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EMR PRACTICE EXAM #2

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

How does defibrillation work?

a)

It temporarily stops blood flow through a weak heart

b)

It circulates blood until the heart is restored to good health.

c)

It stuns the heart to stop ventricular fibrillation.

d)

It restarts the heart and creates a new rhythm.

2.

During CPR, what is the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths in adults?

a)

10 compressions, 1 breaths

b)

15 compressions, 2 breaths

c)

30 compressions, 2 breaths

d)

2 compressions, 1 breath

3.

Finding a radial pulse in an infant is difficult, so a ________ pulse is more commonly taken.

a)

femoral

b)

brachial

c)

carotid

d)

pedal

4.

Cyanosis is a sign of:

a)

liver disease.

b)

distress.

c)

high fever.

d)

severe hypoxia.

5.

The “P” in SAMPLE history stands for:

a)

past medical history.

b)

pharmaceuticals used.

c)

present illnesses.

d)

primary complaint.

6.

The general assessment technique that involves feeling patients with one’s hands is called:

a)

auscultating.

b)

observation.

c)

palpating.

d)

scanning.

7.

Accessory muscle use in the neck is an indication of:

a)

high blood pressure.

b)

blood backing up from the heart.

c)

neck injury.

d)

difficulty breathing

8.

In the mnemonic OPQRST, used to assist with the evaluation of a patient in discomfort, the “P” stands for:

a)

Pulse.

b)

Palpitation.

c)

Pain.

d)

Provocation.

9.

An Emergency Medical Responder is sent on a call for a patient who complains of chest congestion and a cough that brings up sputum. The patient also has a fever, feels weak, and complains of pain in the chest. Based on this information, what seems to be the most likely problem?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Chronic bronchitis

10.

Which type of seizure affects the entire brain and has very noticeable symptoms?

a)

Tonic

b)

Petit mal

c)

Partial

d)

Generalized

11.

While waiting for responding emergency medical technicians (EMTs) to arrive at the scene, you are caring for an industrial plant worker who was exposed to dry lime. The patient's arms are covered with lime and he complains of intense pain. You should:

a)

flush the patient's entire body with large amounts of water and then cover his arms with dry bandages.

b)

provide psychological support to the patient and wait for the responding paramedics to arrive at the scene.

c)

leave the patient's clothes on and continuously flush both of his extremities for at least 15 minutes.

d)

have the patient remove his clothes, brush off the dry lime, and wash the affected area for at least 20 minutes.

12.

In general, a hypothermic patient should not be considered dead until:

a)

his or her body temperature is raised above 85°F (29°C).

b)

muscle stiffness occurs and a pulse is absent.

c)

he or she is rewarmed at an appropriate hospital.

d)

cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been performed for at least 10 minutes.

13.

Which type of burn may be caused by overexposure to the sun?

a)

Radiation

b)

Electrical

c)

Thermal

d)

Chemical

14.

Why is it important to remove jewelry before bandaging a wound?

a)

So the circulation will not be hindered

b)

So that jewelry will not be damaged

c)

So that the wound is not contaminated

d)

So that the wound can be unobstructed

15.

Abrasions result in ____ bleeding.

a)

profuse

b)

capillary

c)

venous

d)

arterial

16.

Impaired tissue perfusion caused by widespread infection of the blood and invasion of microorganisms in the

body is known which of the following?

a)

Anaphylactic shock

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Septic shock

d)

Neurogenic shock

17.

To control external bleeding from an extremity, first:

a)

splint the bleeding part.

b)

apply direct pressure.

c)

elevate the extremity.

d)

use a pressure point.

18.

Most musculoskeletal injuries involve:

a)

cardiac muscle.

b)

smooth muscles.

c)

skeletal muscles.

d)

involuntary muscles.

19.

A football player was injured during a rough tackle. He complains of severe neck pain but is conscious and alert and breathing without difficulty. His helmet, which fits snugly, is still on. You should:

a)

carefully remove the helmet by gently sliding it from his head as your partner supports his head and neck.

b)

leave the helmet on, manually stabilize the head, and monitor his airway until responding paramedics arrive.

c)

manually stabilize his head, monitor his breathing, and request that the responding paramedics remove his helmet.

d)

cut the face mask away from the helmet, administer 100% oxygen if it available, and wait for paramedics.

