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IB Bio random revision mega quiz

Total questions: 168

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following are responsible for transpiration?
I. adhesion
II. cohesion
III. evaporation
IV. active transport
a)
I and II only
b)
I, II and III only
c)
I, and III only
d)
I, II, III and IV
2.
Which factor will decrease the rate of transpiration?
a)
Wind
b)
Temperature
c)
Light intensity
d)
Humidity
3.
What hormone is responsible for the closing of stomata?
a)
Abscisic Acid
b)
GA (Gibberellin)
c)
Auxin
d)
Phytochrome
4.
What is a halophyte?
a)
Aquatic dwelling Plant
b)
Arid dwelling Plant
c)
Salt dwelling plant
d)
Air dwelling plant
5.
Which of the following is an adaptation of a xerophyte?
a)
reduced roots
b)
hairy leaves
c)
many stomata
d)
thin cuticle
6.
Which of the following play a role in stomata closing?
a)
K+ pumped out of guard cell; low levels of Abscisic Acid
b)
K+ is pumped out of guard cells; high levels of Abscisic Acid
c)
K+ is pumped into guard cells; low levels of Abscisic Acid
d)
K+ is pumped into guard cells; high levels of Abscisic Acid
7.
Which cells are found in xylem?
a)
Tracheids
b)
Sieve Tubes
c)
Companion cells
d)
Cambium cells
8.
How do minerals enter into plant cells?
I. Active transport
II. Bulk flow (with water)
III. Transport by Phloem
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
I, II and III
d)
II and III only
9.
What BEST defines adhesion.
a)
Water molecules bonding to each other due to the hydrophobic nature of water.
b)
Water molecules bonded to other other surfaces due to the transparency of water.
c)
Water molecules sticking to each other due to the polarity of water.
d)
Water molecules sticking to other surfaces due to the polarity of water.
10.
Why do plants need to open stomata?
I. To get rid of excess CO2

II. To allow transpiration
III. To exchange gases with the  environment
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
II and III only
d)
I, II and III
11.

Which of the following are true of xylem vessels?


I. They have no end walls

II. They have pores (pits) in the outer cell wall

III. They contain lignin

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

12.

The diagram shows a cross section from a plant organ.


What is the plant organ, tissue A and tissue B?

a)

Organ = root; A = xylem; B = phloem

b)

Organ = root; A = phloem; B = xylem

c)

Organ = stem; A = xylem; B = phloem

d)

Organ = stem; A = phloem; B = xylem

13.

Water travels from root hair cells to the leaves.


What is the passage of water between these structures?

a)

xylem --> cortex cells --> mesophyll cells

b)

cortex cells --> mesophyll cells --> xylem

c)

xylem --> mesophyll cells --> cortex cells

d)

cortex cells --> xylem --> mesophyll cells

14.

Place these statements in the correct order.


I. water enters root hairs by osmosis

II. the solute concentration inside root hairs increases

III. water enters xylem vessels by osmosis

IV. mineral ions enter root hairs by active transport

a)

I --> II --> IV --> III

b)

I --> IV --> II --> III

c)

IV --> II --> I --> III

d)

IV --> I --> II --> III

15.

Which of the following is true of leaf structure?

a)

the main site of photosynthesis is the spongy mesophyll cells

b)

the lower surface has a thicker waxy cuticle than the upper surface

c)

palisade mesophyll cells are arranged far apart to create air spaces

d)

the lower surface contains more stomata than the upper surface

16.

Transpiration involves the evaporation and diffusion of water vapour.


What happens to the water vapour during transpiration?

a)

evaporation from mesophyll cells followed by diffusion through stomata

b)

diffusion from mesophyll cells followed by evaporation through stomata

c)

evaporation from stomata followed by diffusion through mesophyll cells

d)

diffusion from stomata followed by evaporation through mesophyll cells

17.

Which force directly causes water molecules to stick to the xylem wall?

a)

tension

b)

cohesion

c)

adhesion

d)

gravity

18.

Which force causes water molecules to be drawn out of the xylem walls at the leaf?

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

tension

d)

gravity

19.

