets fertilizer A, the third Fertilizer B, and the fourth Fertilizer C. They each get the same amount of sunlight, same amount of soil, same type of soil, same amount of water, and are grown in the same air temperature in the same greenhouse. Larry is counting the total weight of tomatoes produced by each plant to determine how well the fertilizers worked. what is a good hypothesis?

a)

The effect of fertilizer on tomato growth

b)

If you use fertilizer on tomato plants then the plants will produce more tomatoes by weight because of the nutrients found in the fertilizer.

c)

If you don't use fertilizer the plants won't grow

9.

Larry wants to test different types of fertilizer on tomato plants. He wants to see if one works better than the rest. He has 4 plants. The first one gets no fertilizer, the second one gets fertilizer A, the third Fertilizer B, and the fourth Fertilizer C. They each get the same amount of sunlight, same amount of soil, same type of soil, same amount of water, and are grown in the same air temperature in the same greenhouse. Larry is counting the total weight of tomatoes produced by each plant to determine how well the fertilizers worked. What is the dependent variable?

a)

the type of fertilizer

b)

the plant with no fertilizer

c)

the weight of tomatoes produced

d)

same amount of soil

10.

Blanche wants to try out different types of cleaners to clean the school floors. She experiments using cleaner A, cleaner B, cleaner C, and then just water. She puts cleaner a on 4 tiles, cleaner b on 4 tiles, cleaner c on 4 tiles, and then she cleans the last 4 tiles with just water. She uses the same amount of cleaner, the same type of times, the same amount of grime on the times, same air temperature, and leaves it on for the same amount of time. at the end, she identifies which one has the least amount of remaining grime to identify which cleaner worked best. What are some constants?

a)

amount of grime left after cleaning

b)

same amount of cleaner

c)

same amount of grime to start

d)

same amount of time

11.

Blanche wants to try out different types of cleaners to clean the school floors. She experiments using cleaner A, cleaner B, cleaner C, and then just water. She puts cleaner a on 4 tiles, cleaner b on 4 tiles, cleaner c on 4 tiles, and then she cleans the last 4 tiles with just water. She uses the same amount of cleaner, the same type of times, the same amount of grime on the times, same air temperature, and leaves it on for the same amount of time. at the end, she identifies which one has the least amount of remaining grime to identify which cleaner worked best. What is the independent variable?

a)

types of cleaner

b)

the tiles washed with only water

c)

same amount of cleaner

12.

Blanche wants to try out different types of cleaners to clean the school floors. She experiments using cleaner A, cleaner B, cleaner C, and then just water. She puts cleaner a on 4 tiles, cleaner b on 4 tiles, cleaner c on 4 tiles, and then she cleans the last 4 tiles with just water. She uses the same amount of cleaner, the same type of times, the same amount of grime on the times, same air temperature, and leaves it on for the same amount of time. at the end, she identifies which one has the least amount of remaining grime to identify which cleaner worked best. What is a good hypothesis?

a)

If you use cleaner on tile floor, then it will remove more grime because of the properties of the cleaners.

b)

The effect of cleaners on floor tile

c)

clean tiles

13.

Blanche wants to try out different types of cleaners to clean the school floors. She experiments using cleaner A, cleaner B, cleaner C, and then just water. She puts cleaner a on 4 tiles, cleaner b on 4 tiles, cleaner c on 4 tiles, and then she cleans the last 4 tiles with just water. She uses the same amount of cleaner, the same type of times, the same amount of grime on the times, same air temperature, and leaves it on for the same amount of time. at the end, she identifies which one has the least amount of remaining grime to identify which cleaner worked best. Which is the dependent variable?

a)

different types of cleaner

b)

tiles cleaned with only water

c)

the effect of cleaners on floor tiles

d)

the amount of grime remaining after cleaning

14.

A change in a gene, group of genes or chromosome that results in a change in the proteins

a)

Replication

b)

Mutations

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

15.

One nucleotide base is changed so only one amino acid

is affected

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Inverse Mutation

16.

