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Worksheets

GCSE Chemistry 2023 mmd

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 3hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What subatomic particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons only
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Neutrons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Electrons 
2.
Which subatomic particles contribute the most to the mass of an atom?
a)
Protons, Neutrons, Electrons
b)
Protons only
c)
Protons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Neutrons
3.
An atom has 10 protons, 15 neutrons and 10 electrons what is its mass number.
a)
20
b)
10
c)
5
d)
25
4.
An element with a mass number of 11 and an atomic number of 5 has how many neutrons?
a)
11
b)
5
c)
6
d)
16
5.
The particles of the atom you can find by knowing the atomic number.
a)
neutrons
b)
protons and electrons
c)
protons and neutrons
d)
atomic mass
6.
What is the atomic mass of the atom pictured? 
a)
9
b)
10
c)
18
d)
19
7.
What is the atomic number of the atom pictured? 
a)
9
b)
10
c)
18
d)
19
8.
What do the following properties describe? : shiny, ductile, good conductor, high melting point
a)
metal
b)
nonmetal
c)
metalloid
9.
Elements in the periodic table are arranged in order by their ...
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass (mass number)
c)
metal, nonmetal, or metalloid properties
10.
This particle determines what element you have - the elements identity.
a)
electron
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
valence shell
11.
What is the electron configuration of sodium?
a)
2.8
b)
2.8.2
c)
2.8.1
d)
11
12.
Which element has an electron configuration of 2.5?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Phosphorus
d)
Carbon
13.
Which element has an electron configuration of 2.8.8?
a)
Lead
b)
Flourine
c)
Neon
d)
Argon
14.

Which element has the electron configuration of 2.7?

a)

Krypton

b)

Iodine

c)

Fluorine

d)

Barium

15.

Which alkali metal is most reactive out of the following

a)

rubidium

b)

potassium

c)

sodium

d)

lithium

16.

How many electrons do the alkali metals have in their outer shell?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

8

d)

7

17.

What happens to the reactivity of the alkali metals as you move down the group?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

18.

Which gas is released when the alkali metals react with water?

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

hydroxide

d)

carbon dioxide

19.

What happens to the shielding affect as you go down the group?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

20.

Which of the following is TRUE about an isotope?

a)

same number of protons and neutrons

b)

same number of protons but different number of neutrons

c)

same atomic mass but different atomic number

d)

neutron and electron numbers are the same

21.

Complete the sentence: In covalent bonds, electrons are _______________________

a)

Lost

b)

Gained

c)

Halved

d)

Shared

22.

What is the name given to the structure of diamond, graphite and silicon dioxide?

a)

Mega covalent structure

b)

Mega ionic lattice

c)

Giant covalent

d)

Giant ionic

23.
Which of these is covalent?
a)
NaCl
b)
Pb(NO3)2
c)
CO2
d)
AlCl3
24.
If an atom loses two electrons what charge will it have?
a)
+ 2
b)
 - 2
c)
+1
d)
-1
25.
Compounds containing a metal and non-metal.
a)
simple covalent molecules
b)
metallic
c)
ionic
d)
giant covalent 
26.

What holds together the ions in an ionic compound?

a)

Electrostatic attraction

b)

Love

c)

Covalent bonds

d)

Strong inter-molecular forces

27.

Predict the bond between Mg and Cl

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

c)

metallic

d)

none of the above

28.

Explain why metals can conduct electricity

a)

Delocalised ions are free to carry charge

b)

Delocalised electrons are free to carry charge

c)

Delocalised electrons are not free to carry charge

d)

Delocalised ions are not free to carry charge

29.

Explain why pure metals are soft

a)

The metals ions are only small

b)

Weak forces between metal ions

c)

Layers of metal ions are free to slide over each other

d)

Metals have high melting points

30.

Define covalent bonding.

a)

swapping of electrons

b)

a shared pair of electrons

c)

an electron being shared

d)

transfer of electrons between metals and non-metals

31.

Subatomic particle with positive charge identifies the atom

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Alpha Particle

32.

Atomic mass is equal to the number of protons plus _______.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Alpha particles

33.

