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Biology G Final Exam Review

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 2hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
2.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
3.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
4.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
5.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
6.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
7.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
8.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
9.

What's the difference between purine and pyrimidine nitrogen bases?

a)

Pyrimidines are only found in DNA, not RNA

b)

Pyrimidines have two rings, Purines have one

c)

Purines are only found in DNA, not RNA

d)

Purines have two rings, Pyrimidines have one

10.

DNA is important because it ...

a)

helps speed up reactions.

b)

helps the body make proteins.

c)

stores energy.

d)

insulates the body.

11.

What is the outcome of DNA transcription and translation?

a)

Make muscles

b)

Make protein

c)

Make cells

d)

Make DNA

12.

What is the basic unit (monomer) of DNA?

a)

Phosphate Group

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Monosaccharide

13.

What shape is DNA?

a)

Alpha Helix

b)

Double Helix

c)

Tangled

d)

Flat

14.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
15.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
16.
What is the mRNA strand that would result from the DNA template strand CCTA?
a)
GGAT
b)
CCAT
c)
GGAU
d)
CCAU
17.
The principle shown in the image is called what?
a)
Transcription
b)
The Central Dogma
c)
Translation
d)
The Principle of Proteins
18.
Which of these nitrogenous bases is NOT in RNA?
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Guanine
19.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
20.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

21.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

22.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

23.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

24.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

25.

Identify the DELETION mutation form the following:

ATG CCA AAT

a)

ATG TCA AAT

b)

ATG CCT AAA T

c)

ATC CA AT

d)

ATG CCA AAT

26.

What type of point mutation would cause the least problems?

a)

missense

b)

nonsense

c)

silent

d)

frameshift

27.

Which of the following would be a description of a mutation?

a)

the creation of RNA using DNA as a template

b)

producing 2 identical strands of DNA from a parent molecule

c)

an unexpected change in the order of nucleotides on a DNA strand

d)

the creation of a protein by reading RNA codons

28.

What stage of interphase does DNA replication occur?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

29.

Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis. Which statement about crossing over is true?

a)

RNA translation occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Crossing over takes place in backterial cells

c)

Crossing over produces genetically identical daughter cells

d)

Crossing over provides genetic diversity in eukaryotic cells

30.

Which of the following are in order from smallest to largest

a)

Cells -> tissue -> organ -> organ system

b)

Cells -> Organ system -> tissue -> organ

c)

Organ system -> Organ -> Tissue -> Cell

d)

Tissue -> organ system -> Cell -> Organ

31.

During prophase

a)

DNA lines up in the middle of the cell and DNA attaches to spindle fibers

b)

DNA condenses into chromosomes, centrioles and spindle fibers appear

c)

2 new identical cells are created

d)

DNA gets copied

32.

During metaphase

a)

DNA lines up in the middle of the cell and DNA attaches to spindle fibers

b)

centrioles and spindle fibers appear

c)

2 new identical cells are created

d)

DNA gets copied

33.

During anaphase

a)

DNA lines up in the middle of the cell and DNA attaches to spindle fibers

b)

centrioles and spindle fibers appear

c)

Each DNA gets pull to the opposite sides of the cell

d)

DNA gets copied

34.

Make the connection: cells come from preexisting cells by the processes of

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Mitosis and Cytokinesis

e)

Cytokinesis and Interphase

35.

Which statement is NOT true about interphase?

a)

It's the longest phase of the cell cycle

b)

During interphase organelles duplicate

c)

During interphase, DNA replicates

d)

During interphase, the chromatin condenses into chromosomes.

36.
How many stages are in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
37.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
38.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical body cells

b)

2 gametes

c)

2 zygotes

d)

2 different body cells

39.
What is the result of mitosis?
a)
1 cell
b)
2 genetically identical cells
c)
2 genetically different cells
d)
4 genetically identical cells
40.

Uncontrolled cell division which usually leads to tumors and disease is called:

a)

Metaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Cancer

d)

Diabetes

41.

Stem cells are ____________________.

a)

cells that grow uncontrollably

b)

undifferentiated cells that can turn into other types of cells

c)

the first cells of a new living organism (fertilized egg)

d)

specialized cells that do one job

42.
What process best explains how muscle cells and nerve cells can develop from the same fertilized egg?
a)
genetic engineering
b)
survival of the fittest
c)
differentiation
d)
selective breeding
43.
Which of the following cells is undifferentiated?
a)
cardiac muscle cell
b)
nerve cell
c)
liver cell
d)
stem cell
44.
Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
a)
Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart. 
b)
Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells. 
c)
Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells. 
d)
A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells. 
45.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Anaphase II

46.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

47.

how many chromosomes do human gametes have?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

18

d)

36

48.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Telophase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Telophase II
d)
Anaphase I
49.

During mitosis, if an organism has 10 chromosomes, how many will the new daughter cells have?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

5

d)

2

50.
The end of meiosis results in  ____ to each other.
a)
2 cells that are identical
b)
4 cells that are identical
c)
2 cells that are not identical
d)
4 cells that are not identical
51.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
52.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
53.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
54.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
55.
the passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
56.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
57.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
58.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
59.
Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink and white.  What type of inheritance is this?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
60.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
61.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
62.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
63.
How many chromosomes are in a human egg cell and passed down from a mother to her child?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
64.