20.

The major complication with a closed head injury is:

a)

profuse bleeding

b)

swelling of the brain

c)

level of consciousness

d)

loss of CSF.

21.

Why is it important to remove the shirt of a patient with suspected chest trauma?

a)

Clothing may conceal a life threatening injury.

b)

Vital signs cannot be assessed properly with clothing on.

c)

The airway cannot be maintained while clothing is on.

d)

It is standard protocol to removing clothing from all trauma patients.

22.

Which of the following statements is true about assessing patients with open abdominal wounds?

a)

Examine only the front of the patient's body.

b)

Examine only the back of the patient's body.

c)

Examine both the front and back of the patient's body.

d)

Examine only the side of the body that was exposed when you approached the patient.

23.

What does an AED do?

a)

Analyze the heart rhythm

b)

Deliver a shock

c)

Indicate whether or not a shock is required

d)

All of the above

24.

A patient who is able to identify himself, his location, the time of day, and what happened is described as what?

a)

Mentally stable

b)

Aware

c)

Conscious

d)

Alert and oriented x 4

25.

What is the normal pulse rate for an adult?

a)

100 to 160 beats per minute

b)

80 to 110 beats per minute

c)

65 to 80 beats per minute

d)

60 to 100 beats per minute

26.

A 55-year-old patient is complaining of pain in his neck, back, and jaw. He also states that he feels nauseated and light-headed. You should suspect a(n) ________ emergency.

a)

cardiac

b)

hyperventilation

c)

respiratory

d)

ulcer

27.

A prescribed medication device that stores and delivers medicine to a patient’s lungs when administered is called a:

a)

bronchodilator tube (BDT).

b)

metered-dose inhaler (MDI)

c)

glucometer.

d)

pulse oximeter.

28.

Allergic reactions may affect which part of the patient's body?

a)

Skin

b)

Eyes

c)

Respiratory tract

d)

Entire body

29.

Susceptibility to frostbite is highest in patients weakened by all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

old age.

b)

active shivering.

c)

exhaustion.

d)

hunger.

30.

Frostnip is also known as:

a)

mild frostbite.

b)

deep frostbite.

c)

superficial frostbite.

d)

generalized frostbite.

31.

Air embolism and decompression sickness are both caused by:

a)

a sudden, unexpected decrease in pressure in a diver who is using self-contained underwater breathing apparatus (scuba).

b)

blockage of a major artery that leads to the lungs secondary to aspiration of water.

c)

air bubbles being released in the body as a result of changes in pressure while diving.

d)

large air bubbles that enter the left ventricle of the heart and prevent cardiac contraction.

32.

Common early signs of an ingested poison include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

nausea and vomiting.

b)

burns around the mouth.

c)

severe difficulty breathing.

d)

abdominal pain or diarrhea.

33.

Which type of open wound involves a flap of skin or tissue that is fully or partially torn off from the body?

a)

Laceration

b)

Abrasion

c)

Avulsion

d)

Amputation

34.

A patient who faints but quickly regains consciousness once in a horizontal position has MOST likely experienced:

a)

spinal shock.

b)

cardiogenic shock.

c)

psychogenic shock.

d)

anaphylactic shock.

35.

To be considered anaphylaxis, which of the following must be true?

a)

The patient is experiencing respiratory distress or signs of shock.

b)

An airway adjunct is able to be used.

c)

The patient shows no signs of improving.

d)

The patient has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector.

36.

A 33-year-old woman has a possible broken left ankle. She is in significant pain but is conscious and otherwise stable. This patient:

a)

does not require transport to the hospital.

b)

requires transport but without lights and siren

c)

may deteriorate and requires prompt transport.

d)

should be rapidly transported to the closest hospital.

37.

The __________ splint is specifically designed to splint fractures of the femur.

a)

wire

b)

board

c)

traction

d)

inflatable

38.

After arriving on scene but before making patient contact, you should:

a)

perform a primary assessment.

b)

contact medical direction.

c)

perform a secondary assessment.

d)

take BSI precautions.