Inert gases, non-reactive, belong to this family

a)

Alkali family

b)

Carbon family

c)

Noble gas family

d)

Halogen family

34.
What type of bond is illustrated above?
a)
Metallic
b)
Ionic
c)
Covalent
d)
Wiggly
35.

What do delocalised electrons in metallic bonding mean?

a)

electrons are free to move around one specific atom

b)

electrons are free to move from one atom to another

c)

electrons are free to orbit around a nucleus

d)

electrons are able to move from one electron shell to another of one atom

36.
Which of the following is NOT a property of ionic compounds?
a)
They have very high melting points
b)
They conduct electricity when in solution
c)
They have high boiling points
d)
They are insoluble in water
37.
When an atom loses an electron, it becomes a:
a)
positive ion
b)
negative ion
c)
neutral ion
d)
neutral atom
38.

What type of structure is shown in the diagram?

a)

Molecular covalent

b)

Giant covalent

c)

Atomic

d)

Metallic

39.

What does the Group number tell you?

a)

Whether it's a metal or non-metal

b)

How many electrons in the outer shell

c)

How many shells of electrons there are

d)

Whether it is doing covalent or ionic bonding

40.

What is meant by an ion?

a)

A metal atom

b)

A non-metal atom

c)

An atom that has lost or gained electrons

d)

An atom that has lost or gained protons

41.
What is the relative formula mass of CO2?
a)
44
b)
32
c)
16
d)
56
42.
Calculate the number of gold atoms in a 4 mole sample of gold.
a)
2.41x1024
b)
3.01x1023
c)
4.82x1024
d)
6.02x1023
43.
Calculate the % composition by mass of oxygen present in H2SO4.
a)
16.3%
b)
65.25%
c)
32.6%
d)
57.14%
44.
Calculate the mass of oxygen present in a 55g sample of Aluminum oxide, Al2O3.
a)
29.28
b)
19.95
c)
11.36
d)
32.33
45.
Which represents the greatest mass of sulfur?
a)
1 gram of sulfur
b)
1 molecule of sulfur
c)
0.5 mole of sulfur
d)
6.02 x 1023 atoms of sulfur
46.
What is the mass of one mole of aluminum?
a)
27 g
b)
13 g
c)
54 g
d)
14 g
47.
Formula mass of KBr
a)
119
b)
117g
c)
54
d)
62g
48.
Moles of Al2O3 in 40g
a)
40%
b)
0.39
c)
4080
d)
2.55
49.
How much CO2 could you make from 6g of C?
C + O2 --> CO2
a)
12g
b)
44g
c)
22g
d)
32g
50.
Mass of one mole of Mg(OH)2
a)
58g
b)
42g
c)
82g
d)
41g
51.

What amount (in moles) is present in 2.0 g of sodium hydroxide, NaOH?

a)

0.050

b)

0.10

c)

20

d)

80

52.

Lithium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide as follows.


2LiOH + CO2 → Li2CO3 + H2O


What mass (in grams) of lithium hydroxide is needed to react with 11 g of carbon dioxide?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

24

d)

48

53.

What is the law of conservation of mass?

a)

Mass of products is more than mass of reactants

b)

Mass of reactants is less than mass of products

c)

Mass of reactants is equal to mass of products

54.

1 dm3 is equal to how many cm3 ?

a)

100

b)

500

c)

1000

d)

2000

55.

Choose a correct unit for concentration.

a)

g

b)

gdm

c)

g/dm3

d)

mol

56.

A high mass of solute dissolved in a low volume of liquid would result in what type of solution?

a)

Low Concentration

b)

High Concentration

57.

50g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in water to make up 200cm3 . What is the concentration in dm3.

a)

0.25 g/dm3

b)

2.5 g/dm3

c)

25 g/dm3

d)

250 g/dm3

58.