How many copies of the recessive gene must there be for that phenotype to show up?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

65.

What is the missing pairing?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

66.

Based on the missing letter, what is the parent's genotype?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

67.

What is a dominant gene?

a)

A trait that is observed when there are one OR two copies of the allele

b)

A trait that is observed only when there are two copies of the allele

c)

A trait that can be hidden in a generation

68.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
69.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
70.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
dominant pattern
71.
This is an example of ___________.
a)
 Incomplete Dominance
b)
 Codominance
72.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
73.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be gray?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

74.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be white?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

0

d)

100

75.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)

XHXh

b)

XhXh

c)

XHXH

d)

XhY

76.

What is the likelihood of this cross have a child that is colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

77.

What chance will a boy will be colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

78.

Who is more likely to have an X-linked trait?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

Both males and females

79.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)
To look at families
b)
To make determinations about the offspring
c)
To track traits in families
d)
Nothing
80.

In a pedigree, which shape represents a male?

a)

circle

b)

square

81.

Which gender has an X and a Y chromosome?

a)

male

b)

female

82.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

83.

What is the mode of inheritance shown here?

a)

Recessive because it "skips" a generation

b)

Dominant because it shows up in every generation

84.

On this pedigree, the allele for curly hair is dominant. The couple labeled 2 both have curly hair, but have a daughter who does not have curly hair. Therefore, we can tell from the chart that for the couple labeled 2 -

a)

the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.

b)

the male is homozygous recessive and the female is homozygous dominant.

85.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
86.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual 4 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

87.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R X r ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with red eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with white eyes

88.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R Y ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with white eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with red eyes

89.

Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because......

a)

fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only

b)

the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome

c)

the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome

d)

males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness

90.

In cattle red coats are represented as RR, and white coats are represented as WW.


What is the genotype for Roan color?

a)

RR

b)

RW

c)

WW

91.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)
XBXb
b)
XbXb
c)
XbY
d)
XBY
92.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
93.

According to natural selection, organisms more suited to their environment are better able to

a)

Sleep

b)

Survive

c)

Perish

d)

Migrate

94.

Blue catfish are going extinct. A dam in a lake full of blue catfish bursts due to poor engineering and kills some of the blue catfish. This is an example of:

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Gene Flow

c)

Mutation

d)

Genetic Drift

95.

Green rhinocerous beetles are some of the biggest beetles to exist on Earth. A green rhinocerous beetle leaves its group and wonders over to another group that only has red rhinocerous beetles and mates with the red beetles. This is an example of:

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Mutation

d)

Migration

96.

Which of the following is a situation that could cause evolutionary change that is NOT due to natural selection?

a)

A volcano erupts and kills many individuals in a population.

b)

A mutation produces sea stars that are less visible to predators.

c)

An insecticide is sprayed in a community to combat mosquitoes.

d)

Cattle are treated with antibiotics to prevent the spread of infections.

97.

What is the most likely explanation of the data shown below?

a)

There has been a drought in the area that is affecting all life forms.

b)

The population of natural predators of the moths has gotten smaller.

c)

The moths are living in an environment with light trees.

d)

The moths are living in an environment with dark trees.

98.

Which of the following statements best describes what will most likely occur to the moth populations in the image above?

a)

The light moths will be captured by predators more easily than the dark moths, and the population of dark moths will rise.

b)

The light moths will be captured by predators more easily than the dark moths, and the population of light moths will rise.

c)

The dark moths will be captured by predators more easily than the light moths, and the dark moths will probably go extinct.

d)

The light moths will change their wing color to match that of the dark moths.

99.
The most recent ancestral form or species from which two different species evolved is known as ________________________.
a)
a common ancestor.
b)
an embryonic stage.
c)
development.
d)
evolution.
100.

What type of evidence is represented in the picture above:

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial Structures

c)

DNA

d)

Homologous Structures

101.

What type of evidence is shown in the image above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

DNA

102.

What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Embryology

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Vestigial Structures

103.

Which evidence for evolution is shown below?

a)

Comparative embryology

b)

Homologous structures

c)

Biochemical evidence

d)

Vestigial structures

104.

The fact that both these mammals incubate their immature offspring in a pouch provides evidence that they-

a)

Belong to the same species

b)

Must range great distances to eat

c)

Have very similar skeletal structures

d)

Are descended from a common ancestor

105.
The similarities of the bones in the diagram provide evidence that---
a)
The organisms shown lived in the same natural envionrment
b)
The organisms shown may have developed from a common ancestor
c)
The organisms shown have the same genetic diseases
d)
All vertebrate species have identical forelimbs
106.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
107.

What is this an example of?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Functional adaption

108.

Similarities in bone arrangements, like those in the picture, support the hypothesis that...

a)

these organisms are not well adapted

b)

these organisms share a common ancestor

c)

these organisms all share the same DNA sequences

d)

these organisms are members of the same species

109.

A type of structure that is physically present, but does not seem to serve a significant function for an organism.

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial structure

d)

Standard structure

110.

A category of structures that have a similar function, but are structurally different.

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Analogous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Common core structures

111.

What type of structure does this image illustrate?

a)

Analogous structures

b)

Homologous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

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