Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

2nd Semester Final 2023

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If the the air quality index is 30, it is safe for everyone to go outside. (a)  

Choose from the below words
True
False
2.

If the air quality index for the day is 105, it is unhealthy for ALL people. (a)  

Choose from the below words
True
False
3.

If a person has asthma and the air quality index is 155, should he or she go outside and play for long periods of time? (a)  

Choose from the below words
yes
no
4.

Which health concern level has an index value of 201-300? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Good
Moderate
Unhealthy for sensitive groups
Unhealthy
Very unhealthy
5.
This picture shows people walking through a highly-polluted city in China. From what type of pollution are they protecting themselves based on what they are wearing?

a)
air pollution
b)
water pollution
c)
land pollution
d)
noise pollution
6.
What can humans do to reduce the effects of acid rain?
a)
Develop Alternate Energy Sources (Solar Power, Wind Energy)
b)
Use Less Energy
c)
Stop Burning Fossil Fuels
d)
All of the Answers are Correct
7.

Everyone should try to reduce their ...

a)

carbon footprint

b)

solar footprint

c)

pylon footprint

d)

global footprint

8.

Which has more biodiversity?

a)

A Rainforest

b)

A meadow

9.

Which is the risk group to black carbon/soot?

a)

People with heart or lung diseases

b)

People with low socioeconomic status

c)

People with masks

10.
When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the                       as carbon dioxide.
a)
Water
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Sun
d)
Air
11.

Each of the 11 body systems:

a)

Is interchangeable

b)

Depends on others to function

c)

Performs a single task

d)

Is controlled by the lungs

12.

The circulatory system and the nervous system both:

a)

Deliver blood to vital organs

b)

Extend throughout the body

c)

Send electrical signals to the brain

d)

Guard the body against infection

13.

What can you infer about carbon dioxide from the function of the respiratory system?

a)

It helps you breathe

b)

It is more common than oxygen

c)

It is harmful to your body

d)

It is not found in the body

14.

When you are hungry, you eat.

What is the response?

a)

hunger

b)

eating

c)

stomach

d)

nerves

15.

According to the model, what is the response to HIGH blood glucose (sugar)?

a)

Pancreas releases insulin into blood

b)

Pancreas releases glucagon into blood

16.

According to the model, what is the response to LOW blood glucose (sugar)?

a)

Pancreas releases insulin into blood

b)

Pancreas releases glucagon into blood

17.

According to the model, what would happen if the pancreas did NOT detect rising blood glucose (sugar) level?

a)

Blood sugar would return to normal

b)

Most body cells would take up more glucose

c)

Blood sugar would stay above normal

d)

The liver would get the message to store glucose as glycogen

18.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)

is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment

d)

is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment

19.

When you exercise, what gas does your body NEED more of?

a)

Blood

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

20.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

21.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

22.

What is a gamete?

a)

a body cell (ex. skin or heart cell)

b)

an autosome

c)

a sex cell (ex. sperm or egg)

d)

a somatic cell

23.

When does "crossing over" of genes occur during meiosis?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

24.

During which phase are sister chromatids lined up in a single file along the center of the cell?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

25.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

26.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

27.

If an egg cell of an organism contains 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes should be present in a heart cell of the same organism?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

6

d)

48

28.

What is a gamete?

a)

a body cell (ex. skin or heart cell)

b)

an autosome

c)

a sex cell (ex. sperm or egg)

d)

a somatic cell

29.

How many chromosomes does a sex cell have compared to a body cell?

a)

twice as many

b)

the same amount

c)

the same, but replicated

d)

half as many

30.

Somatic cells are formed during what process?

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

DNA replication

d)

interphase

31.

The matching pair of chromosomes you inherit from your genetic parents are called

a)

sister chromatids

b)

autosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

sex chromosomes

32.

When does "crossing over" of genes occur during meiosis?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

33.

What happens during anaphase?

a)

Chromosomes/chromatids line up in center

b)

Nucleus dissolves

c)

The cell divides

d)

Chromosomes/chromatids are pulled apart

34.

How many chromosomes are in the somatic cells of humans?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

42

d)

26

35.

Which of the following is an example of a somatic cell?

a)

egg cells

b)

stomach cells

c)

sperm cells

d)

gametes

36.

During which phase are sister chromatids lined up in a single file along the center of the cell?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

37.

Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid?

a)

A and B

b)

A and C

c)

B and C

d)

A only

38.

A diploid pea plant cell contains 14 chromosomes. How many chromsomes would be in a haploid pea plant cell?

a)

28

b)

14

c)

7

d)

21

39.

What is the purpose of meiosis?

a)

growth

b)

repair

c)

reproduction

d)

to create identical cells

40.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

growth and repair

b)

reproduction

c)

genetic diversity

d)

to create unique cells

41.

True or False: Crossing over only occurs in meiosis.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

True or False: DNA replication occurs only before mitosis

a)

True

b)

False

43.

True or False: Meiosis results in identical cells.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

True or False: Meiosis produces haploid gametes.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

True or False: Meiosis results in identical cells.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Any organism that causes disease like a virus or bacteria is called:

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antibody

c)

Pathogen

d)

Phagocyte

47.

Part of the body's defense against pathogens in which cells of the immune system react to each kind of pathogen with a defense targeted specifically at that pathogen is called:

a)

Protective Barrier

b)

Inflammatory Response

c)

Immune Response

d)

Stomach acid

48.

A protein produced by B cells of the immune system that destroys pathogens is called:

a)

Antigens

b)

Antibodies

c)

T-cells

d)

Lymphocytes

49.

The body's ability to destroy pathogens before they can cause disease is called:

a)

Tolerance

b)

Immunity

c)

Vaccine

d)

Inflammatory response

50.

