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Worksheets

Semester Two Piestch FInal

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 2hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select those exercises that are most beneficial for a person with DMD.

a)

Biking

b)

Walking

c)

Weightlifting

d)

Swimming

e)

Running

2.

The contractive unit of a muscle is shown below. It is called a (an):

a)

Muscle fiber

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Fascicle

d)

Hypertrophy

3.

The term for muscles decreasing in size after exercising is:

a)

Hyperrtrophy

b)

Atrophy

c)

Dystrophy

d)

Sarcomere

4.

Select the function of proteins from the selections below.

a)

Structure for an organism

b)

Movement & building muscle

c)

Chemical messengers

d)

Immune defense & Transport

e)

Helps with biochemical reactions inside & outside cells

5.

When muscles are not used, they decrease in size. This is known as:

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Dystrophy

c)

Atrophy

d)

Sarcomere

6.

The correct organization of a muscle from largest to smallest is:

a)

Myofibril - Muscle fiber - Fascicle - Muscle

b)

Muscle fiber - Fascicle - Muscle - Myofibril

c)

Fascicle - Muscle - Muscle fiber - Myofibril

d)

Muscle - Fascicle - Muscle fiber - Myofibril

7.

Which two proteins are important to muscles and muscle contractions?

a)

Actin and myosin

b)

Fascicle and myofibril

c)

Cardiac and skeletal

d)

Skeletal and smooth

8.

Which of the following are types of muscle tissue found in the human body? Select all that apply.

a)

Smooth

b)

Nervous

c)

Cardiac

d)

Connective

e)

Skeletal

9.

Which is true of DMD? Check all that apply.

a)

It is seen more in females than males.

b)

It is seen more in males than females.

c)

The disorder progresses over time.

d)

It is a genetic disorder passed down from one/both parents.

10.

Muscles are divided into large sections known as ____________ which contain smaller muscle fibers within them.

a)

Myofibrils

b)

Fascicles

c)

Sarcomeres

d)

Tendons

11.

Look at the enzyme complex diagram below. Which part of the diagram is the ENZYME-SUBSTRATE COMPLEX?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

12.

What protein filament is being identified by the red arrow below?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Titin

d)

Dystrophin

13.

When a person has two alleles for a trait that are identical (HH, hh), they are said to be ____________ for that trait.

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Carrier

14.

Every normal human has ____ chromosomes. The sex chromosome configuration for a male is ____.

a)

44; XX

b)

44; XY

c)

46; XX

d)

46; XY

e)

2; XY

15.

Look at the enzyme complex diagram delow. Which part of the diagram is the ACTIVE SITE of the enzyme?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

16.

Which of the following is not a protein found in human muscles?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Sarcolemma

d)

Creatine

e)

Dystrophin

17.

How does a person get DMD?

a)

Mutated gene on the Y chromosome usually passed down from the father.

b)

Mutated gene on the X chromosome usually passed down from the mother.

c)

Muatated gene that occurs early in life from an unknown mutagen (anything that causes a mutation).

d)

A person gets DMD from being inactive early in life and never recovers from the disease.

18.

The protein filament shown below by the red arrow is:

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Titin

d)

Dystrophin

19.

What is the importance of enzymes to our digestive system?

a)

Enzymes control the temperature for digestion process to occur normally.

b)

Enzymes help with absorption of the molecules into your blood.

c)

Enzymes help speed up the process of breaking down the food.

d)

Enzymes block nutrients from leaving your body.

20.

Look at the enzyme complex diagram below. Which part of the diagram is showing the SUBSTRATES?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

21.

Look at the enzyme complex diagram below. Which part of the diagram is showing the PRODUCTS after the enzyme does its' job?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

22.

What is DMD?

a)

Dytrophy Muscle Dysfuntion

b)

Disabled Muscular Disease

c)

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

d)

Dysfunctional Muscle Disease

23.

Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins in our body?

a)

Structural

b)

Contractile

c)

Enzymes

d)

Temperature regulation

24.

Patients with DMD lack which muscle protein?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Creatine

d)

Dystrophin

25.

When a person has two different alleles for a given trait, they are said to be ___________ for that trait.

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Phenotype

d)

Genotype

26.

How are chromosomes inherited?

a)

Each offspring inherits a randon number of chromosomes from each parent.

b)

Male offspring inherit their chromosomes from their mothers.

c)

Female offspring inherit their chromosomes from their fathers.

d)

Each offspring inherits half of their chromosomes from each parent.

27.

How many generations are shwon in the pedigree below?

a)

12

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

28.

Using letter A and a, what is the genotype of Person 2?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

29.

Person 2 has a child with someone heterozygous for Huntington's Disease. Use a Punnett Square to determine the chance that their offspring woujld have Huntington's Disease.

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

30.

How is DMD inherited mostly/all by boys?

a)

DMD is autosomal dominant and males typically inherit more dominant alleles than females.

b)

DMD is sex-linked on the Y chromosome and males are the only gender with a Y chromosome.

c)

DMD is sex-linked on the X chromosome and inherit the allele from their carrier mother.

31.

Select all the cell types that are produced from the process shown below.

a)

Hair

b)

Bone

c)

Blood

d)

Sperm

e)

Egg

32.

Select each choice that represents a homozygous genotype.

a)

AA

b)

Bb

c)

cc

d)

DD

e)

Ee

33.

Approximately how many genes do humans have?

a)

10,000

b)

20,000

c)

30,000

d)

40,000

34.

What is a gene?

a)

The entire sequence of human DNA made of A,T,C,G.

b)

A segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein.

c)

A entire condensed strand of DNA.

35.

What process is shown below?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Crossing over

d)

Independent assortment

36.

Using X and Y chromosomes, and letters H and h, what is the genotype of Person 1?

a)

XH Xh

b)

XH XH

c)

XH Yh

d)

Xh Yh

37.

What process is shown below?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Crossing over

d)

Independent assortment

38.

Using letters H and h, what is the genotype of Person 2?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

39.

What type of inheritance pattern is seen in the pedigree below?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Sex-linked recessive

d)

Sex-linked dominant

40.

Purple pea flowers are dominant to white. Select all genotypes that would result in purple pea flowers.

a)

PP

b)

pp

c)

Pp

d)

P

e)

p

41.

Select all the cell types that are produced from the process shown below.

a)

Hair

b)

Bone

c)

Blood

d)

Sperm

e)

Muscle

42.

What type of inheritance pattern is seen in the pedigree below?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Sex-linked recessive

d)

Sex-linked dominant

43.

What percentage of human DNA nucleotides actually code for the production of proteins?

a)

1.5%

b)

99%

c)

98.5%

d)

10%

44.

In guinea pigs, short hair is dominant to long hair. Cross two heterozygous guinea pigs. What percentage of guinea pigs would we expect to have long hair?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

45.

What gametes join together and combine chromosomes, the resulting cell is called a (an):

a)

Germline cell

b)

Gamete

c)

Zygote

d)

Allele

46.

Using the Punnett square below, if T = Tall and t = short, what percentage of offspring would we expect to be tall?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

3/4

47.

What process in Meiosis is shown below?

a)

Independent assortment

b)

Crossing over

c)

Homologous chromosomes

d)

Female chromosomes

48.

Select the somatic cells below.

a)

Hair

b)

Bone

c)

Blood

d)

Muscle

e)

Sperm

49.

Which image below represents the protein in the whole process?

a)

E

b)

F

c)

G

d)

H

50.

The molecule shown below is:

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

51.

The process of making mRNA strand from DNA in the nucleus is called:

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Amino acids

d)

Replication

52.

Which base is NOT found on an RNA strand?

a)

A

b)

T

c)

C

d)

G

e)

U

53.

How many different types of amino acids are produces by the human body?

a)

Hundreds and hundreds

b)

99

c)

20

d)

Thousands

54.

Which of the following base sequences is used to determine amino acids inside our cells?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

GTA

55.

Which base is NOT found on a DNA strand?

a)

A

b)

T

c)

C

d)

G

e)

U

56.

Which image represents the amino acid?

a)

B

b)

E

c)

F

d)

H

57.

What is the correct complimentary base pair for RNA of the choices below?

a)

A - T

b)

A - C

c)

U - A

d)

G - A

58.

What is the molecule shown below?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Thymine

59.

What amino acid is coded by the bases AGU?

a)

Arginine

b)

Serine

c)

Lysine

d)

Asparagine

60.

Which of the following is NOT a difference between DNA and RNA?

a)

DNA contains the base Thymine; RNA contains the base Uracil

b)

DNA is double stranded; RNA is single stranded

c)

DNA codes for proteins; RNA codes for carbohydrates

d)

DNA contains the sugar Deoxyribose; RNA contains the sugar Ribose

61.

What amino acid chain is coded by the bases:

GGG UUU CCC AAA

a)

Glycine - Phenylalanine - Proline - Lysine

b)

Glycine - Alanine - Arginine - Methionine

c)

Proline - Lysine - Valine - Leucine

d)

Methionine - Isoleucine - Glutamine - Histidine

62.

There are three types of RNA involved in gene expresson. Which one is NOT an RNA type below?

a)

nRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

63.

Three bases on a tRNA strand are called a (an):

a)

Codon

b)

Anti-codon

c)

Amino acid

d)

Nitrogen base

64.

Which amino acid sequence is correct for the given bases?

a)

Arginine - Tyrosine - Lysine

b)

Alanine - Methionine - Phenylalanine

c)

Arginine - Asparagine - Lysine

d)

Proline - Isoleucine - Serine

65.

Which image represents the codon?

a)

G

b)

H

c)

I

d)

J

66.

On which RNA strand do we find three letter code words known as "codons"?

a)

nRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

67.

How many chromosomes does a haploid cell have in comparison to a diploid cell?

a)

Half the amount

b)

Double the amount

c)

Same amount

d)

Zero

68.

Select all the cell types that are produced from the process shown below.

a)

Hair

b)

Bone

c)

Blood

d)

Sperm

e)

Egg

69.

What is a gene?

a)

The entire sequence of human DNA made of A, T, C, G.

b)

A segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein.

c)

An entire condensed strand of DNA.

70.

When gametes join together and combine chromosomes, the resulting cell is called a (an):

a)

Germline cell

b)

Gamete

c)

Zygote

d)

Allele

71.

Select the somatic cells below.

a)

Hair

b)

Bone

c)

Blood

d)

Egg

e)

Muscle

72.

Somatic cells go through the process of ________ to produce new body cells while our reproductive organs go through ________ to produce new sex cells.

a)

DNA replication; Mitosis

b)

Meiosis; Mitosis

c)

Mitosis; Karyotype

d)

Mitosis; Meiosis

73.

Which of the following is an example of a haploid cell?

a)

Blood cell

b)

Muscle cell

c)

Sperm cell

d)

Hair cell

74.

Select all the cell types that are produced from the process shown below.

a)

Hair

b)

Bone

c)

Blood

d)

Muscle

e)

Sperm

75.

Approximately how many genes do humans have?

a)

10,000

b)

20,000

c)

30,000

d)

40,000

76.

What process in Meiosis is shown below?

a)

Independent assortment

b)

Crossing over

c)

Homologous chromosomes

d)

Female chromosomes

77.

How many chromosomes are in a human sperm cell?

a)

46

b)

44

c)

23

d)

2

78.

Select the gametes below.

a)

Ovaries

b)

Sperm

c)

Testes

d)

Eggs

e)

Blood

79.

What process is shown below?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Crossing over

d)

Independent assortment

80.

How are chromosomes inherited?

a)

Each offspring inherits a random number of chromosomes from each parent.

b)

Male offspring inherit their chromosomes from their mothers.

c)

Female offspring inherit their chromosomes from their fathers.

d)

Each offspring inherits half of their chromosomes from each parent.

81.

How many autosomes do we have in each somatic cell?

a)

46

b)

2

c)

44

d)

1

82.

Looking at the karyotype, what gender is this patient?

a)

Male

b)

Female

83.

A mutation that has neither a positive or negative effect on an organism's survival rate is called a (an):

a)

Harmful mutation

b)

Beneficial mutation

c)

Neutral mutation

84.

If the 5th base of the original strand of DNA with bases AATTGAACACATGCGCCC was changed from a G to a C, what type of mutation would this be an example of?

a)

Chromosome

b)

Point

c)

Frameshift

d)

Nondisjunction

85.

Which type of chromosome mutation results in changing the size of the chromosome and causing multiple copies of a gene to occur?

a)

Duplication

b)

Translocation

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Point

86.

Which type of mutation appears to more likely lead to DMD?

a)

Silent

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

d)

Nondisjunction

87.

You have a DNA sequence that codes for a protein and is 126 bases long. A frameshift mutation occurs at the 100th base. How many amino acids will be unaffected in this protein chain and remain in the correct order?

a)

99

b)

35

c)

2

d)

33

88.

The two main types of mutations are:

a)

Gene & Chromosome mutations

b)

DNA & Meiosis mutations

c)

Meiosis & Gene mutations

d)

Chromosome & DNA mutations

89.

If a G were added to the original DNA strand with bases AATTGAACACATGCGCCC after the 3rd base, what type of mutation would this be an example of?

a)

Chromosome

b)

Point

c)

Frameshift

d)

Nondisjunction

90.

Which type of chromosome mutation results in chromosomes not separating correctly and resulting in too many or not enough chromosomes in each sex cell?

a)

Duplication

b)

Translocation

c)

Nondisjuction

d)

Frameshift

91.

What is a mutation?

a)

A disorder

b)

When a person has supernatural powers

c)

Any change in DNA sequence

d)

Anything that causes cancer

92.

A substitution of one DNA/RNA base for another is an example of which type of mutation?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Point

c)

Additon

d)

Deletion

93.

An addition or deletion of a DNA/RNA base causes which type of mutation?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Point

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

94.

Which is an example of where mitosis would occur? Select all that apply.

a)

Development of sperm cells

b)

Grass growing

c)

Development of egg cells

d)

Broken bone healing

e)

Formation of new blood cells

95.

When pairing up chromosomes to make a karyotype, which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to determine matching chromosomes?

a)

Length of chromosome

b)

Placement of their centromeres

c)

Location and size of the G-bands

d)

Base pairing sequences

96.

A diagram that shows the number and appearance of chromosomes in a cell is called a (an):

a)

Amino acid

b)

Nucleus

c)

Karyotype

d)

Centromere

97.

Using a scratch sheet of paper, determine which two mRNA sequences below code for the same protein.

mRNA #1: UCG CUA GCG ACC AGU UCA

mRNA #2: AGC CUC GCC ACU CGU AGU

mRNA #3: AGU UUA GCA ACG AGA UCA

mRNA #4: AGC CUA GCC AAC CAU UCC

a)

mRNA #1 & mRNA #2

b)

mRNA #2 & mRNA #3

c)

mRNA 3 & nRNA #4

d)

mRNA #1 & mRNA #4

98.

Are mutations ALWAYS bad?

a)

Yes

b)

No

99.

In the opening video for L1 on DMD, select all choices that are true about the people in the video:

a)

Many were happy and able to perform daily activities

b)

They were all boys

c)

They were all unable to walk and take care of themselves

d)

The disease was different for each individucal

e)

Many were in wheelchairs

100.

In our analogy for what is happening in DMD patients, what structure served as our "boat anchor" attaching from the sarcolemma to the inside of the myofibril?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Dystrophin

d)

Creatine

101.

A decrease in muscle size due to lack of use is:

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Atrophy

c)

Dystrophy

d)

Dystrophin

102.

Myofibrils are made up of small, contractile units known as:

a)

Muscle fibers

b)

Muscles

c)

Sarcomeres

d)

Flexors

103.

Patients with DMD lack which muscle protein?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Creatine

d)

Dystrophin

104.

Which of the following explanation is best to explain why it is important for a person to consume protein if/when they are actively working out?

a)

Muscles require protein as energy to do the work.

b)

The filaments involved in contractions are made up of proteins.

c)

It helps them breathe easier during workouts.

d)

Protein helps a person sleep better so they recover after workouts.

105.

Which is the best explanation/definition for "dystrophy"?

a)

An increase in muscle size.

b)

A decrease in muscle size due to lack of use.

c)

A decrease in muscle size after direct use.

d)

A temporary increase in muscle size.

106.

What are the two primary proteins involved in a muscle contraction within a sarcomere?

a)

Actin & Titin

b)

Myosin & Dystrophin

c)

Actin & Myosin

d)

Titin & Dystrophin

107.

How does a person get DMD?

a)

Mutated gene on the Y chromosome usually passed down from the father.

b)

Mutated gene on the X chromosome usually passed down from the mother.

c)

Mutated gene that occurs early in life from an unknown mutagen (anything that causes a mutation)

d)

A person gets DMD from being inactive early in life and never recovers from the disease.

108.

After realizing that no antibiotics were working for the second infection, the doctor informed Addie's mother that the bacterial infection was _________ resistant, meaning it was resistant to ALL antibiotics.

a)

MRSA

b)

All

c)

Omni

d)

Pan

109.

Select those reason why The Human Genome Project was so important to science.

a)

Genes that caused diseases were identified

b)

Genetic tests were discovered to identify disorders

c)

Better medicine/treatments were created

110.

While on the life support machine, Addie got a much more serious bacterial infection. The bacteria was:

a)

Stenotrophomonas

b)

MRSA

c)

Methicillin

d)

Stapholococcus

111.

Who get credited for the discovery of DNA in most science books?

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

Mark Watney

d)

Teddy Sanders

112.

Addie's initial illness was caused by which type of bacterial infection?

a)

E. coli

b)

Strep throat

c)

MRSA

113.

Addie's first symptom that something was wrong was:

a)

A fever

b)

Stomach pain

c)

Vomiting

d)

Hip pain

114.

By the end of the video, Addie was told by doctors that she wasn't a "good candidate" for a lung transplant. Why did doctors say this to her family?

a)

Addie's lungs were as good as the donor lungs.

b)

The lungs were from a younger donor and Addie was too old.

c)

The bacteria in Addie's body would destroy the new lungs.

d)

Her mother's insurance couldn't cover the cost of the surgery.

115.

Select all examples of genetics engineering used in/on organisms.

a)

Glofish used to detect water pollution

b)

Growing foods in large quantities

c)

Growing food that take longer to spoil

d)

Growing foods that have added mutrients

116.

As things worsened from Addie's initial illness, she was put on a machine to help remove carbon dioxide from her blood while replenishing it with oxygen. This machine is known as a/an:

a)

MRSA

b)

ECMO

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Lung transplant

117.

The second bacterial infection came from:

a)

Too many doctors handling Addie without properly sanitizing prior.

b)

The nursing staff.

c)

The tubes of the life support machine.

d)

Leftover bacteria from the initial infection.

118.

During the video, we notice a pattern of Addie getting slightly better, the worse, then slightly better, then worse again and repeating this pattern multiple times. The pattern was most likely caused by:

a)

Doctors providing the incorrect medicine and changing it.

b)

Bacteria becoming resistant to the antibiotics the doctors were giving her.

c)

Addie not comfortably resting and trying to do too much in the hospital.

d)

Too many doctor were trying to help her and their treatments were always different for different doctors.

119.

From the articles, all of the following are mentioned to help stop the spread of MRSA except:

a)

Shower/bathe regularly

b)

Do not share drinks with others

c)

Wash hands with soap/water

d)

Do not share unwashed towels

120.

According to the graph below, which antibiotics are most at-risk of not being effective against resistant strains of bacteria? Check all that apply.

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Penicillin

c)

Bacitracin

d)

Tetracycline

e)

Vancomycin

121.

From our readings, which type of material tested with the highest levels of bacteria?

a)

Metal

b)

Vinyl

c)

Cloth

d)

Rubber

e)

Concrete

122.

Some bacteria can reproduce in 20 minutes. How many of these bacteria would there be from one parent after three hours of time?

a)

128

b)

256

c)

512

d)

1024

123.

What is MRSA?

a)

The name of the antibiotic used to kill bacteria

b)

Methicillin-resistant Stapholococcus aureus

c)

Stenotrophomonas

d)

Millions of Resistant Small Animals

124.

