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Worksheets

Biology 2nd Semester Cumulative

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 3hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What word describes a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

camouflage

d)

adaptation

2.
Dogs such as Chihuahuas are examples of....
a)
Artificial Selection 
b)
Natural Selection 
c)
Mutations 
3.

Natural Selection is driven by a change in the environment and survival of the

a)

Earth

b)

Fastest

c)

Fittest

d)

Biggest

4.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the organism knew it needed that trait, survives, and passes it on.

5.

Mutations are a change in what?

a)

DNA

b)

tRNA

c)

protein

d)

rRNA

6.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
7.

"Organisms that are better adapted to the environment survive to pass traits to their offspring" is the definition of

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Evolution

c)

Selective Breeding

d)

Artificial Selection

8.
You look at two species and see very similar DNA. What does this likely tell you?
a)
These are the same animal.
b)
These animals have a common ancestor.
c)
These animals are not likely related.
d)
These animals are likely becoming one species.
9.
In recent years "SuperBugs" (bacteria that aren't effected by antibiotics) are becoming more and more common. How could natural selection explain this?
a)
Superbugs survive antibiotics and reproduce
b)
Antibiotics cause bacteria to become superbugs
c)
We have always had the same amount of superbugs; modern media just discusses them more.
d)
There is no reliable data on the origin of super bugs.
10.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection? 
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
11.
The most recent ancestral form or species from which two different species evolved is known as ________________________.
a)
a common ancestor.
b)
an embryonic stage.
c)
development.
d)
evolution.
12.

Does the presence of homologous structures in genetically different animals suggest common ancestry?

a)

Yes

b)

No

13.

What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Embryology

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Vestigial Structures

14.

_________________ show clear changes in an organism over time, the environment organisms lived in, the time period the organism lived in, and where the organism lived.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

15.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
16.
A fossil of an extinct dinosaur is found and the anatomy of the fossil shows similarities to that of a bird. What could this mean?
a)
This is purely by chance and isn't significant
b)
The extinct dinosaur and modern bird share a common ancestor
c)
All dinosaurs evolved into birds and that's why there aren't any dinosaurs alive today
d)
Dinosaurs choose to fly, and evolved into birds to escape predation and capture food
17.

What type of evidence is shown in the image above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

DNA

18.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
19.

Which IS NOT used as evidence for evolution?

a)

Fossils

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Early Development/Embryos

d)

Body Structure/Anatomy

e)

DNA/Proteins

20.
During the lytic infection by a virus, the host cell is-
a)
destroyed
b)
copied
c)
passed on to the lysogenic cycle
d)
not affected
21.
Which statement regarding viruses is true?
a)
a virus can only reproduce inside of a living cell
b)
viruses do not contain DNA
c)
viruses are unicellular
d)
viruses are generally larger than cells
22.
What feature do viruses have in common with animal cells?
a)
ability to form proteins at the ribosomes
b)
existence of lipids in cell membranes
c)
presence of genetic code in nucleic acid
d)
production of energy by a mitochondrion
23.
Which best describes the basic structure of a virus?
a)
nucleic acid strand surrounded by a protein coat
b)
a tail surrounded by a protein coat
c)
a tail surrounded by a carbohydrate coat
d)
nucleic acid strand surrounded by a carbohydrate coat
24.
When a virus invades a living cell, its _______
takes over the cell's functions.
a)
outer coat
b)
genetic material
c)
core
d)
cytoplasm
25.
Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic material to lay dormant while the host cell reproduces?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
26.
Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by lysing?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
27.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
28.
What happens in the lytic cyle?
a)
Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
b)
Virus quickly kills the host cell
c)
Virus sleeps inside of the host cell
d)
Virus stay dormant for a long time
29.
What happens in the lysogenic cycle? 
a)
Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
b)
Virus quickly kills the host cell
c)
Virus inject the nucleic acid into the host cell, and the nucleic acid integrates into the host cell DNA, and stay dormant for a long time
d)
Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell
30.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
31.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
32.

_________ a relationship between two species of a plant, animal, or fungus in which one lives off the other and both organisms benefit

a)

Mutualism

b)

Competition

c)

Commensalism

d)

Symbiosis

33.

________ a certain type of non-mutual relationship found between two different species in which one organism known as the parasite benefits at the expense of the other organism

a)

Mutualism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Carrying Capacity

d)

Commensalism

34.

_______ is a relationship between two species of a plant, animal, or fungus in which one lives with, on, or in the other without damage to either

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Parasitism

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Commensalism

35.