A substitution mutation that has no effect

on amino acids sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Translocation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Deletion Mutation

17.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

18.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base

is removed from the DNA sequence.

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Substitution Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Silent Mutation

19.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base is added

to the DNA sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Substitution Mutation

d)

Chromosomal Mutation

20.

Mutations are...

a)

always good

b)

always bad

c)

sometimes good or bad

d)

sometimes good, bad, or neutral

21.

Based on the DNA sequences shown, the unknown species is most closely related to ________.

a)

Species I

b)

Species II

c)

Species III

d)

Species IV

22.

The example shown of these 2 mammals incubating their offspring in a pouch provides evidence that they______.

a)

belong to the same species

b)

must range great distances to eat

c)

have very similar skeletal structures

d)

are descended from a common ancestory

23.

Based on the table, which organisms are more closely related?

a)

G. atlantica and G. stehini

b)

G. galloti palmae and G. stehini

c)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. stehini

d)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti palmae

24.

Which beetles are more fit for the environment?

a)

Green beetles

b)

Brown beetles

25.

What is biological fitness?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring.

d)

Being ale to survive long enough to reach adult age.

26.

Based on the cladogram, the chimp will be more closely related to the _________.

a)

Hagfish

b)

Salamander

c)

Lizard

d)

Mouse

27.

Which of the following definitions best describes adaptation?

a)

The ability of an individual to survive and reproduce in its specific environment

b)

An inherited characteristic of an organism which makes that organism better suited to its environment

c)

A fact or situation that occurs in nature

28.

Animals that are better adapted to their environment are

a)

Stronger

b)

More Biologically Fit

c)

Less Biologically Fit

29.

True or False

Biological fitness is a measure of how strong an animal is

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Indigenous (native) people of which country would be expected to have the darkest skin color?

a)

Southwestern Canada

b)

Northwestern Brazil

c)

Southwestern China

d)

Western Australia

31.

Indigenous (native) people of which country would be expected to have the lightest skin color?

a)

Southwestern Canada

b)

Northwestern Brazil

c)

Southwestern China

d)

Western Australia

32.

Which factor is directly responsible for the skin pigmentation you were born with?

a)

Your exposure to the sun

b)

Different amounts and types of melanin

c)

The food you eat

d)

Weather you live in hot or cold temperatures

33.

What does melanin protect?

a)

The nucleus

b)

Nucleic acid

c)

Folate

d)

All of the above

34.

What selective advantage did people have to increase melanin production?

a)

Increased protection from skin cancer

b)

Increased protection from folate destruction

c)

Increased synthesis of vitamin D

d)

All of the above

35.

What selective advantage did people have to lose increased melanin production? (Or in other words, to have less melanin?)

a)

Increased protection from skin cancer

b)

Increased protection from folate destruction

c)

Increased synthesis of vitamin D

d)

All of the above

36.

Which population would be most at risk for having a folate deficiency?

a)

People with less melanin living near the equator

b)

People with less melanin living near the poles

c)

People with more melanin living near the equator

d)

People with more melanin living near the poles

37.

Which population would be most at risk for developing rickets, a skeletal disorder that is caused by a lack of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate?

a)

People with less melanin living near the equator

b)

People with less melanin living near the poles

c)

People with more melanin living near the equator

d)

People with more melanin living near the poles

38.

Claim: Biological traits are features that are good or bad.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Claim: Biological traits are features that enhance an organism’s odds of survival.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Claim: Human populations changed over many, many generations because they needed to change to increase their fitness (chance of surviving to reproduce and pass on their traits to their offspring).

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What are plants called in a food chain?

a)

Producers

b)

Consumers

c)

Decomposers

d)

Scavengers

42.

What are animals called in a food chain?

a)

Producers

b)

Consumers

c)

Decomposers

d)

Plants

43.

Where does the energy start in this food chain?

a)

Plant

b)

Sun

c)

Deer

d)

Wolf

44.