What type of growth curve do we see in the graph?

a)

Logistic

b)

Exponential

c)

Stimulated

d)

Mathematical

125.

According to the study associated with the graph below, what surfaces on the sampled bus/train had the highest likelihood for contracting a bacterial infection?

a)

Under the seats

b)

On the windows

c)

On the floors and seats

d)

On the armrests and handrails

126.

How many MRSA hospitalizations (per 1,000 hospitalizations) were there in the year 2000?

a)

Approx. 3

b)

Approx. 4

c)

Approx. 40

d)

Approx. 400

127.

Based on these numbers below, what is the survival rate if someone contracts an antibiotic-resistant bacterial infection?

a)

5% or less

b)

50% survival rate

c)

90% or less

d)

95% or greater

128.

Risk for contracting MRSA increases in/at all of the following situations EXCEPT:

a)

Crowded areas

b)

Sharing of equipment

c)

Skin to skin contact with others

d)

Athletic facilities

e)

Doing homework in my room

129.

Which of the following is a method by which bacteria reproduce?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Sexual reproduction

c)

Binary fission

d)

Nondisjunction

130.

For one bacterium, how many new cells will it form when it reproduces?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

131.

In the chart below, what does it mean that a variation of bacteria is "resistant" to antibiotics?

a)

It means that antibiotics work effectively to kill bacteria.

b)

It means that antibiotics do not kill the bacteria.

c)

It means that certain types of antibiotics must be used.

132.

What quadrant of our Petri dish did we place the swab directly from the surface of the area we chose to test at YLHS?

a)

Quadrant A

b)

Quadrant B

c)

Quadrant C

d)

Quadrant D

133.

Which of the following bacteria cells would we expect to increase in number and be most resistant to antibiotics?

a)

Purple

b)

Green

c)

Brown

d)

Red

134.

Which type of cells remember the antigens so the immune system can fight off the pathogen faster?

a)

B-cells

b)

T-cells

c)

Memory cells

d)

Macrophages

135.

Which line of defense would fevers fall into?

a)

1st line of defense

b)

2nd line of defense

c)

3rd line of defense

d)

4th line of defense

136.

Which quadrant of our Petri dish SHOULD have the least amount of bacteria and mold growth?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

137.

What is the function of the B-cells as part of our last line of defense against the pathogens?

a)

Located and destroy any infected host cell.

b)

Create antibodies to prevent future infections.

c)

Release histamine to create redness & swelling.

d)

To trap pathogens and sweep them out with cilia.

138.

Which quadrant of our Petri dish did we place the swab used to sample our hand after washing/sanitizing after touching the surface of our tested area?

a)

Quadrant A

b)

Quadrant B

c)

Quadrant C

d)

Quadrant D

139.

Which quadrant of our Petri dish served as the control for out experiment?

a)

Quadrant A

b)

Quadrant B

c)

Quadrant C

d)

Quadrant D

140.

Select all the environmental conditions that bacteria reproduce best in.

a)

Warm/hot temperatures

b)

Sunlight

c)

Darkness

d)

Moist

e)

Dry

141.

When a macrophage touches a pathogen, what does it do to the pathogen?

a)

Reproduces with it.

b)

Eats it.

c)

Identifies it.

d)

Makes holes in the cell membrane.

142.

Select the pathogens listed below.

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungus

d)

Parasites

e)

Vaccines

143.

Select all those that are pat of the 1st line of defense for our immune system.

a)

Skin

b)

Mucus

c)

Cilia

d)

Inflammation

e)

T-cells

144.

Which quadrant appears to have the greatest number of bacteria colonies?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

145.

Which quadrant of our Petri dish did we place the swab used to sample our hand after touching the surface of our tested are but before we washed/sanitized our hand?

a)

Quadrant A

b)

Quadrant B

c)

Quadrant C

d)

Quadrant D

146.

Which of the following is NOT a white blood cell?

a)

Macrophage

b)

T-cells

c)

B-cells

d)

Platelet

147.

Which type of natural selection is occurring when the average/intermediate form of a phenotype is favored in the environment?

a)

Stabilizing selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Disruptive selection

d)

Various selection

148.