________ indicates the greatest number of any species that can indefinitely exist within a specific habitat without threatening the existence of other species also living in the habitat

a)

Niche

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Carrying Capacity

d)

Symbiosis

36.

________ is a community of living things (including plants, animals, and people), the environment that surrounds them (including soil, water, and air), and how they interact. 

a)

Niche

b)

Parasitism

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Competition

37.

________ is a non-native organism whose population grows and dominates native plant or animal populations

a)

Niche

b)

Commensalism

c)

Symbiosis

d)

Invasive Species

38.

________ is the place or role that an organism has in its habitat

a)

Ecosystem

b)

Niche

c)

Competition

d)

Parasitism

39.
Which is an example of a disease caused by fungi
a)
Diphtheria
b)
The Common Cold
c)
Strep Throat
d)
Athlete's Foot
40.
What are some examples of food made by fungi
a)
Bread
b)
Cheese
c)
Mushrooms
d)
All of the above
41.
Mold is classified into which of the following kingdoms?
a)
plantae
b)
fungi
c)
protista
d)
bacteria
42.
All of the following are examples of fungi except one.  Which of the following is NOT a type of fungus?
a)
yeast
b)
mold
c)
mushroom
d)
algae
43.
A short sequence of DNA can best be described as an _______.
a)
gene
b)
genome 
c)
chromosome 
d)
chromatin 
44.
A gene that comes from the different organism to make a GMO can best be described as... 
(ex: gene from corn placed into a tomato plant) 
a)
cisgenic 
b)
transgenic 
45.
The gene of interest + vector = __________
a)
recombinant DNA 
b)
restriction enzyme 
c)
transformation 
d)
genome 
46.
Which sequence below best represents the steps to making a GMO?
a)
Isolate the gene of interest, add gene of interest to vector, copy vector through mitosis in bacteria cell, add bacteria to plant cells, copy plant cells through mitosis, & test final product after growth period
b)
Add gene of interest to vector, copy vector through mitosis in bacteria cell, add bacteria to plant cells, copy plant cells through mitosis, isolate the gene of interest, & test final product after growth period
c)
Copy vector through mitosis in bacteria cell, isolate the gene of interest, add gene of interest to vector, add bacteria to plant cells, copy plant cells through mitosis, & test final product after growth period
d)
 Test final product after growth period, isolate the gene of interest, add gene of interest to vector, copy vector through mitosis in bacteria cell, add bacteria to plant cells, & copy plant cells through mitosis
47.
Which would NOT be a reason to use GM crops?
a)
Using GM crops can increase crop yields.
b)
Using GM crops can reduce use of insecticide sprays.
c)
Using GM crops may be able to feed more people faster.
d)
Using GM crops can increase pesticide resistance in pests.
48.

This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism

a)

Cloning

b)

Biotechnology

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

I don't know

49.
What is recombinant DNA?
a)
Adding DNA from one organism into the DNA of another
b)
DNA which has been changed over generations by natural selection
c)
DNA that causes genetic disorders
d)
DNA that has been sequenced
50.
Another name for GMO (Genetically Modified Organsim) is ____________.
a)
Transgenic
b)
Transplanted
c)
Transducted
d)
Plasmid
51.

The process that has been used for centruries to create purebred animals such as black labs is called

a)

recombinant DNA

b)

cloning

c)

selective breeding

52.

The insertion of a gene of interest into a bacterial DNA loop is called

a)

recombinant DNA

b)

insertion technique

c)

mutation propagation

53.

Homeostasis is maintaining a ___________ internal environment.

a)

reliable

b)

different

c)

constant

d)

heated

54.

What type of digestion takes place in the stomach?

a)

mechanical

b)

chemical

c)

both mechanical and chemical

55.

What carries food from the pharynx to the stomach?

a)

larynx

b)

trachea

c)

esophagus

d)

bronchioles

56.

Where does the process of digestion begin?

a)

mouth

b)

esophagus

c)

stomach

d)

small intestine

57.

What part of the digestive system mechanically and chemically breaks down food?

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

both the mouth and stomach

58.

What chemically breaks down food into smaller molecules?

a)

teeth

b)

muscles of the stomach

c)

enzymes

59.

What does the pancreas do?

a)

produces digestive enzymes to break down proteins and fats

b)

produces sodium bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid

c)

regulates our blood sugar levels

d)

all answers are correct

60.

Most digestion takes place in this organ. It is really long.

a)

small intestines

b)

large intestines

c)

esophagus

d)

pancreas

61.

