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S2 Test Review Chemistry

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?

a)

2 non-metals

b)

1 metal and 1 non-metal

c)

2 metals

2.

What type of bond involves the sharing of electrons between atoms?

a)

covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

transfer bond

3.

Identify the following compound as ionic or covalent: SO2

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

4.

Identify the following compound as ionic or covalent: Ca(OH)2

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

5.

When naming covalent compounds,

a)

roman numerals are needed but no prefixes required

b)

both roman numerals or prefixes are not required

c)

both roman numerals and prefixes must be included

d)

prefixes are needed but roman numerals are not required

6.
SiCl4
a)
silicon tetrachloride
b)
silicon quadchloride
c)
monosilicon tetrachloride
d)
silicon chloride
7.
What is the name of N2O3
a)
Nitrogen trioxide
b)
Dinitrogen oxide
c)
Dinitrogen trioxide
d)
Nitrogen oxide
8.
What is the name of Br6F10 ?
a)
Bromium fluoride
b)
Hexabromine fluoride
c)
Bromium decafluoride
d)
none of the above
9.
What is the OFFICIAL name for H2O
a)
Hydrogen Oxide
b)
Oxygen Dinitride
c)
Agua
d)
Dihydrogen Monoxide
10.
A covalent compound made of one sulfur and two oxygen atoms would be named
a)
sulfur dioxide.
b)
sulfur oxide.
c)
disulfur oxide.
d)
sulfide oxygen.
11.

Select the correct formula for the

COVALENT COMPOUND

diphosphorus trioxide

a)

PO

b)

P3O2

c)

PO2

d)

P2O3

12.

Select the correct formula for the

COVALENT COMPOUND

carbon tetrachloride

a)

CCl

b)

CCl2

c)

C4Cl2

d)

CCl4

13.
Which of the following describes covalent bonds?
a)
Bonds form because of opposite charges
b)
Bonds form to fill outer electron shells
c)
Electrons are transferred between atoms
d)
Covalent bonds are magical
14.
How are covalent bonds explained?
a)
When one atom takes the other atom's electron
b)
When the atom shares an electron with an another atom
c)
When the two nucleus merge
d)
When the neutrons leave the nucleus
15.
What region of the periodic table contains atoms that form covalent bonds?
a)
the left side
b)
the middle
c)
the right side
d)
top left
16.
What is the correct formula for this molecule?
a)
NH
b)
N3H
c)
NH3
d)
NH4
17.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot structure for the molecule fluorine (F2)?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
18.
The desire for an element to have 8 atoms around it is called 
a)
Octet Rule
b)
Resonance
c)
Ionization energy
d)
Electronegativity
19.
Which of the following elements wants to bond 3 times
a)
Oxygen
b)
Phosphorous
c)
Fluorine
d)
Germanium
20.
Which of the following is a Diatomic Molecule 
a)
K2
b)
C2
c)
S2
d)
N2
21.
What is the name of this Compound
a)
P2O5
b)
Phosphorous PentaOxide
c)
Diphosphorous pentaoxide
d)
Phosphourous Oxide
22.
What is the formula for this Compound
a)
PCl
b)
PCL5
c)
PCl5
d)
Phosphorous Penta Chloride
23.
What is the name of this Molecule shape
a)
Tetrahedral
b)
Trigonal Pyramidal 
c)
Trigonal bipyramidal
d)
Bent
24.

Carbon is in 4A, so how many bonds can it form based on electrons needed to fill its outer shell?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

25.

Which formula is for phosphorus trichloride?

a)

KCl3

b)

PCl3

c)

K3Cl

d)

P3Cl

26.
What is the formula for Hydrosulfuric Acid?
a)
H2(SO3)
b)
H2S
c)
H2(SO2)
d)
H2(SO4)
27.
Name HF
a)
hydrofluoric acid
b)
Hypofluoric acid
c)
hydrogen fluorine acid
d)
fluoric acid
28.
Name the acid: H3PO3
a)
hydrophosphoric acid
b)
phosphorous acid
c)
phosphoric acid
d)
phosphoric hydroxide
29.
What is the formula for nitric acid?
a)
HNO2
b)
HNO3
c)
HNO4
d)
H2NO3
30.
What is the formula for perchloric acid?
a)
H3ClO3
b)
H3ClO4
c)
HClO3
d)
HClO4
31.
HNO2
a)
hydronitrogen
b)
hydrogen nitrogen oxygen
c)
nitrous acid
d)
nitric acid
32.
HBr
a)
hydrogen bromine acid
b)
hydrobromide acid
c)
hydrobromic acid
33.

What is the name of Si3H8?

(a)  

34.

What is the name of CF4?

(a)  

35.