The chart below measures the whiteness of the tail feathers in Juncos. What statement below is the most true?

a)

Females had more whiteness in their tail feathers than males.

b)

UCSD Juncos had more whiteness in their tail feathers than Mt. Laguna Juncos.

c)

Males had less whiteness in their tail feathers than females.

d)

Mt. Laguna Juncos had more whiteness in their tail feathers for both sexed than UCSD Juncos.

149.

From the video The Beak of the Finch, where the Grant's retraced the footsteps of Charles Darwin on the Galapagos Islands, what type of finches were favored after the drought of 1977 and what type of food source was available to help these birds?

a)

Large beak; large seeds

b)

Small beak; small seeds

c)

Medium beak; cactus plants

150.

Which type of natural selection shows one extreme version of a phenotype is favored in the environment?

a)

Stabilizing selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Disruptive selection

d)

Various selection

151.

The process where organisms with useful traits/adaptations for their environment have a survival advangtage & reproduce with more offspring to pass on these traits is known as:

a)

Evolution

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic variation

d)

Mutations

152.

The process where organisms with useful traits/adaptations for their environment have a survival advatage & reproduce with more offspring to pass on these traits is known as:

a)

Evolution

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic variation

d)

Mutations

153.

After the drought of 1977 on the Galapagos Islands, in 1983 there was rain for 40 days straight. What type of finches were favored during this time period?

a)

Large beak

b)

Medium beak

c)

Small beak

154.

What conclusion can be made regarding wing size between Junco samples from UCSD and Mt. Laguna?

a)

UCSD male Juncos have longer wings that Mt. Laguna make Juncos.

b)

Mt. Laguna Juncos have shorter wings for both males and females.

c)

UCSD Juncos have shorter wings for both males and females.

d)

Mt. Laguna females have short wings and males have longer wings than their UCSD counterparts.

155.

Most human traits are controlled by two or more genes like height, hair color, eye color, and skin color. Which type of inheritance pattern does this describe?

a)

Polygenic inheritance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Codominance

156.

What organism did Charles Darwin study most while on the Galapagos Islands?

a)

Iguanas

b)

Finches

c)

Juncos

d)

Seagulls

157.

Which inheritance pattern has two alleles equally expressed in the phenotype?

a)

Polygenic inheritance

b)

Incomplete domianance

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Codominance

158.

What type of inheritance pattern is explained below?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Pure dominance

159.

Which hormone is typically released when under stress and was studied in the Junco experiment?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Estrogen

c)

Testosterone

d)

Cortisol

160.

What were noticeable physical differences with the UCSD Juncos as compared to the Mt. Laguna Juncos?

a)

More head black

b)

Less head black

c)

Shorter wings

d)

More white tail feathers

e)

Less white tail feathers

161.

What molecules are shown below in the circle and *?

a)

Vescicles

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Synapses

d)

Dendrites

162.

Which division of the nervous system controls our "fight or flight" emergency response?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Sensory nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

163.

The "master" glad of the endocrine system that controls/regulates many other glands/organs of the body is the:

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Pineal gland

c)

Adrenal gland

164.

Which structure below is are dendrites, structures that receive information for a nerve cell?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

165.

A 16-year-old high school student has been feeling persistently sad and unmotivated for the past several months. She struggles to concentrate in class, has lost interest in hobbies she once enjoyed, and often feels hopeless. She also has trouble sleeping and experiences changes in her appetite. Her doctor suspects that her brain may not be producing enough of a neurotransmitter responsible for mood regulation and emotional stability.

What hormone is probably the cause of this?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Endorphins

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Serotonin

166.

Which structure(s) represent the acon terminal; the last part of the neuron to receive/transmit a signal?

a)

F

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

167.

What type of cell is Osmosis Jones?

a)

Red blood cell

b)

White blood cell

c)

Lymphatic cell

d)

Skin cell

168.

Which branch of the nervous system do humans voluntarily control?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Autonomic nervous system

c)

Sensory nervous system

169.

Which male Junco must be the father of the offspring?

a)

Male 3

b)

Male 7

c)

Male 11

d)

Male 14

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