wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Quarter 4 Exam Review

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Some Antelope are faster then others. When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, slower antelope are most likely to be killed. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might best be used to describe this situation?

a)

Species have variations in their traits

b)

Species struggle to survive

c)

Some Individuals have an advantage to survive because of their traits

d)

Individuals that survive have the ability to reproduce

2.
A population of peppered moths with a dark grey variation and a light grey variation lives in light colored birch forest. It is hunted by sight. Which statement is most likely true?
a)
there are equal number of light and dark grey peppered moths in the population
b)
more light grey moths survive than dark grey moths
c)
more dark grey moths survive than light grey moths
d)

All light grey moths will survive

3.

Which statement is true about evolution?

a)

Individual organisms can evolve during a single lifespan.

b)

Darwin proposed the idea that populations can change over time and branch into new species

c)

Humans evolved from chimpanzees

d)

Traits acquired within ones lifetime can be genetically passed to the next generations

4.
Natural selection and evolution work on what level of life organization?
a)
individuals
b)
biomes
c)
populations
d)
ecosystems
5.
Organisms with traits that are favorable to their survival and reproduction are ________ likely to pass on their genes to the next generation, and thus ________ common in the population
a)
more, less
b)
more, more
c)
less, less
d)
less, more
6.

For natural selection to impact evolution, which condition is not required?

a)

Struggle to survive

b)

Reproduction and inheritance of traits

c)

genetic variation within a population

d)

each population occupies its own niche

7.

What was the change in the environment for the finches?

a)

Drought

b)

Fire

c)

Pollution

d)

Diseases

8.

What was the change in the environment for the moths?

a)

Drought

b)

Fire

c)

Pollution

d)

Diseases

9.

Carrying Capacity is

a)

The number of individuals that a habitat can support

b)

The number of individuals that die from natural selection

c)

The number of individuals that are born from natural selection

d)

The about of weight you can carry

10.

Which statement is true about variation?

a)

Environmental variation is what trait you can see

b)

Genetic variation is advantageous

c)

Environmental variation is acquired during your life

d)

Traits are either fully genetic or fully environmental

11.

Which statement would Darwin and Lamarck Agree on?

a)

Traits are developed

b)

Natural variation exists

c)

There is a struggle to survive

d)

everyone ends up with the advantageous trait

12.

What was the struggle for the bacteria to survive?

a)

Viruses

b)

Medicine

c)

Predators

d)

Starvation

13.

People who get their wisdom teeth removed have a better chance of avoiding deadly tooth infections. Why is it that having no wisdom teeth is not being affected by natural selection?

a)

It is not genetic

b)

There is no struggle to survive

c)

the trait does not give an advantage

d)

There is not reproduction

14.

What is the main take-away of this graph?

a)

all small beaked finches died during the drought

b)

Many birds died during the drought

c)

Large beaked finches were more likely to survive

d)

Distribution of beak depth of finches

15.

When the trees in England were covered in soot...

a)

Speckled moths had an advantage to survive

b)

Dark moths had an advantage survive

c)

Dark moths had an advantage to reproduce

d)

Speckled moths had an advantage to reproduce

16.

Why is it important to always complete an antibiotic medication? What happens if you stop early?

a)

It can cause new mutations to appear

b)

the infection will not go away

c)

only the strongest bacteria are left to reproduce again

d)

It can make the bacteria become stronger

17.

What happens before mitosis begins/during interphase

a)

DNA is replicated

b)

Chromosomes line up in the middle

c)

Sister chromatids separate

d)

The nucleus dissolves away

18.

Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell during

a)

Phophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

19.

Chromosomes separate to opposite sides of the cell during

a)

Phophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

20.

Homologous chromosomes have genes for the same traits (hair color) but are not identical

a)

True

b)

False

21.

What is the end result of Meiosis

a)

2 identical daughter cells

b)

4 identical daughter cells

c)

4 unique haploid cells

d)

4 unique diploid cells

22.

How does Mitosis differ from Meiosis

a)

Mitosis makes gametes, while meiosis makes identical cells

b)

Meiosis makes haploid cells, mitosis makes diploid cells

c)

Mitosis requires DNA replication while Meiosis does not

d)

Mitosis makes gametes and meiosis makes Zygotes

23.

What is it called when genes exchange between homologues chromosomes during meiosis?

a)

fertilization

b)

cytokinesis

c)

crossing over

d)

nondisjunction

24.

Nondisjunction is when you have an abnormal number of chromosomes

a)

True

b)

False

25.

If a diploid cell has 62 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in the gamete cell?

a)

62

b)

1

c)

124

d)

31

26.

What is the purpose of crossing over

a)

to fix chromosomes

b)

to duplicate chromosomes

c)

to make chromosomes pretty colors

d)

to increase genetic diversity

27.