Give the equation for calculating concentration from the mass of substance and volume of solution.

a)

Concentration = mass x volume

b)

Concentration = mass ÷ volume

59.
What is the range of pH values in an acidic solution?
a)
0-6
b)
8-14
c)
15-239058204958
d)
pH = 7
60.

What are the reactants for the reaction of magnesium with oxygen

Magnesium + oxygen --> Magnesium oxide

a)

Magnesium

b)

Oxygen

c)

Magnesium oxide

d)

Magnesium and oxygen

61.
An acid reacts with metal to produce 
a)
Carbon dioxide 
b)
Hydrogen gas
c)
Hydrogen gas and water 
d)
Salt and hydrogen gas 
62.
A neutralisation reaction is a reaction between 
a)
Acid and a Base 
b)
Acid and water 
c)
Base and water 
d)
None of the above 
63.
An acid reacts with a metal carbonate to produce 
a)
Salt, water and hydrogen gas
b)
Salt, water and carbon dioxide
c)
Limewater
d)
Salt and water 
64.
A neutralisation reaction produces 
a)
An acid 
b)
A neutral substance 
c)
Only water 
d)
Salt and water 
65.
Complete the following reaction:
Sulphuric acid + sodium carbonate
--> 
a)
Carbon dioxide + water 
b)
calcium carbonate + water + carbon dioxide 
c)
Sodium sulphate + water + carbon dioxide 
d)
Sodium chloride + water + carbon dioxide 
66.
Complete the following reaction:
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium hydroxide --> 
a)
Magnesium chloride + water 
b)
Magnesium + water
c)
Magnesium chloride + hydrogen gas 
d)
Magnesium chloride + water + carbon dioxide 
67.

How do we test for hydrogen?

a)

Squeaky pop test

b)

Hydrogen extinguishes a lit splint

c)

Bubbling through lime water

d)

Hydrogen makes a glowing splint relight

68.

Calcium carbonate + hydrochloric acid -->

a)

Calcium chloride + hydrogen

b)

Calcium choride + water

c)

Calcium chloride + carbon dioxide + water

d)

Calcium sulfate + carbon dioxide + water

69.

Copper carbonate + hydrochloric acid -->

a)

Copper chloride + hydrogen

b)

Copper chloride + water

c)

Copper chloride + water + hydrogen

d)

Copper chloride + water + carbondioxide

70.
Values from 0-14 that determine the acidity of a solution
a)
Molarity
b)
Polarity
c)
pH scale
d)
Solubility
71.
If the pH of a solution is 9, it is a....
a)
acid
b)
base
c)
both
d)
none
72.

Hydrochloric acid reacts to form ........ salts.

a)

chloride

b)

hydrochloride

c)

nitrate

d)

sulfate

73.

Nitric acid reacts to form ........ salts.

a)

chloride

b)

nitrite

c)

nitrate

d)

sulfate

74.

Sulfuric acid reacts to form ........ salts.

a)

chloride

b)

nitrite

c)

sulfite

d)

sulfate

75.

acid + base -> salt + ............

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

hydrogen

c)

ammonia

d)

water

76.

acid + metal -> salt + ............

a)

carbon dioxide + water

b)

hydrogen

c)

ammonia + water

d)

water

77.

Which acid reacts with potassium hydroxide to form potassium sulfate?

a)

chloric acid

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

nitric acid

d)

sulfuric acid

78.

Which acid reacts with calcium hydroxide to form calcium nitrate?

a)

chloric acid

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

nitric acid

d)

sulfuric acid

79.

Oxides and hydroxides are

a)

bases

b)

carbonates

c)

acids

d)

metals

80.

What are the products formed when zinc + ethanoic acid react?

a)

magnesium chloride and water

b)

aluminium chloride and hydrogen gas

c)

aluminium chloride and water

d)

zinc ethanoate and hydrogen gas

81.

Which of the following describes a precipitate?

a)

a liquid forms when a block of metal is heated

b)

a solid forms when one liquid is poured into another

c)

a gas forms when a solid is placed in a liquid

d)

bubbles form when an acid is poured on a rock

82.

What is the difference between base and alkali

a)

Alkalis are water insoluble bases

b)

Alkalis are water soluble bases

c)

Both are same

d)

Alkali react with acids while bases don't.

