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End of year quiz

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 2hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What speed do all parts of the EM spectrum travel?

a)

3x108 ms-1

b)

2x108 ms-1

c)

340 ms-1

d)

300 000 ms-1

2.
All waves carry
a)
energy
b)
light 
c)
matter
d)
particles
3.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
4.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
5.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
6.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves is given off as heat? 
a)
Radio Waves
b)
Infrared Rays
c)
Visible Light
d)
Gamma Rays
7.

Cell phones and televisions use this type of EM wave. It has the longest wavelength with the lowest frequency.

a)

radio wave

b)

tv wave

c)

gamma wave

d)

ultraviolet wave

8.
Cell phones and televisions use this type of EM wave.  It has the longest wavelength with the lowest frequency.
a)
radio wave
b)
tv wave
c)
Gamma wave
d)
ultra violet
9.
Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum has high enough energy to cause damage to eyes and skin, and sometimes even cancer? 
a)
infrared light
b)
visible light
c)
ultraviolet light
d)
microwaves
10.

What speed do all parts of the EM spectrum travel?

a)

3x108 ms-1

b)

2x108 ms-1

c)

340 ms-1

d)

300 000 ms-1

11.
All waves carry
a)
energy
b)
light 
c)
matter
d)
particles
12.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
13.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
14.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
15.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves is given off as heat? 
a)
Radio Waves
b)
Infrared Rays
c)
Visible Light
d)
Gamma Rays
16.

Cell phones and televisions use this type of EM wave. It has the longest wavelength with the lowest frequency.

a)

radio wave

b)

tv wave

c)

gamma wave

d)

ultraviolet wave

17.
Cell phones and televisions use this type of EM wave.  It has the longest wavelength with the lowest frequency.
a)
radio wave
b)
tv wave
c)
Gamma wave
d)
ultra violet
18.
Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum has high enough energy to cause damage to eyes and skin, and sometimes even cancer? 
a)
infrared light
b)
visible light
c)
ultraviolet light
d)
microwaves
19.
These are the waves that are used to penetrate solids and are used to create medical images.
a)
visible light
b)
gamma rays
c)
x rays
d)
microwaves
20.
The distance between one point of a wave to the same point on the next wave.
a)
frequency
b)
wavelength
c)
amplitude
d)
crest
21.
The highest point of  a transverse wave
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
amplitude
d)
wavelength
22.
The lowest point of  a transverse wave
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
amplitude
d)
wavelength
23.
The type of wave with the shortest wavelength and highest frequency.  This type of wave is extremely harmful.
a)
radio
b)
infrared
c)
gamma
d)
x ray
24.
The type of EM wave that is used to cook food.  It has a higher frequency than radio waves.
a)
radio
b)
microwave
c)
gamma
d)
visible light
25.
This color has the shortest wavelength
a)
Indigo
b)
red
c)
Yellow
d)
violet
26.
Light waves travel fastest in ________ 
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
vacuum
27.
Which type of radiation has a frequency closest to 105?
a)
Radio
b)
Infrared
c)
Ultraviolet
d)
X-Ray
28.
Which type of electromagnetic radiation has a wavelength near 10-8?
a)
Microwave
b)
Infrared
c)
Visible
d)
Ultraviolet
29.
Which of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength and the highest frequency?
a)
Radio Waves
b)
Infrared
c)
Visible
d)
X-Rays
30.
Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has a wavelength near 10-5?
a)
Radio
b)
Microwave
c)
Infrared
d)
Visible 
31.

Which has the longest wavelength?

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

Visible Light

c)

Microwaves

d)

Radiowaves

32.

Which has the highest frequency?

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

Visible Light

c)

Microwaves

d)

Radiowaves

33.

Which of the following could be used as a detector for radio waves?

a)

aerial

b)

thermistor

c)

photographic file

d)

our retinas

34.

Which of the following could be used as a detector for microwaves?

a)

aerial

b)

thermistor

c)

water

d)

our retinas

35.

Which of the following could be used as a detector for infrared radiation?

a)

aerial

b)

thermistor

c)

water

d)

our retinas

36.

Which of the following could be used as a detector for visible light?

a)

aerial

b)

thermistor

c)

water

d)

our retinas

37.

Which of the following could be used as a detector for ultraviolet radiation?

a)

aerial

b)

thermistor

c)

fluorescent materials

d)

our retinas

38.

Which of the following could be used as a detector for x-rays?

a)

photographic film

b)

thermistor

c)

fluorescent materials

d)

our retinas

39.

Which of the following could be used as a detector for gamma radiation?

a)

photographic film

b)

thermistor

c)

fluorescent materials

d)

Geiger-Muller tube

40.

Which of the following could be a source of radio waves?

a)

radio mast

b)

magnetron

c)

hot objects

d)

LED's

41.

Which of the following could be a source of microwave radiation?

a)

radio mast

b)

magnetron

c)

hot objects

d)

LED's

42.

Which of the following could be a source of infrared radiation?

a)

radio mast

b)

magnetron

c)

hot objects

d)

LED's

43.

Which of the following could be a source of visible light?

a)

radio mast

b)

magnetron

c)

hot objects

d)

LED's

44.

Which of the following could be a source of ultraviolet radiation?

a)

radio mast

b)

the sun

c)

hot objects

d)

aerials

45.

Which of the following could be a source of x-ray radiation?

a)

a collision between high energy electrons and a metal target

b)

lasers

c)

high-speed collisions

d)

mobile phones

46.

Which of the following could be a source of gamma radiation?

a)

a collision between high energy electrons and a metal target

b)

lasers

c)

high-speed collisions

d)

radioactive substances

47.
Peanut ran 50 meters in 10 seconds.  What was Peanut's average speed?
a)
2 m/s
b)
5 km/h
c)
5 m/s
d)
5 m/s North
48.

When a skydiver is falling through the air, they are always in free fall.

a)

True

b)

False

49.
When an object has a net force of 0 N, it is an example of what kind of force?
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
c)
Acceleration
d)
Gravity
50.

If we drop a steel sphere and a ping pong ball with the same mass, the steel sphere will...

a)

hit the ground first because it has more mass

b)

hit the ground second because it takes longer to accelerate

c)

hit the ground at the same time as the ping pong ball

51.

The resultant force is

a)

The force you feel when you catch a fish in a net

b)

The force acting upward on a sky diver

c)

the combination of all of the forces acting on an object

d)

always unbalanced

52.
If you traveled to Jupiter, what would change?
a)
Your weight and mass
b)
your weight
c)
your mass
d)
your height
53.
Which of the options below is an example of velocity?
a)
20 m/s
b)
200 km/h
c)
20 m/s East
d)
20 East
54.

The force of gravity on a person or object on the surface of a planet is called

a)

mass.

b)

weight.

c)

terminal velocity

d)

free fall.

55.

The force that one surface exerts on another when the two rub against each other is called...

a)

friction.

b)

inertia.

c)

acceleration

d)

gravity

56.

Forces can be added together only if they are

a)

acting on the same object

b)

unaffected by gravity

c)

balanced forces

d)

substantial

57.

According to Newton’s third law of motion, when a hammer strikes and exerts force on a nail, the nail

a)

creates a friction with the hammer.

b)

disappears into the wood.

c)

exerts an equal and opposite force on the hammer.

d)

moves at a constant speed.

58.

According to Newton’s third law of motion, the strength of a reaction force is ____________________ the strength of the action force.

a)

equal to

b)

negative to

c)

positive to

d)

greater than

59.

A skydiver with a mass of 70 kg accelerates to Earth at a rate of 9.8 m/s2 due to gravity. What is the downwards force on the skydiver?

a)

79.8 Newtons

b)

7.14 Newtons

c)

0.14 Newtons

d)

690 Newtons

60.

Compare the acceleration of the 1-kg object with that of the 2-kg object.

a)

1kg object has more acceleration because it has less mass

b)

1kg object has less acceleration because it has less mass

c)

2kg object has more acceleration because it has more mass

d)

2kg object has less inertia because it has more mass

61.

Acceleration equals the change in speed, divided by...

a)

Speed

b)

Distance

c)

Time

d)

Initial Speed

62.

Velocity consists of both...

a)

Time & Distance

b)

Speed & Direction

c)

Time & Direction

d)

Speed & Distance

63.

When an object speeds up it is considered...

a)

Negative Acceleration

b)

Neutral Acceleration

c)

Initial Speed

d)

Positive Acceleration

64.

When an object slows down it is considered...

a)

Positive Acceleration

b)

Final Velocity

c)

Negative Acceleration or deceleration

d)

Hitting the brakes

65.

To find average speed of an object, you must know...

a)

Distance & Time

b)

Distance & Velocity

c)

Time & Speed

d)

Distance & Acceleration

66.

What is speed?

a)

The rate at which an object changes position

b)

The rate at which an object slows down

c)

How fast an object is moving at any given moment

d)

A speedometer

67.

What is average speed?

a)

The rate at which an object moves

b)

The speed of an object at any given moment

c)

The distance an object travels per unit of time

d)

Speed with direction

68.

Which of the following must be true if an object is accelerating?

a)

It is going really fast.

b)

It is moving away from the frame of reference point.

c)

Balanced forces are acting upon it.

d)

Unbalanced forces are acting upon it.

69.

A student drops a ball onto the floor and it bounces. Which of the following statements about the interaction between the ball and the floor is correct?

a)

The floor applies the same amount of force to the ball that the ball applies to the floor, which causes the ball to bounce.

b)

The floor applies a larger amount of force to the ball than the ball applies to the floor, which causes the ball to bounce.

c)

The floor applies a larger amount of force to the ball than the ball applies to the floor because it is a part of the Earth.

d)

The ball applies a larger amount of force to the floor than the floor applies to the ball because the ball bounces.

70.

Sami wants to build the fastest racing bike possible. What is one way they can change the bike, so they have a better chance of winning the race?

a)

reduce the force of the bike so it accelerates more quickly

b)

put on smoother tires to eliminate friction with the race track

c)

increase the mass of the bike to increase its gravitational field

d)

replace metal parts with plastic to decreases its magnetic field

71.

A student kicks a soccer ball in gym class. Which of the following is correct?

a)

The student applies the same force to the ball that the ball applies to the student, and the ball accelerates.

b)

The student applies a larger force to the ball than the ball applies to the student, and the ball accelerates.

c)

The student applies a larger force to the ball than the ball applies to the student because the ball has less mass than the student.

d)

The ball applies a larger force to the student than the student applies to the ball because the ball can move.

72.

The force diagram for an object that is being dragged across the floor is shown to the right. The object is experiencing an acceleration of 2 m/s2 as it moves under the influence of the forces shown. Use the diagram to determine the force of friction acting on the object.

a)

The force of friction is 30 newtons.

b)

The force of friction is 50 newtons.

c)

The force of friction is 20 newtons.

d)

The force of friction is 150 newtons.

73.
A car travels 90 meters due north in 15 seconds. Then the car turns around and travels 40 meters due south.  What is the magnitude and direction  of the car's resultant displacement?  
a)
40 metres, South
b)
50 metres, South
c)
50 metres, North
d)
40 metres, North 
74.
Which statement describes a vector?
a)
It has magnitude but no direction
b)
It has direction but no magnitude
c)
It has both direction and magnitude
d)
It has constant magnitude but no
 direction
75.
In practice A of the figure, What is  the magnitude of the  resultant displacement?
a)
5 km 
b)
8 km
c)
11 km
d)
15 km
76.
If a boomerang is thrown 20 m in a straight line and returns exactly to the spot it was thrown what is its displacement?
a)
20m
b)
40m
c)
0m
d)
-20m
77.
What is the Net Force?
a)
5 N to the right
b)
10 N to the right
c)
15 N to the right
d)
0 N
78.
 The graph shows Ashley riding her bike to Maria's house. 
What is occurring from point A to point B?
a)
they are traveling at a constant speed
b)
they are decreasing in speed
c)
they stopped to take a break
79.
On a distance vs. time graph, the steeper the slope _____
a)
the slower the speed
b)
the faster the speed
c)
less acceleration
d)
greater acceleration
80.
Which runner won the race?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
81.
Which graph represents the greatest acceleration?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
82.

The average speed of this object between points C and D is

a)

0.375 kms-1

b)

0.375 ms-1

c)

2.67 kms-1

d)

2.67 ms-1

83.

A ball rolls down a steep hill. It travels 500 m in 1 minute. It then rolls on a flat surface for an additional 3 minutes and travels 300 m. What is the average speed of the ball?

a)

0.5 m/min

b)

100 m/min

c)

200 ms-1

d)

200 m/min

84.

A car starts from a stoplight and is traveling with a velocity of 10 m/sec east in 20 seconds. What is the acceleration of the car?

a)

0.5 ms-2

b)

0.5 ms-1

c)

2 ms-2

d)

2 ms-1

85.

You and your dad are moving the couch from one side to another. Your dad pushes with a force of 35 N to the right and you push with a force of 25 N right. What is the net force on the couch?

a)

60 N right

b)

10 N left

c)

60 N left

d)

50 N left

86.
According to Newton’s First Law of Motion, a moving object that is not acted on by an unbalanced force will
a)
Remain in motion.
b)
Eventually come to a stop.
c)
Change its momentum.
d)
Accelerate.
87.
As an object's mass increases, its gravitational pull will ____________.
a)
decrease
b)
increase
c)
stay the same
d)
get weaker
88.
What is the SI unit used to measure force? 
a)
pounds 
b)
grams 
c)
newtons 
d)
friction
89.
A golf ball accelerates off a tee at 15m/s2, changing its velocity from 0m/s to 50 m/s down the fairway. How long did it take the golf ball to accelerate?
a)
750 seconds
b)
35 seconds
c)
0.3 seconds
d)
3.3 seconds
90.

Mark slams on the brakes after traveling 25 m/s. It takes him 3 seconds to come to a complete stop. What is his acceleration?

a)

8.33 m/s2

b)

-8.33 m/s2

c)

75 m/s2

d)

-75 m/s2

91.

Calculate the distance travelled by the object in the first 5 seconds.

a)

75m

b)

0m

c)

3m

d)

37.5m

92.

The % energy efficiency of an appliance is

a)

total energy input/ useful energy output x 100

b)

useful energy output /total energy input x100

c)

total energy input x useful energy input x100

d)

useful energy output /total energy input x50

93.

A torch battery releases 50J of energy as heat and 240J as light, What is the total energy released from the battery?

a)

250J

b)

280J

c)

290J

d)

300J

94.

A Radio releases 250J of energy 10J is released as heat , How much is released as sound?

a)

200J

b)

220J

c)

240J

d)

260J

95.

Complete the statement about the principal of Conservation of Energy.

Energy can be changed for one form to another but the total amount of energy

a)

always increases

b)

always decreases

c)

does not change

d)

varies according to the reaction

96.

Cycles put oil in the axles of their bicycle to reduce friction. This is called

a)

Condesation

b)

Friction

c)

Oil formation

d)

Lubrication

97.

You can reduce friction by doing the following:

a)

Fabrication

b)

Lubrication

98.

What is the name of the region where a mass experiences a force?

(a)  

99.

Select the correct definition of weight.

a)

It is the force of gravity acting on the object.

b)

It is the amount of matter in an object.

100.

Select the correct definition of mass.

a)

It is the amount of matter in an object.

b)

It is the force of Earth's gravity on an object.

101.

Weight is measured in.....

a)

Kilogram

b)

Newtons

c)

Kilometer

102.

Mass is measured in.....

a)

Kilograms

b)

Kilometers

c)

Newtons

103.

My weight would change on different planets.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

My mass would change on different planets.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

There is a force of gravity on the Moon.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

There is an atmosphere (air) on the Moon.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Gravity is pulling you to the (a)   of the Earth

108.

In this force diagram, which arrow is representing Friction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

109.
What is the force that causes objects to fall to Earth?
a)
Air resistance
b)
Gravity
c)
Water resistance
d)
Pressure
110.
What is the name of the units that we measure force in?
a)
Einsteins 
b)
Newtons
c)
Kg
d)
Metres
111.
When two objects rub together, what force do they produce
a)
Gravity
b)
Air resistance
c)
Friction
d)
Water resistance
112.
True or false. Energy can be created and destroyed.
a)
True
b)
False
113.

A car at the top of the drop on a roller coaster has ________ energy.

a)

potential

b)

kinetic

c)

chemical

d)

sound

114.

A car rolling down the drop of a roller coaster has ________ energy.

a)

potential

b)

kinetic

c)

chemical

d)

sound

115.

We receive ________ and heat energy from the Sun.

a)

sound

b)

mechanical

c)

light

d)

kinetic

116.

A hot drink has...

a)

Kinetic Energy

b)

Heat Energy

c)

Thermal Energy

d)

Nuclear Energy

117.
What type of energy is stored in food and fuel?
a)
Chemical
b)
Thermal
c)
Potential
d)
Calories
118.

Coal and oil are?

a)

Non-Renewable energy resources

b)

Renewable energy resources

c)

None of the above

119.

___________ energy comes directly from the sun.

a)

Warm

b)

Solar

c)

Hydro

d)

Bio-fuels

120.

Bio-fuel and geothermal energy are examples of?

a)

Non-renewable energy resources

b)

Hydro energy

c)

Renewable energy resources

d)

None of the above

121.

In this force diagram, which arrow is representing Friction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

122.
What is the force that causes objects to fall to Earth?
a)
Air resistance
b)
Gravity
c)
Water resistance
d)
Pressure
123.
What is the name of the units that we measure force in?
a)
Einsteins 
b)
Newtons
c)
Kg
d)
Metres
124.
When two objects rub together, what force do they produce
a)
Gravity
b)
Air resistance
c)
Friction
d)
Water resistance
125.

___________ forces always cause an object's motion to change.

a)

balanced

b)

unbalanced

c)

contact

d)

non-contact

126.

______________ is a force that always acts in the direction opposite of motion.

a)

applied

b)

friction

c)

gravity

d)

normal

127.
What is the equation to calculate speed?
a)
speed = distance/time
b)
speed = time/distance
c)
speed = time x distance 
d)
speed = speed/time 
128.

Which of the following is a unit of speed ?

a)

 J/s

b)

kg/m

c)

m/s

d)

kg/s

129.
If a student ran 300 m in 30 seconds, what was her average speed?
a)
0.10 m/s
b)
10 m/s
c)
270 m/s
d)
100 m/s
130.

Dave runs a 400 m race with a speed of 4 m/s. How long will it take him to finish the race?

a)

400 seconds

b)

100 minutes

c)

100 seconds

d)

1600 seconds

131.

Anna rides her bike to school every day. Today she rode her bike for 20 minutes, then stopped at the store for 5 minutes for a snack. She continued to ride her bike to school afterwards. Select the graph that accurately shows her movement.

a)
b)
c)

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