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Final Review

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process by which one strain of bacterium is changed into another strain is called ...

a)

duplication

b)

transformation

c)

replication

d)

transcription

2.

In the figure what is adding base pairs?

a)

Histones

b)

DNA ligase

c)

helicase

d)

DNA polymerase

3.

What is inside a bacteriophage?

a)

protein

b)

nucleic acid

c)

lipid

d)

carbohydrate

4.

According to Chargaff's rule of base pairing ....

a)

A = G and T = C

b)

A = T and C = G

c)

A = T = C = G

d)

A = C and T = G

5.

The diagram shows the process of DNA ...

a)

digestion.

b)

transformation.

c)

transpiration.

d)

replication.

6.

The main enzyme in linking individual nucleotides into DNA molecules is ...

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ribose

c)

carbohydrase

d)

DNA protease

7.

The scientist(s) responsible for the discovery of bacterial transformation is/are

a)

Franklin

b)

Avery

c)

Griffith

d)

Watson & Crick

8.

What did Avery conclude caused transformation?

a)

DNA was the transforming factor.

b)

A protein was the transforming factor.

c)

A carbohydrate was the transforming factor.

d)

A lipid was the transforming factor.

9.

What do bacteriophages infect?

a)

mice

b)

humans

c)

bacteria

d)

viruses

10.

During replication, which sequence of nucleotides would bond with the DNA sequence TATGA

a)

TATGA

b)

CACTA

c)

ATACT

d)

AGTAT

11.

Which part of the bacteriophage contains genetic material?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

12.

Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of ...

a)

adenine molecules are about equal to the guanine molecules.

b)

thymine molecules are about equal to adenine molecules.

c)

adenine molecules are greater than thymine molecules.

d)

cytosine molecules are greater than guanine molecules.

13.

Which scientist made x-ray diffraction photos of DNA?

a)

Franklin

b)

Chargaff

c)

Watson

d)

Avery

14.

DNA replication results in to DNA molecules,…

a)

each with two new strands.

b)

one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.

c)

each with one new strand and one original strand.

d)

each with two original strands.

15.

In Griffiths bacterial transformation experiments

a)

Harmless bacteria change into harmful bacteria

b)

Harmful bacteria change into harmless bacteria

c)

Harmless bacteria are infected by viruses

d)

Harmful bacteria are affected by viruses

16.

What happened when Griffith injected mice with the harmless R-strain bacteria alone

a)

The bacteria transformed

b)

The mouse died

c)

The bacteria died

d)

The mouse lived

17.

What happens when a piece of DNA is missing?

a)

Genetic information is stored

b)

Genetic information is copied

c)

Genetic information is lost

d)

Genetic information is transmitted

18.

In what way is DNA like a book?

a)

DNA has information organized with a kind of index.

b)

DNA has stored information that can be copied and passed on

c)

DNA has information That is periodically updated

19.

Which of the following could make up one nucleotide found in DNA?

a)

Adenine + phosphate group + Thymine

b)

Cytosine + phosphate group + Polymerase

c)

Deoxyribose + phosphate group + Polymerase

d)

Deoxyribose + Phosphate group + cytosine

20.

Roselind Franklin contributed to the understanding of DNA by

a)

producing images of DNA molecules using X-rays

b)

figuring out that DNA strands form a double helix

c)

Radioactive evidence the DNA carried the genetic code

21.

What is the nucleotide found in the structure labeled X

a)

adenine + phosphate group + thymine

b)

cytosine + phosphate group + guanine

c)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase

d)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine

22.

The Watson and crick model of DNA is a(n) ______ In which two strands are wound around each other.

a)

Ladder

b)

Double helix

c)

Single strand

d)

Histone

23.

What are the weak bonds that hold the two strands of DNA together, but also allow the DNA to separate and replicate?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Covalent bonds

c)

Ionic bonds

d)

Enzymes

24.

During replication which enzyme unwind and unzips the DNA molecule

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

Carbohydrate

25.

During replication which enzyme is responsible for placing nucleotides in place on the new strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

helices

d)

primase

26.