83.
A student mixed two chemicals to allow them to react. The temperature before the reaction was 25 ° C. The temperature after the reaction was 18° C. Which of the following is true? 
a)
The temperature changed 
b)
It is an endothermic reaction
c)
It is an exothermic reaction 
d)
Two of the answers are correct 
84.
Have you ever eaten sherbet sweets candy? They fizz in your mouth and your tongue feels cold. Why do you think that is?
a)
It is an exothermic reaction
b)
It is an endothermic reaction
c)
It is made of ice
d)
It is dissolving your mouth
85.
What type of reaction is shown in the photo?
a)
Exothermic
b)
Isothermic
c)
Endothermic
d)
None of the  above
86.

Which of the following process is exothermic?

a)

Candle wax melting

b)

A puddle evaporating

c)

Dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) subliming to form gaseous carbon dioxide

d)

Water freezing to form ice

87.

During an exothermic reaction, heat is _________ and chemical bonds __________.

a)

released, formed

b)

absorbed, broken

c)

released, broken

d)

absorbed, formed

88.
Which letter corresponds to the energy of the products?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
89.
Which letter corresponds to the energy of the reactants?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
90.
According to collision theory, what must the reactants have in order to form products?
a)
The right size
b)
The right shape
c)
Enough energy
d)
Nothing
91.

Which letter corresponds to the activation energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

92.

How does the law of conservation of energy apply to chemistry?

a)

In all physical reactions, energy is either transferred to the surroundings or from the surroundings.

b)

In all chemical reactions, energy is either transferred to the surroundings only.

c)

In all chemical reactions, energy is either transferred to the surroundings or from the surroundings.

d)

In all physical reactions, energy is absorbed by the surroundings.

93.

What is an exothermic reaction?

a)

A reaction where energy is transferred from the surroundings.

b)

A reaction where energy is transferred to the surroundings.

c)

A reaction where energy is absorbed into surroundings.

d)

A reaction where energy is absorbed from the surroundings.

94.

Give two examples of exothermic reactions.

a)

Combustion, photosynthesis

b)

Decomposition, respiration

c)

Neutralisation, photosynthesis

d)

Combustion, respiration

95.

What is an endothermic reaction?

a)

A reaction where energy is transferred from the surroundings.

b)

A reaction where energy is transferred to the surroundings.

c)

A reaction where energy is absorbed into surroundings.

d)

A reaction where energy is absorbed from the surroundings.

96.

How do we work out the overall energy change of a reaction?

a)

Add the energy needed to break all the bonds in the reactants to the energy released to form all the bonds in the products.

b)

Work out the difference between the energy needed to break all the bonds in the reactants and the energy released to form all the bonds in the products.

c)

Divide the energy needed to break all the bonds in the reactants from the energy released to form all the bonds in the products.

d)

Multiply the energy needed to break all the bonds in the reactants to the energy released to form all the bonds in the products.

97.

How does the reactivity of the metal electrodes affect the size of the potential difference?

a)

The lower the difference in reactivity, the greater the potential difference.

b)

The greater the difference in reactivity, the lower the potential difference.

c)

The greater the difference in reactivity, the greater the potential difference.

d)

The lower the difference in reactivity, the lower the potential difference.

98.

Which two measurements can be used to calculate the rate of a reaction?

a)

Amount of reactant used

b)

Amount of product formed

c)

Amount of rate given

99.

Which are the correct units for rate of reaction?

a)

cm3cm^3

b)

gs\frac{g}{s}

c)

cm3s\frac{cm^{3^{ }}}{s}

100.

A student collects 50cm3 of CO2 in 10 seconds. what is the rate of reaction? Include the units

(a)  

101.

How does increasing the concentration of reactants increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

Less particles mean the reaction will happen faster

b)

More particles means more collisions meaning the reaction is faster

c)

The particles try harder with more concentration and react faster

102.

How does increasing the pressure of reactants increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

Particles move faster under higher pressure causing more collisions so the rate of reaction will increase

b)

Particles move slower at higher pressure giving them more time to react

c)

The particles are under pressure to react

103.

Increasing the surface area of solid reactants increases the (a)   of collisions, and so increases the rate of reaction.

104.