What is the correct order of the following processes?

a)

ingestion, digestion, elimination, absorption

b)

digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination

c)

ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination

d)

digestion, elimination, ingestion, absorption

62.

produces bile to break up fat particles

a)

pancreas

b)

large intestine

c)

liver

63.

waves of muscle contractions (squeezing)

a)

stomach

b)

small intestine

c)

peristalsis

64.

absorbs water into bloodstream

a)

gall bladder

b)

large intestine

c)

liver

65.

organ that stores bile

a)

gall bladder

b)

large intestine

c)

liver

66.
What do the villi do?
a)
Digests food in the mouth.
b)
Digests food in the stomach
c)
Protects the stomach from digesting iteself
d)
Absorbs nutrients from food so the body has energy.
67.

What is the name of the projection coming off of the large intestine?

a)

Appendix

b)

Cecum

c)

Colon

68.

________ carries blood toward the heart.

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

69.

________ take blood away from the heart.

a)

veins

b)

arteries

70.

Pulmonary circulation carries blood between the heart and the __________?

a)

Brain

b)

Organs

c)

Lungs

71.

What keeps blood from flowing backwards in the heart?

a)

atrium

b)

valves

c)

artery

72.
Name this part.
a)
Right ventricle
b)
Pulmonary artery
c)
Left ventricle
d)
Right atrium
73.
Name this part.
a)
Right atrium
b)
Left ventricle
c)
Right ventricle
d)
Left atrium
74.
5?
a)
Aorta
b)
Pulmonary Valve
c)
Atrium
d)
Ventricle
75.
2?
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Right Ventricle
c)
Left Atrium
d)
Left Ventricle
76.
1?
a)
Right Ventricle
b)
Right Pulmonary Vein
c)
Superior Vena Cava
d)
Inferior Vena Cava
77.
3?
a)
Superior Vena Cava
b)
Right Pulmonary Vein
c)
Right Ventricle
d)
Right Atrium
78.
4?
a)
Superior Vena Cava
b)
Right Pulmonary Artery
c)
Right Pulmonary Vein
d)
Inferior Vena Cava
79.

This artery is the only artery in the body to carry deoxygenated blood:

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary Artery

c)

Coronary Arteries

d)

Hepatic Arteries

80.

The largest artery in the body (which takes blood from the left ventricle to the rest of the body) is the:

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary Artery

c)

Carotid Artery

d)

Brachiocephalic Artery

81.

Blood from the Inferior and Superior Vena Cava empties into the:

a)

Right ventricle

b)

Right atrium

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Left atrium

82.
The four chambers of the heart are:
a)
Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left House, Left In
b)
Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left Atrium, Left Ventricle
c)
Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left Car, Left Room
d)
Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left Aboard, Left Vehicle
83.

Blood pressure is recorded as

a)

Hydrostatic /diastolic

b)

Diastolic/ hydrostatic

c)

Systolic/diastolic

d)

Diastolic/systolic

84.

Where is systemic blood pressure highest?

a)

Vena Cava

b)

Coronary Arteries

c)

Hepatic Vein

d)

Aorta

85.

Where is systemic blood pressure lowest?

a)

Vena Cava

b)

Aorta

c)

Hepatic Vein

d)

Coronary Arteries

86.

After an initial infection, B-cells recognize the measles virus. How is this helpful in human immune response?

a)

The B-cells use this recognition to defend the body against other pathogens, such as bacteria.

b)

The B-cells more quickly recognize and respond to any other virus that invades the body.

c)

The B-cells produce antibodies more quickly if the measles virus is encountered again.

d)

The B-cells transfer this recognition to T-cells, which will then devour the viruses.

87.

What is the body's first line (non-specific) of defense against infection by foreign organisms?

a)

antibodies

b)

lymph nodes

c)

white blood cells

d)

the skin

88.

White blood cells are an important part of the human immune response. Two types of white blood cells, neutrophils and macrophages, act as phagocytes. Phagocytes perform which of the following functions in the human body?

a)

They produce antibodies.

b)

They bind to antigens and develop into plasma cells

c)

They form a barrier against pathogens.

d)

They engulf and destroy bacteria

89.