What is the formula for tetranitrogen hexahydride

a)

N5H7

b)

N6H8

c)

N4H6

d)

N3H10

36.

What is the name of P8Br10

(a)  

37.

What is the formula for heptacarbon nonaiodide

a)

C8I6

b)

C5I4

c)

C6I10

d)

C7I9

38.

What is the name of ClF?

(a)  

39.

What is the formula for dihydrogen monosulfide?

a)

H2S

b)

H10S9

c)

H3S4

d)

HS2

40.

What is the name of NBr3

(a)  

41.

What is the name of Si6F8

(a)  

42.

What is the formula for pentasulfide dichloride?

a)

S5Cl2

b)

S4Cl2

c)

S7Cl2

d)

S4Cl3

43.

What is the name of H10N8

(a)  

44.

Which of the following is the formula of heptacarbon nonachloride?

a)

C9Cl7

b)

C6Cl4

c)

C7Cl9

d)

C5Cl6

45.

Match the following

a)

decomposition reaction

1.

a reaction in which a compound breaks down into two or more elements

b)

coefficient

2.

a number written in front of a chemical formula

c)

precipitate

3.

a solid produced during a chemical reaction solution

d)

aqueous solution

4.

a solution in which the solvent is water

e)

chemical equation

5.

statement that uses chem formulas to show identities and relative amounts of substance in chem react

46.

Match the following

a)

complete ionic equation

1.

an equation that shows all of the particles in solution as they actually exist

b)

solute

2.

a substance dissolved in a solution

c)

net ionic equation

3.

an equation that includes only the particles that participate in the reaction

d)

spectator ion

4.

an ion that is present but does not participate in a reaction

e)

reactant

5.

the most plentiful substance in a solution

47.

Match the following

a)

combustion reaction

1.

a reaction in which oxygen combines with a substance and releases heat and light energy

b)

single replacement

2.

a reaction in which the atoms of one element replace the atoms of another element in a compound

c)

double replacement

3.

a reaction involving the exchange of positive ions between two compounds dissolved in water

d)

chemical reaction

4.

the process by which atoms or one or more substances are rearranged to form different substances

e)

synthesis reaction

5.

a reaction in which two or more substances react to produce a single product

48.

Match the following

a)

product

1.

a substance formed during a chemical reaction

b)

reactant

2.

a starting substance in a chemical reaction

c)

solute

3.

a substance dissolved in a solution

d)

solvent

4.

the most plentiful substance in a solution

e)

precipitate

5.

a solid produced during a chemical reaction solution

49.

Assume that Q, T, X, and Z are symbols for elements. Match each equation with the reaction type it represents.

a)

Q+XZ → X+QZQ+XZ\ \rightarrow\ X+QZ

1.

single replacement

b)

Q+Z → QZQ+Z\ \rightarrow\ QZ

2.

synthesis

c)

QT → Q+TQT\ \rightarrow\ Q+T

3.

decomposition

d)

QT+XZ → QZ+XTQT+XZ\ \rightarrow\ QZ+XT

4.

double replacement

50.

The reactant that limits the extent of the reaction is called the (a)   .

51.

The (a)   of a chemical reaction is the amount of product produced by the reaction in reality.

52.

A(n) (a)   is a ratio between the number of moles of any two substances in a balanced chemical equation.

53.

If a portion of reactant remains after the reaction is completed, then that reactant is said to be the (a)   .

54.

The (a)   is the maximum amount of product that can be produced from a given amount of reactant.

55.

(a)   is the study of the numerical relationships between products and reactants in a chemical reaction.

56.

The (a)   of a reaction gives the ratio of the actual yield to the theoretical yield.

57.

The amount of product formed during a reaction depends on the (a)   .

58.

Rarely does the actual yield of a reaction equal the (a)   .

59.

Stoichiometry is based on the law of conservation of ___.

a)

charge

b)

volume

c)

reactants

d)

mass

60.

In a balanced chemical equation, the numbers of individual particles and the numbers of moles of particles are represented by the ___.

a)

chemical symbols

b)

coefficients

c)

subscripts

d)

molar masses

61.

Mole ratios for a reaction are obtained from the ___.

a)

balanced chemical equation

b)

total mass of products

c)

periodic table

d)

molar masses

62.

In the decomposition reaction of compound AB into substances A and B, what is the number of mole ratios that can be formed?

a)

3

b)

9

c)

6

d)

1

63.

Calculating the mass of a reactant and product from the number of moles of another product or reactant in a chemical equation is an example of a ___.

a)

mass-to-mass conversion

b)

mole-to-mole conversion

c)

mass-to-mole conversion

d)

mole-to-mass conversion

64.