Which force causes water molecules to stick to each other by hydrogen bonds?

a)

tension

b)

adhesion

c)

cohesion

d)

gravity

20.

What causes the water in xylem vessels to be under tension?

a)

gravity

b)

cohesion

c)

adhesion

d)

evaporation

21.

An increase in which factor would decrease the rate of transpiration?

a)

wind

b)

temperature

c)

humidity

d)

light

22.

Which of the following is a xerophytic adaptation?

a)

thin cuticle

b)

stomata only open during the day

c)

large leaves

d)

stomata are sunken in pits

23.

Which of the following explains why having sunken stomata reduces the rate of transpiration?

a)

less water molecules blown away gives a lower concentration gradient

b)

more water molecules blown away gives a lower concentration gradient

c)

less water molecules blown away gives a higher concentration gradient

d)

more water molecules blown away gives a higher concentration gradient

24.

What is a characteristic of xerophytes?

a)

Absence of roots

b)

Absence of vascular tissue

c)

Leaves with very small surface area

d)

Large number of stomata

25.

Which of the following help(s) in supporting a terrestrial woody plant?

I. Xylem tissue

II. Turgor pressure

III. Phloem tissue

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

26.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
27.
Which of the following is NOT part of the cell membrane?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
28.
The function of the plasma membrane is....
a)
to regulate what enters and leaves the cell.
b)
fight bacteria and viruses that enter the cell.
c)
provide rigid support and protection to the cell.
d)
make sure each cell can move
29.
Hydrophilic means...
a)
water-loving
b)
water-fearing
c)
nonpolar
d)
lipid soluble
30.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
31.
What is NOT TRUE about the cell membrane
a)
It controls what enters and leaves the cell
b)
Semipermeable
c)
Phospholipid bilayer
d)
Contains digestive enzymes
32.
What is embedded in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
proteins
b)
salt
c)
water
33.
True or false:  Regulating what enters and leaves the cell helps the cell maintain homeostasis. 
a)
True
b)
False
34.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
35.
A ______________ is composed of a phosphate and glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails. 
a)
phospholipid 
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Cholesterol 
d)
Protein 
36.
Describes the arrangement of the cell membrane as bendable and made of many parts. 
a)
The Fluid Mosaic Model 
b)
The Major Mobility Model 
c)
The Crazy Cell Model
d)
The Maze Model
37.
Which letter indicates an integral protein?
a)
E
b)
F
c)
H
d)
I
38.

Who is credited for this model of the cell membrane that was predominant from the 1930s to the 1960s?

a)

Singer and Nicholson

b)

Davson and Danelli

c)

Gorter and Grendel

d)

Watson and Crick

39.

What issues were found with the Davson-danelli model that meant the Singer - Nicholson model was eventually accepted?

a)

Electron micrographs showed a light band sandwiched between 2 dark bands

b)

Freeze etched electron micrographs showed globular structures crossing the membranes

c)

Membrane proteins were shown to have hydrophobic sections.

d)

Fluorescent marking of membrane proteins showed they could move around within the membrane

e)

There were twice as many phospholipids in red blood cells than were needed to make a monolayer membrane.

40.

This freeze-etched electron micrograph of the membrane suggested which piece of evidence that helped to falsify the Davson-Danelli model?

a)

Membrane proteins are not even distributed across membranes

b)

Membrane proteins appear to cross through the membrane

c)

Membrane proteins make an even layer on the outside of membranes

d)