In what domain should this organism be classified?

a)

Eukarya

b)

Bacteria

c)

Prokaryote

d)

Protista

90.
Anything that triggers an immune response is a/n
a)
lymph cell
b)
antigen
c)
antibody
d)
neutrop
91.
What do B cells produce?
a)
antigens
b)
macrophages
c)
T cells
d)
antibodies
92.
What do antibodies attach to on the pathogen?
a)
Anti inflammatory
b)
Antigens
c)
Antiseptic
d)
Antibodies
93.
Proteins produced by B cells and designed to mark antigens to be destroyed, specific to the antigen.
a)
Antigens
b)
Active Immunity
c)
Antibodies
d)
Antibiotics
94.
What do memory cells do?
a)
Kills the virus
b)
Eats the virus
c)
Patrol the area and make the immune system work faster next time.
d)
Makes antibodies
95.

The monkey would be a

a)

decomposer

b)

producer

c)

primary consumer

d)

secondary consumer

96.

In an ecosystem, there are populations of deer, rabbits, grass, and pine trees. Suddenly, a fire blazes through the area, which kills all of the populations. As the months go on, new species of grass begin to take root. This attracts animals, and eventually the ecosystem is restored.


What type of ecological succession happened?

a)

Primary succession because it started with rocks.

b)

Primary succession because there was soil to begin with, and plants existed before the disaster.

c)

Secondary succession because it started with rocks.

d)

Secondary succession because there was soil to begin with, and plants existed before the disaster.

97.

In Hawaii, there are volcanoes. Before anything was there, the volcanoes erupted which produced volcanic rock. Lichens were the first species to arrive, and they broke down the rock into soil. Eventually, plants began to grow. Now, the islands are functioning at their climax community.

Is this an example of primary or secondary succession?

a)

Primary succession

b)

Secondary succession

98.

In this photo, two lions are fighting for a resource. What type of competition is this?

a)

Interspecific competition

b)

Intraspecific competition

c)

Machismo

d)

Competitive exclusion principle

99.

What is this picture describing?

a)

It is describing how two organisms cannot occupy the same niche in the same place at the same time through the competitive exclusion principle.

b)

It is illustrating the intercompetitive inclusion principle.

c)

It is describing the amount of time it takes for bacteria to reach exponential growth.

d)

It is illustrating the mutualistic relationship between two organisms when they live in the same niche.

100.

This photo is showing the same ecosystem in 2 scenarios: one with the sea otter and one without the sea otter. In the ecosystem without the sea otter, the ecosystem dynamics are completely changed. What term best describes the sea otter?

a)

Niche

b)

Climax community

c)

Pioneer species

d)

Keystone species

101.

T/F: Biodiversity is a good thing because it provides variety in an ecosystem.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Many different organisms are competing for the zebra as food. What type of competition is this?

a)

Intraspecific competition

b)

Interspecific competition

103.

the differentiation of niches that enables similar species to coexist in a community

a)

character displacement

b)

climax community

c)

resource partitioning

d)

pioneer species

104.
The ecological niches of three bird species are shown in the diagram. What is the advantage of each bird species having a different niche?
a)
As more birds feed higher in the tree, available energy increases.
b)
More abiotic resources are available for each bird.
c)
Predators are less likely to feed on birds in a variety of locations.
d)
There is less competition for food.
105.

Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca moths. The moths lay their eggs in the flowers and the eggs hatch. The larvae eat some of the seeds, and spread them around. Both species are benefited.

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

106.

A bison walks through the grass, insects fly up and are seen and eaten by egrets. This neither harms nor helps the bison, but it is easier for the egrets to get food.

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

107.
Remoras are small fish that swim close to or attach themselves to sharks.  Remoras eat small scraps left as the sharks feed and the sharks are unaffected. 
a)
Competition
b)
Predation
c)
Mutualism
d)
Commensalism
108.
A role a species plays and includes the type of food it eats, where it lives, and its relationships with other species.
a)
niche
b)
habitat
c)
ecosystem
109.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from a spruce tree. The spruce tree is harmed. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
110.
What factor would cause animals of the same species to begin competing with one another?
a)
increase in precipitation         
b)
the presence of decomposers
c)
the introduction of a new food source
d)
limited supply of resources
111.
The collection of all of the biotic and abiotic factors in an area describes -
a)
community
b)
population
c)
ecosystem
d)
organism
112.

Living, or produced by living things

a)

Biotic factor

b)

Abiotic factor

c)

Organisms

d)

Competition

113.

Hawks and brown bears live together in the same habitat. There will be competition between the hawks and the brown bears only if which of the following is true?

a)

Brown bears hibernate during the winter while hawks remain active.

b)

Pesticides in the fish population affect hawks’ eggs and decrease their population.

c)

Both brown bears and hawks feed on the same species of fish.

d)

Both Shanna and Savanna feed on the same species of snakes.