Limiting a reactant is often accomplished by ___.

a)

using an excess of another reactant

b)

overcoming conservation of mass

c)

slowing down a chemical reaction

d)

producing excess product

65.

In a reaction, substances A and B form substance C. If the actual mole ratio of substance B to substance A is less than the balanced equation mole ratio of substance B to substance A, substance B is the ___.

a)

product

b)

actual yield

c)

limiting reactant

d)

excess reactant

66.

Percent yield of a product is a measure of a reaction's ___.

a)

heat production

b)

spontaneity

c)

rate

d)

efficiency

67.

The actual yield of a product is ___.

a)

independent of the reactants

b)

the same as its theoretical

c)

a negative value

d)

measured experimentally

68.

2C8H18 (g) + 25O2 (g) → 16CO2 (g) + 18H2O(l)2C_8H_{18\ \left(g\right)}\ +\ 25O_{2\ \left(g\right)}\ \rightarrow\ 16CO_{2\ \left(g\right)}\ +\ 18H_2O_{\left(l\right)}

How many molecules of carbon dioxide are represented by the equation?

(a)  

69.

2C8H18 (g) + 25O2 (g) → 16CO2 (g) + 18H2O(l)2C_8H_{18\ \left(g\right)}\ +\ 25O_{2\ \left(g\right)}\ \rightarrow\ 16CO_{2\ \left(g\right)}\ +\ 18H_2O_{\left(l\right)}

How many moles of octane are represented by the equation?

(a)  

70.

2C8H18 (g) + 25O2 (g) → 16CO2 (g) + 18H2O(l)2C_8H_{18\ \left(g\right)}\ +\ 25O_{2\ \left(g\right)}\ \rightarrow\ 16CO_{2\ \left(g\right)}\ +\ 18H_2O_{\left(l\right)}

What is the simplified mole ratio of the octane to carbon dioxide. (Write your ratio using the format A:B, where A and B are your numbers)

(a)  

71.

2C8H18 (g) + 25O2 (g) → 16CO2 (g) + 18H2O(l)2C_8H_{18\ \left(g\right)}\ +\ 25O_{2\ \left(g\right)}\ \rightarrow\ 16CO_{2\ \left(g\right)}\ +\ 18H_2O_{\left(l\right)}

What is the simplified mole ratio of oxygen to octane. (Write your ratio using the format A:B, where A and B are your numbers)

(a)  

72.

A solid is a state of matter that has a(n)

a)

indefinite volume and indefinite shape

b)

definite volume and a definite shape

c)

definite volume and an indefinite shape

d)

indefinite volume and a definite shape

73.
In which state of matter are particles packed tightly together in fixed positions?
a)
gas 
b)
solid
c)
liquid
d)
plasma
74.
Particles of a liquid
a)
are tightly packed together and stay in a fixed position
b)
have no viscosity
c)
decrease in volume with increasing temperature
d)
are free to move in a container but are in close contact with one another
75.
In which state of matter do particles spread apart and fill all the space available to them? 
a)
crystal
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
solid
76.
The change from a  liquid to solid, or the reverse of melting, is called
a)
condensation
b)
boiling
c)
sublimation
d)
freezing
77.

The freezing point of water is the same as its

a)

melting point

b)

boiling point

c)

sublimation point

d)

evaporation point

78.

An uncovered pot of soup is simmering on a stove, and there are water droplets on the wall above the back of the stove. What sequence can you infer has occurred?

a)

melting, then boiling

b)

freezing, then thawing

c)

vaporization, then condensation

d)

condensation, then vaporization

79.
The amount of space that a gas takes up is its
a)
volume
b)
mass
c)
pressure
d)
density
80.
Which state of matter undergoes changes in volume most easily?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
frozen
81.
During the process of sublimation
a)
a solid turns directly into a gas
b)
a solid turns into a liquid
c)
a gas turns directly into a solid 
d)
 a liquid turns into a gas
82.

In a(n) (a)   , the particles are packed closely together, but they can move past each other freely.

83.

The common state of matter that does not have a definite shape or a definite volume is a(n) (a)   .

84.

The characteristic temperature at which a pure solid changes to a liquid is its (a)   point.

85.

A shrinking puddle is an example of (a)   , or vaporization that takes place only on the surface.

86.

(a)   occurs when a liquid changes to a gas below its surface as well as at the surface.

87.

In which state of matter are the particles least able to move?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

88.

Which of these three states represents a liquid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

89.

Which of these three states would you expect to be the most affected by the volume of its container?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

90.

Match the following

a)

Mass defect

1.

The difference between the mass of a nucleus and the sum of its nucleons

b)

Transmutation

2.

The process in which an atom of one element changes into an atom of another element

c)

Strong Nuclear Force

3.