Which enzyme proofreads the copy to strands before releasing the new DNA?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

27.

During replication when the DNA opens up we call this a replication fork.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

What are the four nitrogen bases found in DNA?

a)

Cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine

b)

Cytosine, purine, adenine, and pyrimidine

c)

Adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine

d)

Purines and pyrimidines

29.

Who were the scientist responsible for the first DNA model?

a)

Avery and Griffith

b)

Hershey and Chase

c)

Watson and Crick

d)

Hershey and Franklin

30.

Watson and Crick discovered the two stands in DNA

a)

run in perpendicular directions

b)

run in the same direction

c)

run in the opposite direction

d)

run in random directions

31.

Darwin noticed that many organisms seemed well suited to

a)

being preserved as fossils.

b)

providing humans with food.

c)

surviving in the environments in which they lived.

d)

swimming from South America to the Galápagos Islands.

32.

The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the different Galápagos Islands varied in certain structural adaptations. One of the most significant adaptations that Darwin noted was the

a)

similarities of the birds’ embryos.

b)

birds’ different-shaped beaks.

c)

length of the birds’ necks.

d)

a number of eggs in each bird’s nest.

33.

Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar

physical characteristics support the hypothesis that these finches

a)

have the ability to interbreed.

b)

acquired traits through use and disuse.

c)

all eat the same type of food.

d)

descended from a common ancestor.

34.

On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed

a)

completely unrelated species on each of the islands.

b)

species exactly like those found in South America.

c)

species similar to mainland South American species.

d)

species completely unrelated to those found in South America

35.

Darwin first began to formulate his concept of evolution by natural selection after

a)

experimenting with animals.

b)

observing patterns among the geographical location of certain species.

c)

reading the writings of Wallace.

d)

agreeing with Lamarck about the driving force behind evolution.

36.

People of Charles Darwin’s time understood that fossils were

a)

preserved remains of ancient organisms.

b)

available for every organism that ever lived.

c)

unrelated to living species.

d)

evidence for the evolution of life on Earth.

37.

James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work suggests that

a)

Earth is several million years old.

b)

Earth is several thousand years old.

c)

all fossils were formed in the last 1000 years.

d)

all rocks on Earth contain fossils.

38.

In the 1800s, Charles Lyell emphasized that

a)

the human population will outgrow the available food supply.

b)

all populations evolve through natural selection.

c)

Earth is a few thousand years old.

d)

past geological events must be explained in terms of processes observable today.

39.

In an experiment, suppose that the wings of fruit flies were clipped short for fifty generations. The fifty-first

generation emerged with normal-length wings. This observation would tend to disprove the idea that

evolution is based on

a)

inheritance of natural variations.

b)

inheritance of acquired characteristics.

c)

natural selection.

d)

survival of the fittest.

40.

The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that

a)

in the human population, people die faster than babies are born.

b)

without certain checks on population size, there would soon be insufficient food for the growing human population.

c)

in the 1700s, England needed more housing.

d)

The majority of a species’ offspring die.

41.

When a dairy farmer chooses to breed the cows that give the most milk in the herd, the farmers are following

the principle of

a)

acquired characteristics.

b)

descent with modification.

c)

artificial selection.

d)

natural selection.

42.

When farmers select animals or plants to use for breeding, they look for

a)

species that are perfect and unchanging.

b)

homologous structures.

c)

characteristics acquired during the lifetime of the organism.

d)

natural variations that are present in a species.

43.

Each of the following is a condition necessary for natural selection to occur EXCEPT

a)

more offspring are born than can survive.

b)

population size is very large.

c)

fitness varies among individuals.

d)

there is heritable variation among members of the population

44.

Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment

a)

diversity.

b)

fitness.

c)

adaptation.

d)

evolution.

45.

According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have

a)

characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse.

b)

characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.

c)

the greatest number of offspring.

d)

variations best suited to environmental conditions.

46.

Which statement is part of Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection?

a)

More offspring are produced than can possibly survive.

b)

The organisms that are the fittest are always the largest and strongest.

c)

The number of offspring is not related to fitness

d)

Acquired characteristics that are inherited are the cause of evolution.

47.

The hypothesis that all species are descended from common ancestors was proposed by

a)

James Hutton.

b)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.

c)

Thomas Malthus.

d)

Charles Darwin.

48.

Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection explains each of the following EXCEPT how

a)

species can become extinct.

b)

inherited traits are passed from parent to offspring.

c)

species descend from common ancestors.

d)

evolution takes place in the natural world.

49.

Darwin’s concept of natural selection was NOT influenced by

a)

the work of Charles Lyell.

b)

knowledge about the structure of DNA.

c)

his collection of specimens.

d)

his trip on the H.M.S. Beagle.

50.

Biogeography is the study of

a)

where species and their ancestors live.

b)

how extinct species can be related to living species.

c)

how different species can interbreed.

d)

how animals that live in the same area are closely related.

51.

The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. This is

evidence in support of which of the following concepts?

a)

Lamarck’s tendency towards perfection

b)

common descent

c)

analogous structures

d)

the inheritance of acquired traits

52.

Modern sea star larvae resemble some primitive vertebrate larvae. This similarity may suggest that primitive

vertebrates

a)

Share a common ancestor with sea stars.

b)

evolved from sea stars.

c)

evolved before sea stars.

d)

belong to the same species as sea stars.

53.

Molecular evidence in support of natural selection includes

a)

the nearly universal genetic code.

b)

the presence of vestigial structures.

c)

a tendency toward perfect, unchanging DNA in various species.

d)

the transmission of acquired characteristics by DNA.

54.

Similar patterns of embryological development in different but related organisms are responsible for the

formation of

a)

homologous structures.

b)

analogous structures.

c)

Hox genes.

d)

intermediate fossil forms.

55.

According to the Grants’ investigation of Galápagos finches, what happened to the beaks of finches?

a)

Beaks became larger through artificial selection.

b)

Beaks became smaller when they migrated.

c)

Beaks became smaller during the finches’ lifespan.

d)

Beaks became larger over many generations.

56.

Which characteristic of Galápagos finches helped the Grants show the results of natural selection?

a)

the color of their feathers

b)

the length and shape of their wings

c)

the size and shape of their beaks

d)

the curve of their claws

57.

What principle does the Grants’ investigation of finch adaptation in the Galápagos Islands best support?

a)

biogeography

b)

evolutionary embryology

c)

uniformatarianism

d)

natural selection

58.
One goal of scientists is to assign every organism a universally accepted name according to the system known as
a)
traditional classification.
b)
the three domains.
c)
binomial nomenclature.
d)
cladistics.
59.
At any level of organization, groups that have biological meaning are referred to as
a)
cladograms.
b)
binomials.
c)
taxa.
d)
systems.
60.
To be useful, a scientific name has to refer to
a)
all living species.
b)
all living and extinct species.
c)
all species in one habitat.
d)
a single species.
61.
According to the rules of binomial nomenclature, which of the terms is capitalized?
a)
the genus name only
b)
the species name only
c)
both the genus and species names
d)
neither the genus nor species names
62.
Based on their names, you know that the baboons Papio annubis and Papio cynocephalus do NOT belong to the same
a)
class.
b)
family.
c)
genus.
d)
species.
63.
The second part of a scientific name is unique to each
a)
order in its class.
b)
family in its order.
c)
genus in its family.
d)
species in its genus.
64.
In Linnaeus’s system of classification, how many levels are there?
a)
one
b)
three
c)
five
d)
seven
65.
A genus is composed of a number of similar
a)
kingdoms.
b)
phyla.
c)
orders.
d)
species.
66.
Several different classes make up a
a)
kingdom.
b)
phylum.
c)
family.
d)
genus.
67.
Which are the two highest level taxa in the Linnaean system?
a)
kingdom and order
b)
domain and phylum
c)
phylum and kingdom
d)
genus and kingdom
68.
Animals that are warm-blooded, have body hair, and produce milk for their young are grouped in the class
a)
Amphibia.
b)
Mammalia.
c)
Aves.
d)
Reptilia.
69.
In evolutionary classification, a monophyletic group includes one
a)
species and all its ancestors.
b)
ancestor and all its descendants.
c)
species and its genus.
d)
genus and all its species.
70.
Similar DNA sequences in genes can be evidence of
a)
binomial nomenclature.
b)
mutations.
c)
common ancestry.
d)
different anatomy.
71.
What do all organisms have in common?
a)
They all use DNA to pass on information.
b)
They are all prokaryotes.
c)
They are all eukaryotes.
d)
They are all genetically identical.
72.
All organisms in the kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia are
a)
They all use DNA to pass on information.
b)
They are all prokaryotes.
c)
They are all eukaryotes.
d)
They are all genetically identical.
73.
The domain that corresponds to the kingdom Eubacteria is
a)
Archaea.
b)
Bacteria.
c)
Eukarya.
d)
Fungi.
74.
The domain that contains unicellular organisms that live in extreme environments is
a)
Eubacteria.
b)
Eukarya.
c)
Archaea.
d)
Bacteria.
75.
The two domains composed of only unicellular organisms are
a)
Eubacteria and Archaea.
b)
Eukarya and Bacteria.
c)
Archaea and Bacteria.
d)
Archaea and Eukarya.
76.
The three-domain system recognizes fundamental differences between two groups of
a)
prokaryotes.
b)
eukaryotes.
c)
protists.
d)
multicellular organisms.
77.

A type of RNA, that copies the instructions for making proteins from DNA to the other parts of the cell.

a)

RNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

78.

Type of RNA where proteins are assembles; it can be known as the "workbench"

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

79.

A type of RNA that carries amino acids to the ribosome

a)

RNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

80.

Which of these are the nitrogenous bases found in DNA? (select all that are correct)

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Thymine

e)

Uracil

81.

Which of these are the nitrogenous bases found in RNA? (select all that are correct)

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Thymine

e)

Uracil

82.

This process produces a complementary strand of RNA on a DNA template

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

prescription

d)

Transylvania

83.

The decoding of an mRNA message into a protein

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

prescription

d)

Transylvania

84.

polypeptide

a)

A chain of amino acids linked together

b)

A condition in which an organism has extra sets of chromosomes

c)

A segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait

d)

Building blocks of proteins, there are 20 of them

85.

amino acids

a)

A polymer (chain) of many amino acids linked together by peptide bonds, also called a protein

b)

A condition in which an organism has extra sets of chromosomes

c)

A segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait

d)

Building blocks of proteins, there are 20 of them

86.

What do the group of 3 letters on the bottom of the image represent? (select all that apply)

a)

ribosome

b)

anticodons

c)

codons

d)

part of an rRNA

87.

mutation

a)

Changes in the sequence of nucleotides in DNA or changes in the number or structure of a chromosome

b)

Chemical or physical agents in the environment that interact with DNA and may cause a mutation

c)

A mutation that shifts the "reading" frame of the genetic message by inserting or deleting a nucleotide

d)

A gene mutation in which a single base pair in DNA has been changed

e)

None of these answer choices are correct

88.

mutagen

a)

Changes in the sequence of nucleotides in DNA or changes in the number or structure of a chromosome

b)

Chemical or physical agents in the environment that interact with DNA and may cause a mutation

c)

A mutation that shifts the "reading" frame of the genetic message by inserting or deleting a nucleotide

d)

A gene mutation in which a single base pair in DNA has been changed

e)

None of these answer choices are correct

89.

frameshift mutation

a)

Changes in the sequence of nucleotides in DNA or changes in the number or structure of a chromosome

b)

Chemical or physical agents in the environment that interact with DNA and may cause a mutation

c)

A mutation that shifts the "reading" frame of the genetic message by inserting or deleting a nucleotide

d)

A gene mutation in which a single base pair in DNA has been changed

90.

point mutation

a)

Changes in the sequence of nucleotides in DNA or changes in the number or structure of a chromosome

b)

Chemical or physical agents in the environment that interact with DNA and may cause a mutation

c)

A mutation that shifts the "reading" frame of the genetic message by inserting or deleting a nucleotide

d)

A gene mutation in which a single base pair in DNA has been changed

91.

Which is the correct sequence of the transfer of information in most organisms.

a)

nuclei to RNA to the cytoplasm

b)

ribosomes to proteins to DNA

c)

genes to nuclei to ribosomes

d)

DNA to RNA to proteins

92.

In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______.

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

adenine

d)

thymine

93.

A protein is being assembled when

a)

DNA is being translated

b)

RNA is being transcribed

c)

RNA is being translated

d)

DNA is being transcribed

94.

Translation is the process where

a)

mRNA is created in the Nucleus

b)

mRNA is decoded to form a protein

c)

glucose molecules are made

d)

is where lipids are synthesized

95.

What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Leucine

d)

Stop codon

96.

The three bases on the end of a tRNA molecule

a)

Anticodon

b)

Protein

c)

Codon

97.

During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the

a)

codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the rRNA

b)

anticodon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA

c)

anticodon on the rRNA and the codon on the mRNA

d)

codon on the mRNA and the anticodon in the tRNA

98.

What is the process illustrated?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Translation

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Transcription

99.

What is structure C?

a)

ribosome

b)

codon

c)

anticodon

d)

RNA

100.

Neither allele is dominant so there is a blending of traits. Example: Cross a red flower with a white flower and the colors blend to make a pink flower.

a)

Polygenic traits

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

multiple alleles

101.

Both alleles contribute to the phenotype. Crossing a Black chicken and a White chicken, you get a speckled chicken

a)

polygenic traits

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

multiple alleles

102.

Having 2 or more alleles for the same trait. Example: A single gene with 4 different alleles coat color in rabbits

a)

polygenic traits

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

multiple alleles

103.

A trait that is controlled by one or more genes. Ex: skin color, eye color

a)

polygenetic traits

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

multiple alleles

104.

a distinct form of a gene

a)

Gene

b)

Allele

c)

Trait

d)

Hybrid

105.

Describes organisms that have 2 identical alleles. Example: BB, bb

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

gametes

d)

gene

106.

Describes organisms that have different alleles for the same gene. Example: Bb

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

gametes

d)

gene

107.

A cell that contains both sets of homologous chromosomes (2n)

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

gametes

d)

linked genes

108.

Cells that have 1 copy of the chromosomes (n)

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

gametes

d)

linked genes

109.

Genes that are located on the same chromosome.

a)

Gametes

b)

Crossing-over

c)

Linked genes

d)

Gene maps

110.

Process in which chromosomes exchange portions of their chromatids during meiosis.

a)

Gametes

b)

Crossing-over

c)

Linked genes

d)

Gene maps

111.

Sex cell

a)

Gametes

b)

Crossing-over

c)

Linked genes

d)

Gene maps

112.

Process in which gametes are produced

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing-over

d)

replication

113.

T - tall and t = short

In the Punnett square, what belongs in the missing square?

a)

tt

b)

Tt

c)

TT

114.

In plants, tall (T) is dominant to short (t). Perform the following cross: Tt x Tt. What is the probability of producing a short plant?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

115.

Two brown-eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance their baby is blue-eyed?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

116.

What goes in box 1

a)

AABb

b)

AABB

c)

aabb

d)

AaBb

117.

What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?

a)

RrYy

b)

RRYY

c)

rryy

d)

RrYY

118.

Different forms of a gene are called

a)

traits

b)

pollinations

c)

alleles

d)

hybrids

119.

The principles of probability can be used to:

a)

predict traits of the offspring of genetic crosses

b)

determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses

c)

determine which species should be used in genetic crosses

d)

decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses

120.

The number of chromosomes in a gamete is represented by the symbol

a)

Z

b)

X

c)

N

d)

Y

121.

Meiosis results in the formation of:

a)

diploid cells

b)

haploid cells

c)

2N daughter cells

d)

body cells

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9th - 12th Grade

Biology 2nd Semester Final Review questions

118 questions

Biology 2nd Semester Final Review questions

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 11th Grade