Which of the following is a way to spread infectious diseases?

a)

Touching contaminated objects

b)

Not washing hands regularly

c)

Being near infected people

d)

All of these are ways

51.

When the body encounters a pathogen, antibodies are created that are specific to that pathogen. The next time the body encounters the pathogen, the response will be:

a)

Slower

b)

Faster

52.

What is a preparation of dead or weakened pathogens that is introduced into the body to cause an immune response?

a)

fungi

b)

vaccine

c)

antigens

53.

These 2 parts of the microscope support the entire microscope.

a)

Arm; Illuminator

b)

Base; eyepiece

c)

Arm; Base

d)

Objective Lenses; Stage

54.

What is the purpose of the stage?

a)

To mount the specimen

b)

To sharpen the image of the specimen

c)

To magnify the the image

d)

Holds the slide in place

55.

Which objective lense is used to locate the specimen?

a)

High power objective lense

b)

Low power objective lense

56.

In a compound light microscope, there is a steady light source. What is the part that emits light called?

a)

Objective Lenses

b)

Illuminator

c)

Ocular lense

d)

Stage

57.

Viruses need a ____________ in order to make copies of themselves.

a)

bacterial cell

b)

host cell

c)

capsid

d)

vaccine

58.

Antibiotics ________ treat viral infections.

a)

can

b)

cannot

59.

One you are infected with a virus, you can only treat the symptoms.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

When given a vaccine, your body recognizes it as an invader and builds _________ against the virus.

a)

lysogens

b)

capsids

c)

antibodies

d)

immunoglobulins

61.

Which genotype is homozygous? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Bb
bb
AB
62.

Which genotype is heterozygous? (a)  

Choose from the below words
BB
bb
CC
Bb
63.

Complete the punnett square; what is the likelihood that an offspring is homozygous recessive?

a)

1 in 4, or 25%

b)

2 in 4, or 50%

c)

1 in 2, or 50%

d)

0 in 4, or o%

64.

Two heterozygous yellow gummies mate. What percentage of their offspring are yellow?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

75

d)

100

65.

If only ​ (a)   phenotypes are possible, the inheritance pattern is normal ​ (b)   . When three ​ (c)   are possible, and a heterozygote has a blended appearance, the inheritance pattern is ​ (d)   dominance.

Choose from the below words
two
dominance
phenotypes
incomplete
co-
genotypes
66.

The first stage of protein synthesis is called a

a)

mitosis

b)

replication

c)

translation

d)

transcription

67.

The second stage of protein synthesis is called a

a)

mitosis

b)

replication

c)

translation

d)

transcription

68.

Which of the following summarizes what is happening during transcription?

a)

mRNA ⇒ DNA

b)

DNA ⇒ mRNA

c)

mRNA ⇒ protein

d)

protein ⇒ mRNA

69.

Which of the following summarizes what is happening during translation?

a)

mRNA ⇒ DNA

b)

DNA ⇒ mRNA

c)

mRNA ⇒ protein

d)

protein ⇒ mRNA

70.

Which statement about transcription and translation is correct?

a)

Transcription takes place in the nucleus, whereas translation takes place in the cytoplasm.

b)

Translation takes place in the nucleus, whereas transcription takes place in the cytoplasm.

71.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AAA TCG TTG CCC

a)

AAA TCG TTG CCC

b)

TTT AGC AAC GGG

c)

UUU AGC AAC GGG

d)

UUU TGC TTC GGG

72.

Which of the tRNA anticodons are complementary to the following mRNA codons: UUU-CCG-AAA

a)

UUU-CCG-AAA

b)

AAA-GGC-TTT

c)

AAA-GGC-UUU

d)

TTT-GGC-UUU

73.

What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Leucine

d)

Stop codon

74.

Which codon can code for tryptophan?

a)

U G G

b)

A G U

c)

C A A

d)

A U G

75.

What process is shown in the image

a)

Mitosis

b)

Replication

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

76.

What process is shown in the image?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Replication

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

77.

Transfer RNA (tRNA) is used in

a)

transcription.

b)

translation.

78.

Proteins are made at the

a)

nucleus.

b)

ribosome.

79.

Which represents the correct flow of genetic information (central dogma)?

a)

DNA →\rightarrow  RNA →\rightarrow  Protein

b)

 RNA →\rightarrow  DNA →\rightarrow  Protein

c)

Protein →\rightarrow  RNA →\rightarrow  DNA

d)

DNA →\rightarrow  Protein →\rightarrow  RNA

80.

________ can leave the nucleus.

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Both DNA and RNA

81.

CRISPR can edit DNA. What organisms naturally has CRISPR?

a)

Viruses

b)

Humans

c)

Plants

d)

Bacteria

82.

Why do bacteria have CRISPR? Check all that apply.

a)

To be able to remember which viruses they have been infected with

b)

To be able to edit virus DNA

c)

To cut apart virus DNA thereby stopping the virus infection

d)

To be able to edit their own DNA

83.

What enzyme is used in CRISPR gene editing?

a)

Cas3

b)

Cpr 9

c)

Rna5

d)

Cas 9

84.
How does CRISPR differ from previous techniques of gene editing?
a)
slower, more expensive, but more accurate
b)
faster, cheaper, and more accurate
c)
faster, more expensive, more accurate
d)
slower, cheaper, less accurate
85.

What was the original function of the CRISPR system?

a)

Defending bacteria from viral infections

b)

Defending bacteriophages from bacteria

c)

Defending leukocytes from viruses

d)

Defending against bacteria

86.

What possible risks are there to genetic modification of designer babies?

a)

New forms of illnesses may arise

b)

May remove certain genes off target that are important for the baby’s overall development and growth

c)

Both Options

d)

Neither Options