Membranes do not have proteins

41.
Which of the following are transported in phloem - and by what process?
a)
Sucrose, amino acids, minerals - actively by translocation
b)
Sucrose, carbonic acids, hormones - actively by transpiration
c)
Sucrose, amino acids, hormones - actively by translocation
d)
Sucrose, amino acids, hormones - passively by translocation
42.
Which part of the aphid will reach into which structure in the plant?
a)
tail piece; phloem
b)
stylet; xylem
c)
tail piect; pith
d)
stylet; phloem
43.
What is the main explanation for the fact that water can cause hydrostatic pressure?
a)
Because it is incompressible.
b)
Because it is polar.
c)
Because it attracts other water molecules.
d)
Because it exhibits electronegativity.
44.
Which cells are alive but lack organelles?
a)
Xylem cells
b)
Tracheid cells
c)
Companion cells
d)
Sieve tube cells
45.
What is the name for the structures that allow flow of material between phloem cells?
a)
Cellulose
b)
Sieve plate
c)
Sieve cell
d)
Trachieds
46.
Why must radioactive CO2 be used when tracing phloem flow?
a)
It is incorporated into the phloem cells
b)
It is incorporated into the minerals in the phloem
c)
It is incorporated into the sucrose during cellular respiration
d)
It is incorporated into the sucrose during photosynthesis
47.
Which best describes the flow of phloem?
a)
Root to shoot; one direction
b)
Source to sink; two directions
c)
Source to sink; one direction
d)
Root to shoot; two directions
48.
Where is phloem tissue found in a stem?
a)
On the side facing the epidermis in the vascular bundle.
b)
One the side facing the pith in the vascular bundle.
c)
Distributed with some facing the epidermis and some facing the pith.
d)
Only in the middle of the vascular bundle.
49.
All of the following EXCEPT ______ are produced by plants and carried in phloem.
a)
Auxins
b)
amino acids
c)
minerals
d)
hormones
50.
All of the following are involved in translocation EXCEPT:
a)
Living tissue
b)
Thick cellulose
c)
companion cells
d)
Diffusion
51.

A fungicide is a chemical that kills fungi. A fungicide dissolved in water was applied to the soil in which a rose plant was growing. It later appeared in the leaves. How did the fungicide reach the leaves?

a)

Transpiration pull in xylem

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Translocation in phloem

d)

Movement up a water potential gradient

52.

The diagram shows a cross section from a plant organ.


What is the plant organ, tissue A and tissue B?

a)

Organ = root; A = xylem; B = phloem

b)

Organ = root; A = phloem; B = xylem

c)

Organ = stem; A = xylem; B = phloem

d)

Organ = stem; A = phloem; B = xylem

53.

Which of the following are true of phloem tissue?


I. plasmodesmata separate each sieve element

II. companion cells contain many mitochondria for active transport

III. the lumen of sieve elements has no organelles

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

54.

In what form is carbohydrate usually transported in the phloem tissue?

a)

glucose

b)

maltose

c)

starch

d)

sucrose

55.

In translocation, what directly causes a high hydrostatic pressure at the source?

a)

sucrose enters the phloem by active transport

b)

water enters the phloem by osmosis

c)

sucrose leaves the roots by active transport

d)

water enters the roots by osmosis

56.

Which of the following is not true of loading phloem sieve tubes?

a)

co-transporter proteins move protons outside the cell

b)

pump proteins move protons by active transport

c)

sucrose is moved into the cell by co-transport

d)

energy in a proton gradient is used to move sucrose into the cell

57.

What could be used in a technique for measuring flow rates in phloem?


I. Potometers

II. Aphid stylets

III. 14CO2

a)

I and II

b)

I and III

c)

II only

d)

II and III only

58.

When a farmer sprays a chemical on to crop plants, how does the chemical travel to the roots of the plants?

a)

In the phloem, by active translocation

b)

In the phloem, by transpiration pull

c)

In the xylem, by transpiration pull

d)

In the xylem, by active translocation

59.

Which direction does the phloem transport materials?

a)

Up the plant at night and down the plant during the day

b)

Up and down the plant all the time

c)

Up the plant only

d)