What is the role of decomposers in a food chain?

a)

Use sunlight to make food

b)

Eat other organisms to gain energy

c)

Make the food for the whole food chain

d)

Break down dead organisms and add nutrients to the soil

45.

The animals in this image are examples of _________________________ .

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Herbivores

c)

Producers

d)

Heterotrophs

46.

The primary consumer in this food chain is the ____________.

a)

Frog

b)

Eagle

c)

Grasshopper

d)

Python

47.

On average how much energy is passed to a higher level in the food web?

a)

90%

b)

25%

c)

10%

d)

50%

48.

The shrew provides energy for the _______.

a)

cricket

b)

grasshopper

c)

frog

d)

snake

49.

An autotroph is another word for a ________, meaning it needs to ________

a)

Consumer, eat other animals

b)

Consumer, eat other plants

c)

Producer, make its own food

d)

Producer, survive without water

50.

A species that plays a critical role in the health, maintenance, growth, or definition of an ecosystem.

a)

keystone

b)

invasive

c)

engineer

d)

predator

51.

Which of the following would be the most likely effect, if there were a sudden increase in the cricket population?

a)

There would be a decrease in the small bird population.

b)

There would be a decrease in the grass/flowers population.

c)

There would be a decrease in the mice population.

d)

There would be an increase in the grass/flowers population.

52.

In this food chain, what will happen if the frogs become extinct?

a)

The snakes will increase.

b)

The grasshoppers will decrease.

c)

The eagles will remain the same.

d)

The grasshoppers will increase.

53.

Which one of the following keystone examples is a keystone predator found in the tidal pools of northwestern North America and was the species that launched Robert Paine’s keystone species concept?

a)

starfish

b)

sea otters

c)

beavers

d)

wolves

e)

elephants

54.

Which one of the following keystone examples play a vital role in the health of coastal kelp forests?

a)

starfish

b)

sea otters

c)

beavers

d)

wolves

e)

elephants

55.

Based on the graph shown, how can you tell sea otters are a keystone species?

a)

as the sea otter population decreases, other species are affected

b)

as sea otter population increases, other species are affected

c)

changes in the sea otter population have little effect on biodiversity

d)

the sea otter population decreases due to the presence of urchins

56.

The 10% rule states that only 10% of the available energy makes it from one trophic level to the next. If the producers have 100,000 kcals available how many kcals would be available to the primary consumers?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1,000

d)

10,000

57.

In this energy pyramid, which organisms have the most energy available?

a)

Producers

b)

Carnivores

c)

Herbivores

d)

Top Predator

58.

The main purpose of Cellular Respiration is to

a)

make carbon dioxide

b)

make water

c)

make glucose

d)

make ATP

59.

Which of these correctly lists the reactants of cellular respiration?

a)

glucose and oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

ATP and carbon dioxide

d)

water and glucose

60.

Which cell process is represented by this equation:
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂+ 6H₂O + ATP

a)

diffusion

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cell respiration

d)

mitosis

61.

Which of these is a reactant of cellular respiration?

a)

glucose

b)

oxygen

c)

Both glucose and oxygen.

d)

None of these.

62.

What is the gas we breath out that plants use for photosynthesis?

a)

sulfur

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

hydrogen

63.

In which eukaryotic organelles does photosynthesis occur?

a)

mitochondria

b)

stomata

c)

xylem

d)

chloroplast

64.

The reactants of photosynthesis are

a)

sugar and water.

b)

sugar and oxygen.

c)

carbon dioxide and water.

d)

carbon dioxide and oxygen.

65.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Carbon dioxide and oxygen

c)

Glucose and oxygen

d)

Glucose and water

66.

What are the products of cellular respiration?

a)

Energy (ATP), Water, and Carbon DIoxide.

b)

Water and Oxygen

c)

Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

d)

Water and Energy (ATP)

67.

What reactants are there in cellular respiration?

a)

Water and Glucose

b)

Oxygen and Glucose

c)

Carbon Dioxide and Water

d)

Twenty One Pilots

68.

Where does cellular respiration take place in the cell?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuole

69.