Increasing the (a)   increases the frequency of collisions and makes the collisions more energetic, and so increases the rate of reaction.

105.

What is meant by the term collision theory?

(a)  

106.

What is a catalyst?

a)

Something that changes the rate of reaction but is not used up

b)

Something that changes the rate of reaction and is used up

107.

What does this symbol mean?

a)

Left and right

b)

Reversible reaction

c)

One way or the other

108.

What is meant by a reversible reaction?

a)

One that will only work backwards

b)

The products of a reaction can react to produce the reactants

c)

The reactants of a reaction can react to produce the products

d)

None of the above

109.

The following reversible reaction occurs. The reaction that makes C + D is exothermic. What happens if we heat up A and B?

(a)  

110.

If the concentration of one of the reactants or products is changed, the system is no longer at _____________ and the concentrations of all the substances will change until _____________ is reached again.

(a)  

111.

What is Le Chatelier's principle?

a)

If a system is at not equilibrium and a change is made to any of the conditions, then the system responds to counteract the change

b)

If a system is at equilibrium and a change is made to any of the conditions, then the system responds to counteract the change

112.

What three factors can be changed in a system at equilibrium?

a)

Concentration

b)

Temperature

c)

Surface area

d)

Pressure

113.
How many carbon atoms are in propane
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
114.
If an alkane has 20 carbon atoms, how many hydrogen atoms will it have?
a)
20
b)
22
c)
40
d)
42
115.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
116.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
117.
The "ane" ending in "alkane" tells someone that they are dealing with _________-bonded carbons.
a)
single
b)
double
c)
triple
d)
quadruple
118.
Give the name of this compound...
C3H8
a)
Propene
b)
Butane
c)
Butene
d)
Propane
119.
Hydrocarbons are compounds that contain
a)
Carbon, only
b)
Carbon and Hydrogen, only
c)
Carbon, Oxygen, and Hydrogen, only
d)
Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen, only
120.
General formula of Alkane is 
a)
CnH2n+2
b)
CnH2n
c)
CnH2n+1OH
d)
CnH2n+1COOH
121.

What process is used to separate crude oil in hydrocarbons with different chain lengths?

a)

distillation

b)

fractional distillation

c)

cracking

d)

polymerisation

122.

Fractional distillation separates crude oil based on the different __________ of the molecules in the mixture

a)

melting point

b)

boiling point

c)

freezing point

d)

chemical reactivity

123.

Molecules collected at the bottom of the fractionating column tend to be...

a)

more viscous, less flammable and less volatile

b)

less viscous, more flammable and more volatile

c)

more viscous, more flammable and less volatile

d)

less viscous, less flammable and more volatile

124.

What are the 2 products of complete combustion?

a)

carbon dioxide + hydrogen

b)

carbon dioxide + water

c)

carbon monoxide + water

d)

carbon monoxide + hydrogen

125.

What are the products of incomplete combustion?

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

water

c)

carbon

d)

hydrogen

126.

What is the term given to the process by which longer chain hydrocarbons are broken down into shorter length alkanes and alkenes?

a)

fractional distillation

b)

evaporation

c)

cracking

d)

polymerisation

127.

What conditions are needed for cracking?

a)

high temperature

b)

high pressure

c)

catalyst

d)

low temperature

128.

A fraction of crude oil is made up of:

a)

Hydrocarbons of similar chain lengths

b)

Numbers

c)

Large hydrocarbons

d)

Alkenes only

129.

Crude oil is made up of:

a)

Ethane

b)

Butane

c)

A mixture of different hydrocarbons

d)

Extremely large hydrocarbons which are broken up once extracted

130.

What is chemical analysis?

a)

The process of establishing what chemicals are present in a substance

b)

A process that has had nothing added to it and is in its "natural" state

c)

An instrumental analysis tool for identifying metal ions

d)

The process of using small molecules (monomers) to make long chain molecules (polymers)

131.

In everyday language what is a "pure" substance?

a)

A substance that has had nothing added to it and is in its "natural" state

b)

A substance made of a single element or compound

c)

A complex mixture designed as a useful product

d)

fuels, cleaning agents, paints, medicines, alloys, fertilisers and foods.