Down the plant only

60.
What are the cells that make up Phloem?
a)
Spiracles
b)
Sieve Tube Cells
c)
Vessel Cells 
d)
Tracheary Elements
61.
What is meristematic tissue AND where is it found?
a)
undifferentiated tissue; throughout entire plant.
b)
undifferentiated tissue; in apical and lateral meristems.
c)
differentiated tissue, throughout plant
d)
differentiated tissue; in apical and lateral meristems
62.
What best describes an efflux pump with a correct example?
a)
Pumps material out of a cell; proton pump involved in cell wall acidification
b)
pumps material into a cell; proton pump involved in cell wall acidification
c)
Pumps material into a cell; formation of cellulose cell wall
d)
Pumps material out of a cell; electron pump involved in thylakoid membrane.
63.
Cells on which side of the stem will undergo elongation?
a)
dark side
b)
light side
c)
both sides
d)
in the middle
64.
Which of the following are involved in phototrophism? I. auxinII. proton pumpsIII. expansinsIV. sunlight
a)
I and II only
b)
I, II and III only
c)
II and III only
d)
I, II, III and IV
65.
What process can cause cells to elongate?
a)
The movement of protons into the cell wall; loosening of the cellulose; efflux of water
b)
The movement of protons into the cell wall; loosening of the cellulose; influx of water
c)
The movement of protons into the cytoplasm; loosening of the cell wall; influx of water
d)
The movement of protons into the nucleus; activating genes to loosen the cell wall; influx of water
66.
Micropropagation can be used to:I. Produce many clones of new varieties of plants II. Re-populate endangered plant speciesIII. Protect plants from viruses and bacteria found in the natural environment
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
II and III only
d)
I, II and III
67.
Which processes best describe phototrophism?
a)
Plants growing towards light; cells on light side elongating
b)
Plants growing away from light; cells on light side elongating
c)
Plants growing toward light; cells on the dark side elongating
d)
Plants growing towards light, cells on the light and dark side elongating
68.
Why is it important for the cell wall to loosen during cell elongation?
a)
To activate proton pumps
b)
To allow active transport of water
c)
To allow auxin to be released
d)
To allow osmosis to occur
69.
What best describes a group of undifferentiated plant cells produced by micropropagation?
a)
callus
b)
embryoid
c)
plant
70.
Which of the following DOES NOT require activation of gene expression (transcription and translation)?
a)
activation of proton pumps
b)
Production of auxin
c)
influx of water
d)
production of expansins
71.
Which tissue allows plants to develop wider stems and roots?
a)
phloem
b)
xylem
c)
Lateral meristems
d)
apical meristems
72.

In the picture, what structures are X and Y?

a)

X =developing leaf; Y = meristem

b)

X = developing bud; Y = meristem

c)

X = developing leaf; Y = xylem

d)

X = developing bud; Y = xylem

73.

Which of the following are effects of auxin?


I. Increasing the rate of cell elongation in stems

II. Changing the pattern of gene expression in shoot cells

III. Detecting the direction of light

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

74.

Which of the following are true of the shoot meristem?


I. cells at the edge stop dividing and instead differentiate

II. mitosis occurs

III. it contains undifferentiated cells

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

75.

Why is a high concentration of auxin used in micropropagation?

a)

To stimulate development of roots and shoots

b)

To prevent dormancy

c)

To stimulate cell division

d)

To prevent dehydration

76.

Why is cytokinin hormone used in micropropagation?

a)

To stimulate development of roots and shoots

b)

To prevent dormancy

c)

To stimulate cell division

d)

To prevent dehydration

77.

Why might gibberellin hormone be used in micropropagation?

a)

To stimulate development of roots and shoots

b)

To prevent dormancy

c)

To stimulate cell division

d)

To prevent dehydration

78.

In micropropagation, which of the following is/are true of a callus?


I. it contains genetically identical cells

II. it is split apart into separate cells

III. it contains unspecialised cells

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

79.

In micropropagation, where are cells to be cloned usually taken from?

a)

leaves

b)

shoot apex

c)

xylem

d)

phloem

80.

Which of the following explains why plant shoots bend towards unidirectional light?

a)

more auxin diffuses to the shaded side to increase cell elongation

b)

more auxin diffuses to the unshaded side to increase cell elongation

c)

more auxin diffuses to the shaded side to decrease cell elongation

d)

more auxin diffuses to the unshaded side to decrease cell elongation

81.

Which of the following is/are involved in explaining how auxin causes cell elongation?


I. an increase in pH breaks hydrogen bonds between cellulose fibres

II. auxin activates specific genes

III. a protein pump transports protons from the cell wall to the cytoplasm

a)

I and II only

b)

II only

c)

I, II and II

d)

II and III only

82.