Which of the following would increase the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

Increased Oxygen supply

b)

Decreased water supply

c)

Decrease oxygen supply

d)

Increased light energy

70.

Which of the following would decrease the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

Increased Oxygen supply

b)

Decreased water supply

c)

Decrease oxygen supply

d)

Increased light energy

71.

What structure of the following organelle has a hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails?

a)

A

b)

B

72.

What structure of the organelle represents a protein channel?

a)

A

b)

B

73.

What is the direction of the movement?

a)

Outside the cell.

b)

Inside the cell.

c)

No movement, because the water is at equilibrium.

74.

Is wind a biotic or abiotic factor?

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

75.

Is soil a biotic or abiotic factor?

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

76.

Is temperature a biotic or abiotic factor?

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

77.

Are producers biotic or abiotic factors?

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

78.

Are consumers biotic or abiotic factors?

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

79.

On the pH scale, 0-6 is ___________, 7 is ____________, and 8-10 is _______________

a)

Acid; Base; Non-reactive

b)

Base; Neutral; Acid

c)

Acid; Neutral; Base

d)

Acid; Base; Acid

80.

As the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere/oceans increases, the acidity of the ocean _____________.

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

81.

As the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere/oceans increases, the pH of the ocean _____________.

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

82.

An example of a marine organism that needs calcium carbonate

a)

a crab

b)

a shark

c)

an octopus

83.

Very slight increases in the acidity of seawater __________ marine organisms that make shells.

a)

doesn't bother

b)

has no effect on

c)

is unhealthy and stresses

84.

What happens to 1/4 of the greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

a)

It is released into space.

b)

It gets absorbed by the ocean.

85.

According to this slide

a)

CO₂ is causing marine life to die by "poisoning' the water

b)

CO₂ is destroying sea shells

c)

CO₂ is formed from the combustion of Octane

86.

In a more acidic ocean, the shells of organisms do not grow as easily.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

The variety of plant and animal life in the world or in a particular habitat is called ____________________.

a)

fossil fuels

b)

biodiversity

c)

ecosystem

d)

climate change

88.

Krill is extremely important to the food web in Antarctica. What is the name for this type of species?

a)

Producer species

b)

Important species

c)

Keystone species

d)

Cornerstone species

89.

Why is it important to know that shells decrease in mass in more acidic water?

a)

Shows us how organisms need acidic water to open their shells so they can eat

b)

Shows us how organisms' shells may become weak and the organisms could die

c)

Shows us how organisms could die as their predators eat them.

d)

Shows us that shells will decrease in mass but doesn't really relate to the real world

90.

The concentration of carbon dioxide dissolved in the ocean is

a)

Increasing

b)

Decreasing

c)

Not changing

d)

Becoming acidic

91.

The pH of the ocean is ...

a)

Decreasing

b)

Increasing

c)

Not Changing

92.

What is diffusion?

a)

when molecules move

b)

when molecules move from a high concentration to a low.

c)

no movement

d)

molecules move everywhere

93.

Where is there a low concentration of dye?

a)

at the bottom of cup

b)

in the color

c)

at the top of cup

d)

no concenteraion gradient

94.

The picture below is an example of _________________.

a)

osmosis

b)

isotonic

c)

diffusion

d)

active transport

95.

Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.

a)

food

b)

energy

c)

oxygen

d)

water

96.

During osmosis

a)

water moves from high to low concentration

b)

large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane

c)

water moves when energy is used

d)

proteins are built

97.

Permeable means

a)

things can pass through

b)

the concentration levels are different

c)

it is permanent

d)

things are stuck

98.

The diffusion of water through a semi-permeable membrane is called?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Cell wall

c)

Diffusion

d)

Respiration

99.

Where is there a high concentration of water?

a)

in the flower

b)

cannot be determined by picture.

c)

in the vase

d)

in the leaves

100.

Where is there a low concentration of perfume?

a)

in the bottle

b)

on the hand

c)

in the room

d)

in the top

101.

What is the definition of Selective Permeability?

a)

The movement of materials across the cell membrane that requires NO ENERGY from the cell.

b)

The movement of materials through (or across) the cell membrane

c)

The ability of the cell membrane to allow some things to pass through while preventing other things from passing through.

d)

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to a area of low concentration

102.

What a cell needs to transport particles by active transport?

a)

Sun

b)

Wind

c)

Energy

d)

Channels

103.

A person should never drink salty water because their cells would

a)

shrink

b)

expand

104.

A person would never have pure water put into their veins in a hospital because their cells would...

a)

Shrink/Dehydrate

b)

Expand

105.

If there is 5 percent water inside a cell and 5 percent water outside a cell

a)

more water will move inside the cell

b)

more water will move outside the cell

c)

There will be no movement of water cells

106.

Passive transport requires no

a)

concentration gradients

b)

osmosis

c)

motion

d)

energy

107.

The picture is an example of...

a)

active tranport

b)

passive transport

c)

diffusion

d)

osmosis

108.

State which of these is the waste gas that is expelled from the body during exhalation.

a)

Sulfur Dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Monoxide

d)

Carbon Dioxide

109.

In inhaled air, recall if there is a higher concentration of carbon dioxide or oxygen.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

110.

When you breathe, your lungs take in ___ and remove ___.

a)

air/oxygen

b)

oxygen/carbon dioxide

c)

carbon dioxide/waste

d)

waste/air

111.

The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gas exchange takes place

a)

bronchi

b)

lungs

c)

oxygen

d)

alveoli

112.

What is the site of gas exchange?

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchus

c)

nose

d)

trachea

113.

During gas exchange what enters from alveoli to the capillaries?

a)

CO₂

b)

CO

c)

O₂

d)

nitrogen

114.

By looking at the chromosomes how can you tell that this person is biologically female?

a)

Because there are two X chromosomes

b)

Because there are more chromosomes than in a male

115.

By looking at the chromosomes is this individual biologically male or female? How do you know?

a)

Female, because they have two X chromosomes

b)

Male, because they have one X and one Y chromosome

116.

What is the mutation in this persons chromosomes?

a)

There is only one X

b)

7 is shaped like a hockey stick

c)

There's an extra 21

d)

1 is too curved

117.

This is called Turners syndrome, can you notice the mutation in the chromosomes?

a)

Both chromosomes 1 are bent

b)

There are too many chromosomes

c)

There are too many of chromosome 3

d)

There is no Y chromosome

118.

These are the chromosomes of someone with Kleinfelters syndrome. What is different about their chromosomes?

a)

There is only one Y chromosome

b)

One of the 5th chromosomes is too curved

c)

There is an extra X chromosome

d)

There are too few chromosomes

119.

This person has Angel Mans syndrome. What is different about their chromosomes?

a)

Chromosome 1 is misshapen

b)

Chromosomes 21 is too small

c)

They are missing one of chromosome 15

d)

Chromosomes 7 and 8 look weird

120.

This is known as Edwards Syndrome, can you identify the chromosomal mutation?

a)

Chromosomes 1 and 2 are bent

b)

There is no Y chromosome

c)

This persons chromosomes are normal

d)

There are 3 of chromosomes 18

121.

How many generations are shown in this pedigree?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

122.

How many daughters did the mother and father from the first generation have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

123.

The pedigree above is an example of:

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

124.

What is the genotype of individual IV – 2?

a)

HH

b)

HY

c)

hh

d)

Yh

125.

If a child shows a recessive disorder, and his brother does not, his healthy parents' genotypes are;

a)

Hh and Hh

b)

HH and HH

c)

Hh and HH

d)

hh and hh

126.

Examine the pedigree. The allele for the presence of a widow’s peak is dominant. Therefore, we can tell from the chart that in the couple labeled 2:

a)

the male is heterozygous and the female is homozygous.

b)

the male is homozygous and the female is heterozygous.

c)

the male is homozygous and the female is homozygous.

d)

the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.

127.

Why do all the daughters in Generation II carry the colorblind gene?

a)

Because mom passed on the gene.

b)

Because dad passed on the X chromosome.

c)

Because their brother has it.

d)

Because their brother gave it to them.

128.

This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?

a)

segregation of sister chromatids

b)

condensation and segregation of alleles

c)

mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered

d)

crossing - over in which alleles are exchanged

129.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

130.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

131.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

132.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

133.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

134.

What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?

a)

base

b)

codon

c)

amine

d)

serine

135.

The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

replication

136.

The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____

a)

transcription

b)

rRNA

c)

replication

d)

translation

137.

Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?

a)

DNA-protein-RNA

b)

Protein-RNA-DNA

c)

RNA-protein-DNA

d)

DNA-RNA-protein

138.

What is the location in the cell for transcription?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

139.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

140.

Which organelle contains rRNA and reads the mRNA to synthesize a protein?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

141.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

142.

How many nucleotides code for 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

143.

What is the location in the cell for translation?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

144.

Adaptations can be:

a)

camouflage

b)

ability to survive cold weather

c)

hunting skills

d)

all of the above

145.

Natural selection occurs during the lifetime of a single organism.

a)

True

b)

False

146.

What is most likely to happen to moth populations in the picture shown?

a)

Light moths--hunted easily, dark moths--population increase

b)

Dark moths--hunted easily, dark moths--population increase

c)

Light moths--hunted easily, light moths--population increase

d)

Lights moths will change their color to match dark moths.

147.

TRUE or FALSE: Natural selection will still occur if individuals are exactly the same.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

148.

How do you "win" at natural selection?

a)

survive

b)

go extinct

c)

survive & reproduce

149.

Due to pollution, a pond becomes darker over time. Which trait variation became more common?

a)

light fish

b)

dark fish

150.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.

151.

Natural Selection is driven by a change in the environment and survival of the

a)

Earth

b)

Fastest

c)

Fittest

d)

Biggest

152.

Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.

a)

Evolution

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Extinction

d)

Artifical Selection

153.

Which organisms are most likely to survive?

a)

the best adapted

b)

the fastest

c)

the strongest

d)

the most domesticated (tamed)

154.

Change in a population over time that descend from a common ancestor.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Evolution

155.

Why is the mouse population changing over time?

a)

The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice

b)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better

c)

The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily

d)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily

156.

The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?

a)

Dark moth

b)

Light moth

c)

Both will be equally successful

d)

Neither will be successful

157.

Definition: adaptation

a)

inherited characteristic that increases chances of survival

b)

organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate

c)

a growing population causes a scarcity of resources

d)

differences in the DNA sequence

158.

Definition: natural selection

a)

inherited characteristic that increases chances of survival

b)

organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate

c)

a growing population causes a scarcity of resources

d)

differences in the DNA sequence

159.

Definition: fitness

a)

ability to survive and reproduce in a specific environment

b)

organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate

c)

a growing population causes a scarcity of resources

d)

differences in the DNA sequence

160.

The differences among a species, like different bird beaks, are called

a)

genes.\

b)

variations

c)

traits

d)

alleles

161.

Does the presence of homologous structures in genetically different animals suggest common ancestry?

a)

Yes

b)

No

162.

What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Embryology

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Vestigial Structures

163.

_________________ show clear changes in an organism over time, the environment organisms lived in, the time period the organism lived in, and where the organism lived.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

164.

The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?

a)

Fossil A and C are the same age

b)

Fossil B is older than fossil C

c)

Fossils A is older than fossil B

d)

Fossil D is older than fossil C

165.

Recently, scientists have been able to use ___________to find common proteins and amino acids to determine how closely related species are.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

166.

What type of evidence is shown in the image above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

DNA

167.

According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to:

a)

Species I

b)

Species II

c)

Species III

d)

Species IV

168.

Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry

a)

vestigial structures

b)

homologous structures

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

fossil

169.

Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis bone. Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)

a)

vestigial structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

homologous structure

137 Semester 2 Final Exam

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 3hrs 56mins

Similar Resources on Wayground