114.

Competition becomes more important as the number of individuals ______ or the availability of resources _________.

a)

increases, decreases

b)

increases, increases

c)

decreases, increases

d)

decreases, decreases

115.

is a group of individual organisms of the same species living in a particular area

a)

ecology

b)

population

c)

community

d)

habitat

116.

Choose the correct levels of Organization from lowest to highest...

a)

population, community, ecosystem, organism

b)

organism, population, community, ecosystem

c)

organism, population, ecosystem, community

117.

A community is a level in organization that is....

a)

made of populations of different species that live in the same place and interact.

b)

a single individual species of organisms that are similar.

c)

all the individual organisms of the same species in the same place.

118.

If the amount of food or resources available increases, the carrying capacity for an animal.....

a)

Stays the same

b)

Increases

c)

Decreases

d)

Fluctuates

119.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

120.

According to the graph, what is causing the deer population to decrease

a)

They got sick

b)

The wolf population is decreasing

c)

The wolf population increased

d)

They ran out of food

121.

Predator population lags behind prey population because......

a)

Increase in predators leads to decrease in prey

b)

Increase in predators leads to increase in prey

c)

Increase in predators leads to decrease in producers

d)

Increase in producers leads to increase in prey

122.

Competition among members of the same species.

a)

intraspecific competition

b)

interspecific competition

123.

Competition between members of different species.

a)

intraspecific competition

b)

interspecific competition

124.

"Organisms that have moved to a location that does not naturally support them."

a)

Invasive species

b)

Destructive species

c)

Unwelcomed species

d)

Infected species

125.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
126.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
127.

Which of the following contains all abiotic factors?

a)

water, decomposers, soil, humidity

b)

sunlight, rocks, water, temperature

c)

dirt, bacteria, soil, wind

d)

elephants, gorillas, lions, hyenas

128.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
129.
An organism that gets energy from breaking down dead organisms, non-living material or waste is a(an) ___________.
a)
producer
b)
consumer
c)
decomposer
d)
autotroph
130.
Eat primary consumers (can be carnivores and omnivores)
a)
Tertiary Consumers
b)
Secondary Consumers
c)
Quaternary Consumers 
d)
Top Predators 
131.
The process of plants using energy from the sun to create the first trophic level is called?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Chemosynthesis
c)
Cellular Respiratation
d)
Primary Producers
132.

Look carefully at the image. If energy is lost as it moves up the food chain, what trophic level has the most amount of energy?

a)

1st level - producers

b)

2nd level - primary consumers

c)

3rd level - secondary consumers

d)

4th level - tertiary consumers

133.
What is formed during primary succession that doesn't need to be formed during secondary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
soil
c)
climax community
d)
lichens
134.
Which catastrophic event will most likely have the effect of returning an ecosystem to primary succession?
a)
A tornado
b)
A volcanic eruption
c)
A flood
d)
A drought
135.

A community of organisms and their abiotic environment.

a)

Environment

b)

Biosphere

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Community

136.

An ecosystem comprising the ENTIRE EARTH and the organisms that inhabit it.

a)

Biosphere

b)

Biome

c)

Abiotic

d)

Ecoregion

137.

a group of organisms that can interbreed with each other

a)

genus

b)

species

c)

family

d)

dominant

138.

Ladybugs are often brightly colored with black spots to warn predators that they do not taste good. What color strategy do ladybugs use?

a)

Camouflage

b)

Disguise

c)

Warning Coloration

d)

Disruptive Coloration

e)

Mimicry

139.

Sand crabs have patterns on their body that help them to blend into their environment. What color strategy do sand crabs use?

a)

Camouflage

b)

Disguise

c)

Warning Coloration

d)

Disruptive Coloration

e)

Mimicry

140.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
141.
Will competition increase/decrease the carrying capacity of an ecosystem for the animal in competition?
a)
Decrease
b)
Increase
142.
If the amount of food or resources available increases, the carrying capacity for an animal:
a)
Stays the same
b)
Increases
c)
Decreases
d)
Fluctuates
143.
An environmental factor such as storms and extreme heat or cold that affects population regardless of their density
a)
density- dependent factor
b)
population density
c)
dispersion
d)
density- independent factor
144.
Humans are part of the ecosystem and therefore impact it.  Which of the following events in an ecosystem may produce a negative effect?
a)
preventing deer from depleting food resources
b)
restoring a natural habitat
c)
wildlife rangers minimizing disturbances
d)
a lumber company clearing a forest