Nondisjunction is when

a)

An extra chromosome develops in a zygote

b)

Chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis

c)

a cell rapidly divides in mitosis

d)

two sperm cells fertilize one egg cell

28.

The process of a sperm and egg cell fusing is

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Fertilization

d)

Nondisjunction

29.

Which of these is NOT a purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Sexual Reproduction

b)

Growth

c)

Repair

d)

Replacement

30.

Has two cell divisions

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

d)

Neither

31.

Homologous Chromosomes...

a)

Are identical

b)

are connected

c)

are the same length

d)

come from the same parent

32.

makes diploid cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

d)

Neither

33.

Sister Chromatids...

a)

Are connected

b)

are different lengths

c)

come from different parents

d)

do crossing over

34.

Which chromosomes do crossing over?

a)

Homologous Chromosomes

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

X and Y chromosomes

d)

Any chromosome in the same cell

35.

Meiosis produces

a)

Haploid Cells

b)

Gametes

c)

Zygotes

d)

Diploid cells

36.

Genotype refers to the ...

a)

physical expression of the genes

b)

the combination of alleles in a gene

c)

whether an allele is dominant or recessive

d)

how an organism will appear

37.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
38.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
39.
Term for an organism that display two dominant phenotypes at the same time
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
linked genes
40.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)

An organism that has the same alleles for a trait(TT or tt)

b)

An organism that has different alleles for a trait (Tt)

c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
41.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
42.

If a trait Cannot skip generations, then it must be

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

X-linked

d)

Homozygous

43.

If a trait primarily effects males, then the gene must be on a

a)

Sister chromosome

b)

X chromosome

c)

chromosome 11

d)

mitochondria

44.

A Heterozygous and a Homozygous recessive person have kids, what percent % of their offspring will be Heterozygous?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

45.

If two heterozygous people have kids, what percent % of their offspring will be Homozygous Dominant?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

46.

If you cross a Heterozygote with a Homozygote recessive, what genotypes will you get?

a)

50% 11

50% 12

b)

50% 12

50% 22

c)

100% 12

d)

25% 11

50% 12

25% 22

47.

If type AA and type AB have kids, what could their kids genotypes be?

a)

AA

b)

AB

c)

AO

d)

BO

e)

OO

48.

A gene for a disease is X-linked recessive. If a son had the disease, which parent gave him the allele with the disease?

a)

Mom

b)

Dad

c)

Both Mom and Dad

49.

What pedigree pattern is shown here?

a)

Complete Dominant

b)

Complete Recessive

c)

X-Linked Recessive

d)

Co Dominant

e)

Incomplete Dominant

50.

What pedigree pattern is shown here?

a)

Complete Dominant

b)

Complete Recessive

c)

X-Linked Recessive

d)

Co Dominant

e)

Incomplete Dominant

51.

A typical biological female cell will have which sex chromosomes

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

YY

d)

YX

52.

When drawing a pedigree what should you NOT do

a)

have children below parents

b)

draw females as circles

c)

Shade in affected individuals

d)

Connect siblings with horizontal lines

53.

B Antibodies attack

a)

A Antigens

b)

B Antigens

c)

Rh Antigens

d)

A Antibodies

54.

An albino (recessive trait) women has kids with a Homozygous dominant man, what is the probability of an albino child?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

55.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
56.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
57.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
58.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
59.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
60.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
61.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
62.
I travel outside of the nucleus.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
63.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

64.

Where are chromosomes located inside the cell?

a)

The ribosome

b)

The nucleus

c)

The nuclear membrane

d)

The cell wall

65.

What is the nucleic acid that stores and transmits the genetic information from one generation to another?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

mRNA

d)

tRNA

66.

What is a monomer of nucleic acids made of 3 parts, a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and a nitogenous base

a)

DNA

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

RNA

67.

What are the "messengers" from DNA to the rest of the cell?

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Ribose

c)

DNA

d)

mRNA

68.

What RNA would bond to the following RNA sequence:

AUG GCG UCA

a)

URC CGC RGU

b)

CAC CGC AUA

c)

TAC CGC AGT

d)

UAC CGC AGU

69.

This molecule reads the messenger RNA and adds corresponding amino acids

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

70.

If a mutation causes a stop codon, then it is a _______ Mutation

a)

Frameshift

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

d)

Silent

71.

If a mutation causes a single amino acid to change, then it is a _______ Mutation

a)

Frameshift

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

d)

Silent

72.

If a codon changes from CGG to CGA, what type of mutation is that?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

d)

Silent

73.

If a mutation happens and all amino acids after are changed, then it is most likely a _________ mutation

a)

Frameshift

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

d)

Silent

74.

DNA is directly involved in the process of

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Both

d)

Neither

75.

mRNA is directly involved in the process of

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Both

d)

Neither

76.

tRNA is directly involved in the process of

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Both

d)

Neither

77.

rRNA is directly involved in the process of

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Both

d)

Neither

78.