A force that acts only on subatomic particles that are extremely close together

d)

Thermonuclear Reaction

4.

A fusion reaction that takes place only at very high temperatures

91.

Match the following

a)

Band of stability

1.

The area on a graph plotting neutrons and protons within which all stable nuclei are found

b)

Radioisotope

2.

Isotopes of atoms with unstable nuclei that emit radiation

c)

Ionizing radiation

3.

Radiation energetic enough to ionize matter with which it collides

d)

Induced transmutation

4.

Artificial production of nuclear react that involves striking nuclei w/ high-velocity charged partic

e)

Radiochemical dating

5.

A way of determining the age of very old objects using radioactive materials

92.

Match the following

a)

X-ray

1.

A form of high-energy electromagnetic radiation

b)

Critical mass

2.

Describes a sample of fissionable material that is massive enough to sustain a chain reaction

c)

Nucleon

3.

A proton or neutron

d)

Radiotracer

4.

A radioisotope that emits non-ionizing radiation

93.

Match the following

a)

Radioactive decay series

1.

Nuclear reactions beginning with an unstable nucleus and result to form a stable nucleus

b)

Transuranium element

2.

Any element with an atomic number greater than 92

c)

Electron capture

3.

A transmutation process brought about when an electron is absorbed by a nucleus

d)

Breeder Reactor

4.

Reactors able to produce more fuel than they use

94.

The most penetrating form of nuclear radiation is

a)

gamma rays

b)

beta rays

c)

alpha rays

d)

positrons

95.

In an atom, the strong nuclear force acts on

a)

protons and neutrons

b)

protons only

c)

protons, neutrons, and electrons

d)

neutrons only

96.

During the process of electron capture, an electron from outside the nucleus joins with a proton to form...

a)

a neutron

b)

a gamma ray

c)

a positron

d)

another proton

97.

The half life of calcium-47 is about 5 days. Starting with 64g of this isotope, what would be the amount remaining after 20 days?

a)

8g

b)

16g

c)

4g

d)

32g

98.

One product of all nuclear fusion reaction is

a)

a larger nucleus

b)

electrons

c)

protons

d)

neutrons

99.

Mass is lost or gained in ___.

a)

all nuclear fusion reactions

b)

all chemical reactions

c)

all nuclear fission reactions

d)

all chemical and nuclear reactions

100.

A chain reaction will NOT take place in a piece of uranium if ___.

a)

the piece of uranium is too large

b)

there are too many neutrons

c)

the temperature is too low

d)

there are too few neutrons

101.

One of the most serious problems surrounding the use of nuclear power plants is ___.

a)

the high cost of coolant needed

b)

a lack of uranium

c)

initiating a chain reaction in the fuel

d)

finding a way to dispose of spent fuel rods

102.

Fusion reactions require ___.

a)

very rare elements for use as fuel

b)

incredibly high temperatures

c)

very heavy nuclei

d)

no initial energy

103.

When this isotope decays by beta emission, the isotope formed is ___.

a)

b)

c)

d)

104.

The isotope formed by the alpha decay of this isotope is.

a)

b)

c)

d)

105.

The decay of this Tm isotope yields this Er isotope and ___.

a)

γ\gamma

b)

e-

c)

e+

d)

106.

Atoms located above the band of stability on a graph of numbers of neutrons versus number of protons are usually unstable because they contain too many ___.

a)

neutrons

b)

protons

c)

nucleons

d)

electrons

107.

Match the following

a)

TLD badge

1.

Worn by workers to monitor radiation exposure

b)

scintillation counter

2.

Contains phosphors that detect radiation

c)

ionizing radiation

3.

Radiation energetic enough to break apart atoms

d)

Geiger counter

4.

Uses a gas-filled metal tube to detect and measure radiation

108.

Match the following

a)

phosphor

1.

A material used to detect very small amounts of an element in a sample

b)

neutron activation analysis

2.

A method used to detect very small amounts of an element in a sample

c)

radiotracer

3.

A radioisotope used to indicate the presence of an element in a sample

d)

iodine-131

4.

Used to detect disorders of the thyroid gland

109.

Match the following

a)

PET

1.

A procedure that uses positrons to detect many different medical disorders

b)

gamma ray

2.

This type of radiation easily penetrates human tissue

c)

somatic damage

3.

Damage caused by radiation that affects a person, but not their offspring

d)

genetic damage

4.

Radiation damage that can affect chromosomes and offspring

110.

Match the following

a)

rad

1.

A unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed by a body

b)

rem

2.

A unit used to measure the amount of damage done to a body

c)

100-300 mrem

3.

The annual amount of radiation to which a person is normally exposed

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