132.

In chemistry what is a "pure" substance?

a)

A substance that has had nothing added to it and is in its "natural" state

b)

A substance made of a single element or compound

c)

A complex mixture designed as a useful product

d)

fuels, cleaning agents, paints, medicines, alloys, fertilisers and foods.

133.

How can pure substances be distinguished from impure ones?

a)

By their melting/boiling points

b)

By their colour

c)

By their reaction with oxygen

d)

Whether they conduct or not

134.

What is a formulation?

a)

A substance that has had nothing added to it and is in its "natural" state

b)

A substance made of a single element or compound

c)

A complex mixture designed as a useful product

d)

fuels, cleaning agents, paints, medicines, alloys, fertilisers and foods.

135.

Which is NOT an example of a formulations

a)

fuels

b)

cleaning agents

c)

paints

d)

hydrogen gas

136.

What is chromatography?

a)

A process to separate the constituents of a mixture

b)

A way to separate two liquids

c)

A process to separate solid from liquid

d)

A process which separates a soluble solid from a solvent

137.

In paper chromatography, what is the stationary phase?

a)

The paper

b)

The solvent

c)

The mixture

d)

The chromatography jar

138.

How is the Rf value calculated?

a)

distance moved by spot/distance moved by solvent

b)

distance moved by spot - distance moved by solvent

c)

distance moved by spot + distance moved by solvent

d)

distance moved by spot x distance moved by solvent

139.

What does a substance's Rf value depend on?

a)

How soluble it is in the solvent

b)

How many spots are formed

c)

How long the paper is

d)

The volume of solvent used

140.

How can hydrogen be tested for?

a)

Makes a squeaky pop when a splint is placed in it

b)

Relights a glowing splint

c)

Bubble through limewater, turns it milky (cloudy)

d)

Bleaches damp litmus paper white

141.

How can oxygen be tested for?

a)

Makes a squeaky pop when a splint is placed in it

b)

Relights a glowing splint

c)

Bubble through limewater, turns it milky (cloudy)

d)

Bleaches damp litmus paper white

142.

How can carbon dioxide be tested for?

a)

Makes a squeaky pop when a splint is placed in it

b)

Relights a glowing splint

c)

Bubble through limewater, turns it milky (cloudy)

d)

Bleaches damp litmus paper white

143.

How can chlorine be tested for?

a)

Makes a squeaky pop when a splint is placed in it

b)

Relights a glowing splint

c)

Bubble through limewater, turns it milky (cloudy)

d)

Bleaches damp litmus paper white

144.

Algae and plants use carbon dioxide and water to produce oxygen. What is the name of this process?

a)

Carbon capture

b)

Combustion

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Polymerisation

145.

How can countries reduce carbon dioxide emissions?

a)

Only burn methane

b)

Use renewable energy supplies

c)

Use waste plastic bags as fuels

146.

The hydrocarbon C4H8 was burnt in air. Incomplete combustion occurred. Which equation correctly represents the incomplete combustion reaction?

a)

C4H8 + 4O → 4CO + 4H2

b)

C4H8 + 4O2 → 4CO + 4H2O

c)

C4H8 + 6O2 → 4CO2 + 4H2O

d)

C4H8 + 8O → 4CO2 + 4H2

147.

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

a)

Methane

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Ozone

d)

Sulfur dioxide

148.

Which gas makes up most of the atmosphere on earth?

a)

Water vapour

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

149.

Radiation from the sun passes through our atmosphere and hits the surface of the earth. This radiation is typically.....

a)

Short wavelength

b)

Long wavelength

150.

Theories suggest that the earth's early atmosphere was mainly made up of.......

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Water vapour

d)

Methane

151.

This gas makes up 21% of the modern day atmosphere

a)

ozone

b)

oxygen

c)

nitrogen

d)

water vapor

152.

This gas makes up 78% of the modern day atmosphere

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

ozone

d)

carbon dioxide

153.

What are the 2 most abundant gases in Earth's atmosphere today?

a)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide and nitrogen

c)

nitrogen and oxygen

d)

nitrogen and hydrogen

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