39.

The primary assessment begins with:

a)

assessing the patient's mental status.

b)

assessing the patient's airway.

c)

forming a general impression.

d)

evaluating the patient's circulation.

40.

In a SAMPLE history, the E represents:

a)

EKG results.

b)

evaluation of the neck and spine.

c)

events leading to the illness or injury.

d)

evidence of airway obstruction.

41.

When assessing circulation for a responsive adult patient, you should assess the ___________ pulse.

a)

carotid

b)

pedal

c)

radial

d)

distal

42.

The steps of a primary assessment include forming a general impression, assessing mental status, assessing ABCs, and:

a)

controlling bleeding.

b)

determining priority for transport.

c)

performing a secondary assessment.

d)

obtaining vital signs.

43.

You are assessing a patient and discover her respirations to be 6 and shallow. You should:

a)

alert dispatch.

b)

provide manual ventilations.

c)

perform a secondary assessment.

d)

obtain vital signs.

44.

A patient who presents with normal vital signs and shows no indications of a life-threatening problem may be described as:

a)

routine.

b)

normal.

c)

unstable.

d)

stable.

45.

You have arrived to find a conscious and alert child with obvious deformity to his right forearm. You should:

a)

perform a primary assessment.

b)

obtain a SAMPLE history.

c)

perform a focused secondary assessment.

d)

obtain a set of vital signs

46.

The adequate flow of well-oxygenated blood to all cells of the body is called:

a)

circulation

b)

systole

c)

perfusion

d)

compensation

47.

The first set of vital signs obtained on any patient is referred to as the _______ set.

a)

historical

b)

ongoing

c)

baseline

d)

serial

48.

The most appropriate location to obtain a pulse for an unresponsive adult is the ________ artery.

a)

brachial

b)

femoral

c)

carotid

d)

radial

49.

What are the two pulse points that are referred to as central pulses?

a)

Radial and tibial

b)

Carotid and femoral

c)

Femoral and brachial

d)

Brachial and carotid

50.

As blood pressure drops, perfusion is most likely to:

a)

increase.

b)

decrease.

c)

fluctuate.

d)

remain the same.

51.

Skin that is bluish in color is called:

a)

pale.

b)

flushed.

c)

cyanotic.

d)

jaundiced.

52.

The term diaphoretic refers to:

a)

pupil reaction.

b)

skin temperature.

c)

heart rhythm.

d)

skin moisture.

53.

The pressure inside the arteries each time the heart contracts is referred to as the ________ pressure.

a)

diastolic

b)

pulse

c)

systolic

d)

mean

54.

A ________ is something the Emergency Medical Responder can see or measure during the patient assessment.

a)

symptom

b)

history

c)

sign

d)

chief complaint

55.

The “P” in SAMPLE history stands for:

a)

past medical history.

b)

pharmaceuticals used.

c)

present illness.

d)

primary complaint.

56.

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to handle a patient with disabilities?

a)

Do not change or modify assessment in any way

b)

Use technical medical terms

c)

Modify the exam to explain what you are doing

d)

Talk down to the patient

57.

Manual ________ is the technique used to keep the head and neck aligned when the patient has a suspected neck injury.

a)

traction

b)

stabilization

c)

repositioning

d)

blocking

58.

Accessory muscle use in the neck is an indication of:

a)

high blood pressure.

b)

blood backing up from the heart.

c)

neck injury.

d)

difficulty breathing.

59.

Medical Director is a physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for:

a)

standards, protocols, and evaluation of patient care

b)

certification and licensure of EMRs

c)

staffing decisions and hiring

d)

answering and dispatching 911 calls

60.

Your medical director, quality improvement coordinator, operations coordinator, and operations manager at Acadian Ambulance in southeast Texas are:

a)

Dr. Kidd
Cal Bynum
Monica Birdsong
Eddie Burleigh

b)

Dr. Kidd
Monica Birdsong
Cal Bynum
Eddie Burleigh

c)

Dr. Burnell
Dr. Kidd
Monica Birdsong
Eddie Burleigh

d)

I don't know because I don't pay attention.