Which of the following is not involved in causing a plant shoot to bend towards unidirectional light?

a)

cell division

b)

the shoot tip

c)

cell elongation

d)

auxin

83.

Which of the following are true of the apical meristem?


I. cells at the edge start to differentiate

II. rapid mitosis occurs

III. both shoots and roots have a meristem

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

84.

Which of the following are true of both leaf cells and root cells?


I. they are undifferentiated

II. they are genetically identical

III. they were formed at the edges of an apical meristem

a)

II only

b)

III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

85.

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86.

Which of the following is not a function of bones and endoskeleton?

a)

acting as levers

b)

providing structural support

c)

providing force for movement

d)

anchoring muscles

87.

Which types of movement are permitted by the elbow joint?

a)

flexion and extension

b)

abduction and adduction

c)

rotation

d)

all the above

88.

Which types of movement are permitted by the hip joint?

a)

flexion and extension

b)

adduction and abduction

c)

rotation

d)

all the above

89.

Which letter represents the triceps muscle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

G

d)

H

90.

Which letter represents the ulna and cartilage respectively?

a)

E and C

b)

F and D

c)

F and C

d)

E and D

91.

Which is not a function of cartilage?

a)

absorbing mechanical shocks

b)

reducing friction between bones

c)

connecting bones to muscles

d)

allowing smooth movement between bones

92.

What is the function of synovial fluid?

a)

protecting the ends of bones

b)

providing force for movement

c)

creating hydrostatic pressure

d)

lubricating joints

93.

Which of the following does not apply to skeletal muscle tissue?

a)

muscle fibers contain intercalated discs

b)

myofibrils have repeated units called sarcomeres

c)

muscle fibres contain many contractile elements called myofibrils

d)

a muscle fibre is multinucleated

94.

Which number represents myosin filament?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

3

d)

4

95.

The length of a sarcomere is represented by

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

6

96.

The A band contains

a)

actin filaments only

b)

myosin filaments only

c)

both myosin and actin filaments

d)

neither myosin nor actin filaments

97.

What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction?

a)

To release tropomyosin from myosin

b)

To bind to troponin so myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed

c)

To bind to tropomyosin so ATP can bind to actin

d)

To release ATP from actin so myosin can bind to troponin

98.

What does label X indicate?

a)

Sarcolemma

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

99.

Which order is correct, largest to smallest?

a)

muscle fibre- myofibril- sarcomere

b)

myofibril - muscle fibre - sarcomere

c)

muscle fibre - sarcomere - myofibril

d)

myofibril - sarcomere - muscle fibre

100.

What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction?

a)

Forms the cross bridge

b)

The power stroke

c)

Breaks the cross bridge

d)

Moves the tropomyosin to expose the binding sites

101.

What is a T tubule?

a)

extension of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

extension of the sarcolemma

c)

part of the neuro-muscular junction

102.

Which of the following does not apply to skeletal muscle tissue?

a)

muscle fibers contain intercalated discs

b)

myofibrils have repeated units called sarcomeres

c)

muscle fibres contain many contractile elements called myofibrils

d)

a muscle fibre is multinucleated

103.

When a nerve impulse is received by skeletal muscle it initiates a number of processes that result in contraction. What are the roles of Ca2+, tropomyosin and ATP in contraction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

104.

In muscle contractions, where do calcium ions bind?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

105.

Which process is part of the mechanism that controls muscle contraction?

a)

Troponin enables actin heads to attach to ATP and slide along myosin.

b)

Myosin heads attach to troponin and tropomyosin pulls on actin filaments.

c)

Tropomyosin attaches to calcium and breaks the bond between actin and myosin.

d)

Calcium frees actin filaments for myosin heads to attach.

106.

What structure is indicated by the arrows?

a)

One muscle fibre

b)

One sarcomere

c)

One myofibril

d)

One Z line

107.

Which of the following is the function of myosin and actin in muscle contraction?

a)

formation of cross-bridges bind to actin

b)

sliding of actin and myosin filaments

c)

contraction ceases when myosin head detaches from actin

d)

all of the above

108.

Which part of the myofibril releases calcium ions?

a)

Sarcolemma

b)

T tubules

c)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Actin and myosin

109.

The binding sites for the cross‐bridges are located on:

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

troponin

110.

What is the state of this muscle tissue?

a)

I. fully relaxed II. fully contracted

b)

I. fully contracted II. fully relaxed

111.

The long, fiber like part of a neuron which the cell sends information to receiving neurons

a)

axon

b)

dendrite

c)

axon terminal

d)

myelin sheath

112.

The part of the neuron that picks up stimuli from surrounding cells.

a)

axon

b)

axon terminal

c)

dendrite

d)

neuron

113.

This insulating material forms a layer, around the axon of a neuron. It enables electrical signals to travel down the axon at higher speeds.

a)

neuron

b)

myelin sheath

c)

dendrite

d)

neurotransmitter

114.

At resting potential, the ion distribution inside and outside of a neuron is such that _______ ions are most abundant outside of the cell, while _______ ions are most abundant on the inside of the cell.

a)

potassium, sodium

b)

sodium, potassium

c)

calcium, potassium

d)

calcium, sodium

115.

In the figure above, what is occurring at step #4?

a)

Neuron receives enough stimulation, threshold is reached

b)

K+ (potassium) open and NA+ channels open, action potential begins

c)

K+ (potassium) channels open allowing K+ to diffuse out, repolarizing the membrane

d)

Na+ are being pumped out and the K+ are being pumped into the cell

116.

What is the structure labeled C in the picture?

a)

dendrite

b)

axon

c)

cell body

d)

axon terminal

117.

What is the structure labeled B in the picture?

a)

dendrite

b)

axon

c)

cell body

d)

axon terminal

118.

What is the structure labeled D in the picture?

a)

dendrite

b)

axon

c)

cell body

d)

axon terminal

119.

What is the structure labeled H in the picture?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Schwann cell

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

myelin sheath

120.

Which number on the graph represents the resting state?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

121.

When a neuron is depolarized, what are the first channels to open?

a)

sodium gated channels

b)

potassium gated channels

c)

sodium and potassium gated channels open at the same time

d)

both sodium and potassium gated channels are already open, as it is passive transport

122.

When a neuron is resting, the inside of the axon has a ________ charge.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

123.

-70 mV is the measure of the ______.

a)

threshold potential

b)

action potential

c)

resting state/potential

d)

end point potential

124.

An action potential going from positive to negative is called______.

a)

hyperpolarization

b)

depolarization

c)

repolarization

d)

polarization

125.

What number on the graph represents the depolarization phase?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

126.

What number on the graph represents the hyperpolarization phase?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

127.

What number on the graph represents the refractory period?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

128.

Saltatory conduction is faster than regular conduction.

a)

true

b)

False

129.

What does the myelin sheath do during saltatory conduction?

a)

allow Na+ channels to open more easily

b)

prevents polarization

c)

makes the action potential jump

d)

nothing occurs; there is no change

130.

What number on the graph represents the period where action potential is occurring?

a)

1,2

b)

2,3

c)

3,4

d)

4,5

131.

What is the myelin sheath?

a)

the part of the neuron where the action potential is generated and progagated

b)

the part of the neuron that contains the Na+ and K+ channels

c)

A collection of Schwann cells that allow for action potential to travel more quickly due to the insulation

d)

a collection of Schwann cells that prevent an action potential

132.

What structure is needed for saltatory conduction?

a)

A

b)

E

c)

C

d)

F

133.

How did you feel class prepared you for the quiz? Select all that apply

a)

Need more practice in class

b)

Need to review more at home/after school

c)

feel prepared

d)

need material presented differently in class

134.

Which statement is true about mitochondrial DNA and ribosomes?

a)

Mitochondria do not have DNA or ribosomes - they are organelles not cells

b)

Mitochondria have circular DNA and smaller ribosomes than eukaryotic cells - they evolved from prokaryotes.

c)

Mitochondria have linear DNA and 80S ribosomes - they are eukaryotic cells

d)

Mitochondrial DNA codes for all proteins needed in the electron transport chain but they use the ribosomes on the RER of the cell

135.

Which process requires oxygen in aerobic cell respiration?

a)

Oxidation of triose Phosphate

b)

Reduction of hydrogen carriers

c)

Maintaining an oxygen concentration gradient in the mitochondria

d)

Accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain

136.

What happens when pyruvate is converted to Acetyl CoA in the link reaction?

a)

Decarboxylation

b)

Phosphorylation

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Reduction of pyruvate

137.

The following processes occur in aerobic cell respiration. Which is the correct sequence for these processes?

a)

I ---> II ---> III

b)

I ---> III ---> II

c)

II ---> III ---> I

d)

III ---> I ---> II

138.

What is a requirement for the accurate measurements of the rate of respiration using a respirometer?

a)

CO2 must be absorbed by water so that only O2 production is measured

b)

Temperature must be kept constant so that the volume changes are only due to O2 use

c)

Anaerobic organisms are better to use than aerobic ones as they will produce larger volume changes

d)

Warm-blooded animals are better to use than cold-blooded animals as they do not change the temperature of the container

139.

Which way will the drop of liquid move in this respirometer and how do you explain it?

a)

Left - Carbon dioxide produced in respiration is absorbed by the soda lime so the volume of gas in the tube decreases

b)

Right - Carbon dioxide produced in respiration is absorbed by the soda lime so the volume of gas in the tube increases

c)

No movement - the volume of CO2 produced in respiration is the same as the volume of O2 used so there is no net change

d)

Depends - The movement will be different depending on whether the woodlice respire anaerobically or aerobically

140.

When investigating the effect of temperature on the rate of respiration, why do you need tube Q with glass beads?

a)

To make sure it is a fair test - the volume of glass beads needs to be the same as the volume of soda lime

b)

It is a control variable - it allows you to see what happens without the soda lime

c)

It is a control - changes in temperature could also cause the bubble to move and this allows you to take that into account

d)

Glass beads have a high specific heat capacity so it makes it easier to maintain a constant temperature in the tubes

141.

The diagram represents the Krebs cycle. What processes are occurring at I and II?

a)

I: C4 is being reduced. II: NAD+ is being oxidised

b)

I: NAD+ is being decarboxylated. II: C5 is being oxidised

c)

I: NADH is being reduced. II: C5 is being decarboxylated

d)

I: NAD+ is being reduced. II: C5 is being decarboxylated

142.

The reaction shown occurs in the mitochondria. What explains that this reaction enables energy to be converted into a usable form?

a)

The oxidised NAD+ will transfer energy from the C6 compound to ATP

b)

The chemical energy stored in the C6 compound is used to reduce NAD+ allowing ATP production

c)

Energy stored in the CO2 molecule will generate and electron gradient

d)

The C6 compound is reduced and the energy resulting from the removal of one carbon is used to oxidise NAD+

143.

The diagram shows a mitochondrion. Which letter indicates the structure where ATP synthase is located?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

144.

Which part of the mitochondrion has the highest concentration of protons?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

145.

Which of the following reactions does not cause a net release of energy?

a)

ADP combines with inorganic phosphate to form ATP

b)

ATP releases inorganic phosphate to form ADP

c)

Loss of hydrogen from reduced NAD

d)

Oxidation of reduced FAD

146.

The image shows a portion of a cell containing a mitochondrion. Where do glycolysis and electron transport occur?

a)

Glycolysis: P . Electron transport: R

b)

Glycolysis: R . Electron transport: Q

c)

Glycolysis: R . Electron transport: R

d)

Glycolysis: S . Electron transport: Q

147.

Which gas produces most of the bubbles in bread dough?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Methane

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Water vapour

148.

What feature of carbon makes it most suitable as a basis for life?

a)

Its abundance in nature

b)

Its bonding properties

c)

Its reactivity to light

d)

Its presence in the early atmosphere of the Earth

149.