If my mRNA strand is AGG-CUA-CGG, what would my tRNA strand be?

a)

AGG-CUA-CGG

b)

TCC-GAT-GCC

c)

UCC-GAU-GCC

d)

AGG-CTA-GCC

79.

What amino acid would I get from the codon

TTA

a)

Leu

b)

Phe

c)

Asn

d)

Stop

80.

What amino acid would I get from the DNA codon

AGG

a)

Stop

b)

Arg

c)

Thr

d)

Tyr

81.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

Exonuclease

82.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding the new nucleotides

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

Exonuclease

83.

Which is the first step of DNA Replication?

a)

Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

Primase lays down RNA primer

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands of DNA

d)

Ligase knits together fragments

84.

Which is the second step of DNA Replication?

a)

Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

Primase lays down RNA primer f

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands of DNA

d)

Ligase knits together fragments

85.

Which is the third step of DNA Replication?

a)

Exonuclease removes RNA primers and DNA polymerase fills the spaces with DNA

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands of DNA

d)

Ligase knits together fragments

86.

Which is the fourth step of DNA Replication?

a)

Exonuclease removes RNA primers and DNA polymerase fills the spaces with DNA, and Ligase fills the gaps

b)

Enzymes proofread the DNA of base errors

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Primase Builds RNA primers

87.

What is the purpose of DNA replication?

a)

To make identical copies of DNA for new cells

b)

To make new genetic variation in the DNA

c)

To make proteins

d)

To replace old DNA in the cell

88.

What is the job of the Ribosome?

a)

To help make DNA

b)

To help make RNA

c)

To help make protein

d)

to help replicate DNA

89.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
90.

Vestigial structures

a)

structures that perform a similar function but are not similar in origin

b)

remnants of once-important structures that have slowly lost all or most of their function

c)

features found in different organisms that share structural similarities but may have very different functions

d)

preserved remains of an organism

91.
Which layer is the youngest
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
92.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
93.

A species is...

a)

a group of organisms that look alike

b)

a group that you can breed together

c)

a group that can reproduce and have fertile offspring

d)

a group that lives in the same location

94.

Marine life and invertebrates dominated the planet during the

a)

Paleozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Cenozoic

d)

Triazoic

95.

Dinosaurs dominated the planet during the

a)

Paleozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Cenozoic

d)

Triazoic

96.

Mammals and birds dominated the planet during the

a)

Paleozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Cenozoic

d)

Triazoic

97.

What is LUCA?

a)

The first living thing

b)

The ancestor of humans

c)

the most recent ancestor to all living things

d)

the process of evolution

98.

Which of these is NOT a potential cause of speciation

a)

Breeding a hybrid

b)

Different locations

c)

Different mating styles

d)

Gamete DNA/Protein too different

99.

Which group of animals on this tree are most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these are related to birds

100.

Carbon has a half life of about 5700 years. If I have a sample that only have 25% of the carbon left, how old is it?

a)

5700

b)

11,400

c)

17,100

d)

22,800

101.

If there are only 3 males left in a species, we would consider them to be

a)

Complete Extinct

b)

Extinct in the Wild

c)

Functionally Extinct

d)

Subspecies Extinction

102.

If the only individuals of a species are in a zoo, we would consider that to be

a)

Complete Extinct

b)

Extinct in the Wild

c)

Functionally Extinct

d)

Subspecies Extinction

103.

The T-rex would be considered

a)

Complete Extinct

b)

Extinct in the Wild

c)

Functionally Extinct

d)

Subspecies Extinction

104.

If the West African elephants were to go extinct, but the South African elephants still existed, we would consider that to be

a)

Complete Extinct

b)

Extinct in the Wild

c)

Functionally Extinct

d)

Subspecies Extinction

105.

What is a Mass Extinction?

a)

When all life dies on earth

b)

when about 20% of life goes extinct in a given time

c)

When about 5% of life goes extinct in a give time

d)

When an environment gets destroyed and all the species there die out

106.

What number is the common ancestor of C and D

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

107.

From the picture above, What do The salamander, lizard, pigeon, mouse, and chimp share in common?

a)

Jaws

b)

Claws/nails

c)

Lungs

d)

Feathers

Similar Resources on Wayground

Georgia Biology Milestones EOC Review

106 questions

Georgia Biology Milestones EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Genetics and Evolution EOC Review

109 questions

Genetics and Evolution EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

Biology EOC STAAR Review

109 questions

Biology EOC STAAR Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Biology Mid Year Review

110 questions

Biology Mid Year Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

Biology STAAR Review

102 questions

Biology STAAR Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Cells Unit Review

105 questions

Cells Unit Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 10th Grade

Pre-AP Biology Spring Final Review

104 questions

Pre-AP Biology Spring Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

Semester 2 Final Molecular Biology

107 questions

Semester 2 Final Molecular Biology

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade