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AP Biology ALL Units Review

Total questions: 173

Worksheet time: 4hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Oxygen atoms in the molecule shown have this charge:

a)

Positive

b)

Partial Positive

c)

Negative

d)

Partial Negative

2.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
 Water acts as a buffer.
3.
Why does ice stay at the top of oceans instead of sinking to the bottom?
a)
 Ice is colder than liquid water.
b)
Ice is less dense than liquid water.
c)
Ice is more dense than liquid water.
d)
Ice is warmer than liquid water.
4.
A florist places a bouquet of white carnations in water containing blue dye. After a time, the flowers turn blue. What process helped the carnations to change color?
a)
Specific heat 
b)
Surface tension
c)
Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules 
d)
Formation of covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen molecules
5.
Attractions between the negative Oxygen atom of one water molecule and the positive Hydrogen atom of another water molecule are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
6.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
7.

Capillary action is in part the result of adhesion. Which aspect of water is responsible for this?

a)

Nonpolar covalent bonds that enable water to dissolve other substances

b)

Polar covalent bonds that join molecules of water to other substances

c)

Hydrogen bonds between water and another substance

d)

Ionic bonds that enable electrons to flow through water and into another substance

8.
What property of water allows it to be such a versatile solvent that it is often called the "universal solvent?"
a)
Purity
b)
Polarity and cohesion
c)
High heat capacity
d)
Expansion upon freezing
9.

The ability of water molecules to stick to each other, creating surface tension is called:

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Insulation

d)

Ph

10.

The fact that water can stick to other substances is called:

a)

Ph

b)

Adhesion

c)

Cohesion

d)

Insulation

11.
Which biomolecule is a main source of quick energy?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
12.
Which biomolecule is found in fats, oils, and waxes and is a source of long-term energy
a)
Proteins
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipids
d)
Carbohydrate
13.

Storage of fat by the body is advantageous primarily because fats

a)

are insoluble and chemically stable

b)

can be digested with less energy and fewer enzymes than carbohydrates and proteins

c)

yield, gram for gram, more than twice as much energy as complex carbohydrates and proteins

d)

store almost all potential energy in chemical bonds

14.

monosaccharides, fatty acid and glycerol, amino acids, and nucleotides are examples of _____________.

a)

Elements

b)

Compounds

c)

Macromolecules

d)

Monomers

15.

What are the monomers that make up lipids?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

glycerols and fatty acids

c)

amino acids

d)

nucleotides

16.

A polymer of glucose that serves as a storage macromolecule in animals is

a)

chitin

b)

cellulose

c)

glycogen

d)

amylase

17.
What elements are common to all 4 biomolecules?
a)
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
b)
Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus
c)
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
d)
Carbon, Hydrogen, Phosphorus
18.

Carbohydrates are made of which elements?

a)

Carbon (C)

b)

Hydrogen (H)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

Nitrogen (N)

e)

Phosphorus (P)

19.

Lipids are made of which elements?

a)

Carbon (C)

b)

Hydrogen (H)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

Nitrogen (N)

e)

Phosphorus (P)

20.

Proteins are made of which elements?

a)

Carbon (C)

b)

Hydrogen (H)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

Nitrogen (N)

e)

Phosphorus (P)

21.

Nucleic Acids are made of which elements?

a)

Carbon (C)

b)

Hydrogen (H)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

Nitrogen (N)

e)

Phosphorus (P)

22.

What macromolecule is shown above?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

23.

Which biomolecule is this a picture of?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Lipid

d)

Carbohydrate

24.

Which biomolecule is this a picture of?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Lipid

d)

Carbohydrate

25.

​​​Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure 5.5?

a)

It is a hydrolysis reaction.

b)

It is a hydrolysis reaction and it results in a peptide bond.

c)

It results in a dehydration reaction that is breaking the two amino acids apart.

d)

It is a dehydration reaction that is joining two amino acids together.

26.

Polysaccharides are best described as:

a)

a complex molecules such as starches that are composed of many chains of sugar monomers

b)

chains of amino acids joined by peptide bonds

c)

molecules made of glycerol and three fatty acid chains

d)

a five- or six-carbon sugar molecule bonded to an aldehyde or ketone group.

27.
What macromolecule makes up the cell membrane's lining?
a)
Saturated Fatty acid chains
b)
Phospholipids
c)
Polypeptide chains
d)
Cellulose polysaccharide Chains
28.
DNA & RNA are examples of this type of macromolecule.
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
29.

Which macromolecule(s) have sulfur?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

30.

Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

31.
The name of the initial chain of monomers in a protein is called.....
a)
polypeptide
b)
polysaccharide
c)
polyester
d)
polynucleotide
32.
The two types of folding in the secondary structure are.....
a)
alpha-helix & beta-pleated sheets
b)
polypeptide & nucleotide
c)
globular & fibrous
33.
The tertiary structure folding in proteins is primary due to the interactions of....
a)
the 'R' groups
b)
the 'P' groups
c)
the 'A' groups
d)
the 'S'
34.

Genetic information stored in DNA is coded in...

a)

the directionality of the molecule

b)

the complementary base pairs

c)

the sugar phosphate backbone

d)

the sequence of bases in a single strand

35.

DNA and RNA nucleotides are added via dehydration synthesis forming ...

a)

helical structure

b)

ionic bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

36.

Substitution of amino acids in primary struture does not affect subsequent levels of protein folding.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

DNA and RNA have the same 5-carbon sugar and the same nucleotides.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

n the 1950s, the scientist Alfred Hershey and Marth Chase carried out an experiment using bacteriophages, which are viruese that infect bacteria. During the experiment, the scientists allowed bacteriophages that had been labeled with a radioactive element to infect the cells.


After carrying out their experiment, the scientists concluded that bacteriophages inject DAN, but not protein, into the host bacterial cell during infection.


To be able to reach this conclusion the scientists found which element inside the bacteria cells?

a)

radioactive carbon

b)

radioactive phosphorus

c)

radioactive hydrogen

d)

radioactive sulfur

39.

A scientist grew Chlorella, a single-celled photosynthetic algae, for three weeks in a laboratory culture. The culture medium contained dissolved carbon and other nutrients.


Scientists measured the beginning and the end of the three week period. Based on the results of the graph which nutriets were absent from the culture medium?

a)

phosphorus

b)

nitrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

sulfur

40.

A scientist grew Chlorella, a single-celled photosynthetic algae, for three weeks in a laboratory culture. The culture medium contained dissolved carbon and other nutrients.


Scientists measured the beginning and the end of the three week period. Based on the results of the graph which nutriets were absent from the culture medium?

a)

phosphorus

b)

nitrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

sulfur

41.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
42.
A ______________ is composed of a phosphate and glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails. 
a)
phospholipid 
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Cholesterol 
d)
Protein 
43.
Describes the arrangement of the cell membrane as bendable and made of many parts. 
a)
The Fluid Mosaic Model 
b)
The Major Mobility Model 
c)
The Crazy Cell Model
d)
The Maze Model
44.
___________ allow cells to recognize each other and act like ID tags. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
45.
___________ strengthens and stabilizes the cell membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
46.
___________ have 2 functions in the cell membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in. 
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
47.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
48.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
49.
Food is moved into the cell by ________________________.
a)
endocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
50.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
51.
A cell in a hypotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink 
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
52.
In what direction do particles naturally diffuse?
a)
Up the concentration gradient
b)
Down the concentration gradient
c)
Across the concentration gradient
d)
Over the river and through the woods
53.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
54.
Hydrophilic portion of cell membrane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
55.

When particles move from low to high concentration

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

56.
_______________  requires energy in the form of ATP
a)
Osmosis
b)
Active transport
c)
Facilitated diffusion
d)
Passive transport
57.
In facilitated diffusion, molecules will randomly move through the pores in ______________.
a)
Carrier proteins 
b)
Channel proteins
c)
Ion pumps
d)
All of the above
58.
Meaning "to drink"
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Phagocytosis
d)
Pinocytosis
59.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
60.

Your gums are swollen. How will rinsing with warm salt water help the swelling?

a)

swollen gums will absorb the salt

b)

salt lowers the temp

c)

salt goes against the concentration gradient

d)

water in the gums will diffuse out of the cells

61.
Which term is least closely related to the others?
a)
exocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
phagocytosis
62.
Using this image, what organelle is C?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Large Cell Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
63.
What is the function of the mitochondria?
a)
Structure that manufactures ribosomes
b)
Structures that converts nutrients to energy
c)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
d)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell
64.
What is the function of the vacuole?
a)
Sac that stores water, nutrients, and waste products
b)
Sac filled with digestive chemicals
c)
Jelly-like substance within the plasma membrane
d)
stack of membranes that packages chemicals
65.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
66.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
67.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
68.
Complex cell. Can be plant or animal. Contains membrane bound organelles. 
a)
Eukaryotic Cell
b)
Prokaryotic Cell
c)
Bacteria
d)
Blood cell
69.
What does this organism use for movement?
a)
Pseudopod
b)
Cilia
c)
Flagella
d)
legs
70.
Where are ribosomes produced?
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Golgi body
d)
Vessicle
71.
What is found in both plant and animal cells but is much larger in plant cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
72.
What organelle helps with cell digestion?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Complex
d)
ER
73.
Using this image, what organelle is D?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Flagella
c)
Rough ER
d)
Smooth ER
74.
Plant cells have ___ for cell to cell communication.
a)
gap junctions
b)
plasmodesmata
c)
desmosomes
d)
tight junctions
75.
What is the function of nucleus?
a)
Structure that organizes motion of chromosomes. 
b)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell 
c)
Membrane that surrounds and protects the cell 
d)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
76.
What is the difference between rough and smooth ER?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
77.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
78.

Where are lipids formed?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

79.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
80.

The difference in electric potential between the interior and the exterior of a cell is called:

a)

Concentration Difference

b)

Membrane Potential

c)

Cotransport

d)

Concentration Potential

81.

The combination of an ion's concentration gradient and membrane potential is called

a)

action potential

b)

electrochemical potential

c)

electrochemical gradient

d)

action gradient

82.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
83.
A ______________ is composed of a phosphate and glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails. 
a)
phospholipid 
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Cholesterol 
d)
Protein 
84.
Describes the arrangement of the cell membrane as bendable and made of many parts. 
a)
The Fluid Mosaic Model 
b)
The Major Mobility Model 
c)
The Crazy Cell Model
d)
The Maze Model
85.
___________ allow cells to recognize each other and act like ID tags. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
86.
___________ strengthens and stabilizes the cell membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
87.
___________ have 2 functions in the cell membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in. 
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
88.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
89.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
90.
Food is moved into the cell by ________________________.
a)
endocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
91.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
92.
A cell in a hypotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink 
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
93.
In what direction do particles naturally diffuse?
a)
Up the concentration gradient
b)
Down the concentration gradient
c)
Across the concentration gradient
d)
Over the river and through the woods
94.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
95.
Hydrophilic portion of cell membrane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
96.

When particles move from low to high concentration

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

97.
_______________  requires energy in the form of ATP
a)
Osmosis
b)
Active transport
c)
Facilitated diffusion
d)
Passive transport
98.
In facilitated diffusion, molecules will randomly move through the pores in ______________.
a)
Carrier proteins 
b)
Channel proteins
c)
Ion pumps
d)
All of the above
99.
Meaning "to drink"
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Phagocytosis
d)
Pinocytosis
100.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
101.

Your gums are swollen. How will rinsing with warm salt water help the swelling?

a)

swollen gums will absorb the salt

b)

salt lowers the temp

c)

salt goes against the concentration gradient

d)

water in the gums will diffuse out of the cells

102.
Which term is least closely related to the others?
a)
exocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
phagocytosis
103.
Using this image, what organelle is C?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Large Cell Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
104.
What is the function of the mitochondria?
a)
Structure that manufactures ribosomes
b)
Structures that converts nutrients to energy
c)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
d)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell
105.
What is the function of the vacuole?
a)
Sac that stores water, nutrients, and waste products
b)
Sac filled with digestive chemicals
c)
Jelly-like substance within the plasma membrane
d)
stack of membranes that packages chemicals
106.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
107.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
108.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
109.
Complex cell. Can be plant or animal. Contains membrane bound organelles. 
a)
Eukaryotic Cell
b)
Prokaryotic Cell
c)
Bacteria
d)
Blood cell
110.
What does this organism use for movement?
a)
Pseudopod
b)
Cilia
c)
Flagella
d)
legs
111.
Where are ribosomes produced?
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Golgi body
d)
Vessicle
112.
What is found in both plant and animal cells but is much larger in plant cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
113.
What organelle helps with cell digestion?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Complex
d)
ER
114.
Using this image, what organelle is D?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Flagella
c)
Rough ER
d)
Smooth ER
115.
Plant cells have ___ for cell to cell communication.
a)
gap junctions
b)
plasmodesmata
c)
desmosomes
d)
tight junctions
116.
What is the function of nucleus?
a)
Structure that organizes motion of chromosomes. 
b)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell 
c)
Membrane that surrounds and protects the cell 
d)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
117.
What is the difference between rough and smooth ER?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
118.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
119.

Where are lipids formed?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

120.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
121.

The difference in electric potential between the interior and the exterior of a cell is called:

a)

Concentration Difference

b)

Membrane Potential

c)

Cotransport

d)

Concentration Potential

122.

The combination of an ion's concentration gradient and membrane potential is called

a)

action potential

b)

electrochemical potential

c)

electrochemical gradient

d)

action gradient

123.

Enzymes ___________________ activation energy to speed up chemical reactions.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

124.

What is the relationship between an enzymes active site and its substrate?

a)

The active site has the right polarity to interact with the substrate.

b)

The active site is hydrophobic and interacts with other hydrophobic amino acids on the substrate

c)

The active site has a specific shape that fits the shape of the substrate

d)

The active site uses energy to form covalent bonds with the substrate

125.

How does a competitive inhibitor affect an enzymes function?

a)

It binds to an allosteric site that alters the shape of the enzyme

b)

It changes the polarity of the enzyme, decreasing the rate of reaction

c)

It denatures the enzyme which increases the activation energy for the reaction.

d)

It binds to the active site, preventing the enzyme from catalyzing the reaction

126.

Which of these factors can affect the initial rate of an enzyme reaction?

a)

Enzyme concentration

b)

Substrate concentration

c)

Temperature

d)

pH

e)

All of the above

127.

What effect does high temperature have on most enzymes reaction rates?

a)

High temperatures will speed up the enzyme's reaction rate

b)

High temperatures will stabilize the enzyme's reaction rate

c)

High temperatures will decrease enzyme reaction rates due to denaturation

d)

High temperatures do not affect enzyme reaction rates

128.

How does initial substrate concentration affect enzyme reaction rates?

a)

High concentration of substrates will inhibit enzyme reaction rates

b)

Low concentration of substrate will increase enzyme reaction rates

c)

High initial concentrations of substrate will increase the enzyme reaction rate

d)

Enzyme reaction rates are independent of substrate concentration

129.

In scientific experiments what is a control?

a)

The variable that is manipulated by the researcher

b)

A test that does not have the independent variable, to show a baseline with no reaction

c)

A test where the researcher does not know which sample contains which variable

d)

The variable that changes based on the experimental conditions

130.

What is chemiosmosis?

a)

The diffusion of electrons through the electron transport chain

b)

The breakdown of a glucose molecule

c)

The diffusion of protons down their concentration gradient

d)

The active transport of NADH into the mitochondria

131.

Why is chemiosmosis important to cellular respiration?

a)

It provides the energy needed to catabolize glucose

b)

It is the force that powers ATP synthase

c)

It provides the energy needed to breakdown pyruvate into carbon dioxide

d)

It generates the electrons needed for the electron transport chain

132.

Why is the hydrolysis of ATP important to a cells function?

a)

It provides a source of phosphate for the cell.

b)

It releases energy that can be used to power cellular processes

c)

It absorbs excess hydrogen ions in the cell to regulate the internal pH

d)

It acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the cell.

133.

Why do plants not store 100% of the light energy absorbed by chlorophyll in glucose molecules?

a)

Most of the energy is used to power the reaction or is lost as heat

b)

Plants do not have a high energy requirement, so they do not need to convert 100% of the energy

c)

The energy is used to power ATP synthase proteins on the thylakoid membrane

d)

The remaining energy is used actively transport oxygen out of the cell.

134.

What is the best reason that plants do not perform photosynthesis at night?

a)

They close their stomata at night to rest

b)

They do not have an energy source to power the light reactions

c)

Only a few types of plants are nocturnal

d)

There is less carbon dioxide released into the air at night

135.

What are the net products of photosynthesis?

a)

6 CO2, 6 H2O, Energy

b)

6 O2 and 6 H2O

c)

C6H12O6 and 6 O2

d)

6 CO2 and C6H12O6

136.

What factors affect the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

CO2 concentration

b)

H2O available

c)

Temperature

d)

Light intensity

e)

All of the above

137.

What powers the rotation of ATP synthase enzymes in mitochondria and chloroplasts?

a)

The energy absorbed during the light reactions.

b)

The electronegativity of oxygen

c)

Energy released by breaking the chemical bonds in glucose

d)

The diffusion of hydrogen

138.

How does a plant obtain the carbon necessary to form glucose?

a)

Through the light reactions

b)

From stored sugars in the roots of the plant

c)

From the catabolic breakdown of water

d)

Through CO2 absorbed from the atmosphere

139.

What products of the light reaction are directly needed by the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis?

a)

H ions and carbon dioxide

b)

Photons absorbed by chlorophyll

c)

FADH2 and Oxygen

d)

ATP and NADPH

140.

Which phase of photosynthesis produces organic sugars?

a)

The light reactions

b)

The Calvin cycle

c)

The link reaction

d)

Electron transport chain

141.

What are the products of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

Pyruvate, water, ATP, NADH

b)

Acetyl CoA, NADH

c)

NADH, FADH2, carbon dioxide, ATP

d)

ATP, glucose

142.

What are the products of glycolysis?

a)

Pyruvate, ATP, water, NADH

b)

Carbon dioxide, FADH2, NADH, ATP

c)

32 ATP

d)

NADPH and ATP

143.

What are the products of the light reaction of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen, NADPH, ATP

b)

Glucose, NADP, ADP

c)

Carbon dioxide, water, ATP

d)

Oxygen, FADH2, ATP

144.

What process creates the proton motive force in cellular respiration?

a)

The electron transport chain

b)

The hydrolysis of ATP

c)

Chemiosmosis

d)

The Citric Acid cycle

145.

What is the function of NAD in cellular respiration?

a)

It catalyzes the conversion of glucose into ATP

b)

It provides inorganic phosphate needed by ATP synthase

c)

It acts as an electron and proton acceptor to carry energy to the electron transport chain

d)

It is the coenzyme needed to convert glucose into pyruvate

146.

How are the ATP synthase enzymes in photosynthesis and cellular respiration similar?

a)

They both rely on chemiosmosis of hydrogens down a gradient to power phosphorylation

b)

They are both located in the cytoplasm of the cell

c)

They both use oxygen to create a concentration gradient

d)

They both receive hydrogen ions from FADH2

147.

When will lactic acid build up in animal cells?

a)

When there is excess carbon dioxide

b)

When the cells produce too much ATP

c)

When there is not enough oxygen to fuel the mitochondria

d)

When the cells need to remove excess oxygen to avoid damaging their components.

148.

Based on this graph, which enzyme would function best in a basic environment?

a)

A

b)

B

149.

To prevent wasting energy and resources to create un-needed ATP, cellular respiration pathways can be shut down

a)

Using positive feedback in the krebs cycle

b)

Using positive feedback in glycolysis

c)

Using negative feedback in glycolysis

d)

Using negative feedback in krebs cycle

150.
How is a molecule reduced?
a)
electrons are given to the molecule
b)
electrons are taken from the molecule
c)
money is taken from the molecule
d)
protons are given to the molecule
151.
How is a molecule oxidized?
a)
Electrons are added to the molecule
b)
Electrons are taken from the molecule
c)
Electrons are shared with the molecule
d)
Protons are added to the molecule
152.
Which of the following correctly describes how enzymes work?  
a)
they lower the energy of the reactants to increase the rxn rate
b)
they supply energy to the reaction to increase the rxn rate
c)
they lower the energy of the products to increase the rxn rate
d)
they lower the activation energy of the reaction to increase the rxn rate
153.
Which process is the largest contributor to the release of CO
a)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
154.

If ADP is phosphorylated in the presence of oxygen, this is known as

a)

Substrate Level Phosphorylation

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Photophosphorylation

155.
After 5 glucose molecules have been broken down in the cell, which pH value would most likely present the in matrix of the mitochondria. 
a)
6
b)
2
c)
4
d)
7
156.
When NADH is reduced and oxidized, which response best describes what is lost or gained? 
a)
only Electrons 
b)
2 stable Hydrogen atoms 
c)
Pair of electrons 
d)
2 ATP 
157.
Pyruvate Oxidation creates a specific numbered carbon molecule at the end of it's process. What is the number of carbons for this molecule? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
6
d)
1
158.

A. Photons excite the electrons of PS I

B. Photons excite the electrons of PSII

C. Electrons travel along the ETC, allowing for the pumping of a proton

D. NADP + is reduced to NADPH


What is correct sequence of events?

a)

A, C, B, D

b)

B, C, A, D

c)

A, B, C, D

d)

C, A, B, D

159.

Photorespiration is a modification in

a)

C3 plants

b)

C4 plants

c)

CAM plants

160.

Spatial separation of steps of the calvin cycle is a modification of

a)

C3 plants

b)

C4 plants

c)

CAM plants

161.

Temporal separation of steps of the calvin cycle is a modification of

a)

C3 plants

b)

C4 plants

c)

CAM plants

162.

Cyclic photosynthesis occurs because

a)

Temperature levels are too high in the environment.

b)

Eukaryotes are only capable of cyclic photosynthesis.

c)

As an evolutionary mechanism to prevent light damage.

d)

All bacteria are only capable of cyclic photosynthesis.

163.

Plants absorb many wavelengths of light to obtain energy. Some of these wavelengths that provide maximum energy transference include

a)

Green and Red

b)

Violet and Red

c)

Blue and Green

d)

Red and Orange

164.

In a monohybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

165.

In a monohybrid cross of incomplete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

166.

In a dihybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

167.

In a population of 100 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous dominant in a cross between a homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive parent?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

168.

In a population of 200 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous recessive in a cross between a heterozygous and a homozygous recessive parent?

a)

0

b)

50

c)

100

d)

150

e)

200

169.

In an incomplete dominance cross between a white flower and a red flower, what is the probability of a pink offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

170.

In a complete dominance cross between a white, terminal (recessive) and red, axial (dominant) flower, what is the probability of a red, axial offspring?

a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

9/16

d)

16/16

171.

In a cross between an individual with type A blood and an individual with type B blood, what is the probability of an offspring with type O blood?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

172.

In a cross between two roan cows (codominant), what is the probability of a white cow?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

2/4

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

173.

Identify which of the following descriptions about dominance are correct

a)

Incomplete dominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same

b)

Incomplete dominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits

c)

Codominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits

d)

Codominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same