Which process causes ADP to change to ATP?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

DNA replication

d)

Anaerobic cell respiration

150.

A cricket was placed in a respirometer at constant temperature for 10 minutes. The soap bubble moved along the pipette. What was measured by the movement of the soap bubble?

a)

Production of carbon dioxide

b)

Volume of excretory products

c)

Oxygen consumption

d)

Release of heat

151.

The graph shows the changes in lactate and pyruvate measured in an athletes blood during and following a mild exercise period as compared to the period before the exercise. What do these curves suggest?

a)

Before the exercise there was no pyruvate produced because there was no cell respiration

b)

During the exercise there was not enough oxygen available for cell respiration so the process was partly anaerobic

c)

During the exercise the level of lactate increased due to aerobic respiration

d)

After the exercise the level of lactate decreased because there was enough pyruvate to be used for anaerobic cell respiration

152.

Which hypothesis provides the most likely explanation for the curve?

a)

A. As exercise intensity increases, lactate is converted back to glucose.

b)

B. Anaerobic exercise results in high levels of lactate.

c)

C. Lactate provides energy for intense exercise.

d)

D. Under anaerobic conditions the body produces less lactate.

153.

Where in the mitochondrion does the formation of acetyl CoA occur?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

154.

The mitochondrion in the electron micrograph shows some features that make it efficient for its function. Which labelled feature allows a rapid build-up of proton concentration for chemiosmosis?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

155.

A respirometer is used to measure the oxygen consumption of germinating seeds. The distance that the oil drop moves is measured at 15-minute intervals. What is the function of chemical X?

a)

A. Absorbs carbon dioxide so the oxygen released by the seeds can be measured

b)

B. Absorbs carbon dioxide so the oxygen absorbed by the seeds can be measured

c)

C. Absorbs oxygen so the carbon dioxide released by the seeds can be measured

d)

D. Absorbs oxygen so the carbon dioxide absorbed by the seeds can be measured

156.

Where are protons pumped, to allow chemiosmosis in aerobic respiration to occur?

a)

A. From outside the mitochondrion through the double membranes

b)

B. From carrier to carrier in the inner mitochondrial membrane

c)

C. From the matrix of the mitochondrion to the space between the membranes

d)

D. From the space between the membranes to the cytoplasm outside the mitochondrion

157.

What is a difference between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration in yeast?

a)

A. Anaerobic respiration requires enzymes, aerobic respiration does not.

b)

B. Anaerobic respiration requires glucose, aerobic respiration does not.

c)

C. Anaerobic respiration produces ethanol, aerobic respiration does not.

d)

D. Anaerobic respiration does not produce oxygen, aerobic respiration does.

158.

Two reactions of the Krebs cycle are shown. What type of reactions are isocitrate and oxalosuccinate undergoing?

a)

isocitrate: oxidation and oxalosuccinate: reduction

b)

isocitrate: reduction and oxalosuccinate: decarboxylation

c)

isocitrate: reduction and oxalosuccinate: oxidation

d)

isocitrate: oxidation and oxalosuccinate: decarboxylation

159.

Identify the process that occurs at the glomerulus

a)

Selective reabsorption

b)

Ultrafiltration

c)

Reabsorption of water

d)

Active transport

160.

Identify the molecule not filtered from the blood by ultrafiltration

a)

Protein

b)

Urea

c)

Glucose

d)

Sodium ions

161.

State the structure in the image

(a)  

162.

How much of the glucose filtered from the blood is reabsorbed by the kidney?

a)

0.1%

b)

1%

c)

10%

d)

100%

163.

Identify where in the kidney tubule glucose is reabsorbed

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Proximal convoluted tubule

164.

State the process responsible for the reabsorption of water in the kidney tubule

(a)  

165.

What process is responsible for most of the reabsorption of glucose?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Exocytosis

166.

State the nitrogenous compound excreted by the kidney

(a)  

167.

Which artery supplies the kidney with oxygenated blood?

a)

Hepatic

b)

Coronary

c)

Renal

d)

Carotid

168.

Where is water reabsorbed in the kidney tubule?

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Glomerulus

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