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Naya Science Exam quiz

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
2.

Which is true about active transport?

a)

requires energy

b)

does not require energy

c)

moves substances down the concentration gradient

d)

moves material from high to low concentration

3.
The concentration of water is higher in the soil than in plant root cells. Water moves into root cells of a plant by...
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
4.
Due to the higher concentration of oxygen in the air than your blood, oxygen goes from the lungs into the red blood cells by....
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
5.
This cell structure helps organisms maintain homeostasis by controlling what substances may enter or leave cells.
a)
vacuole
b)
nucleus
c)
cell membrane
d)
cell wall
6.
The dispersal of ink in a breaker of water is an example of 
a)
osmosis
b)
diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
facilitated diffusion
7.
Passive transport requires no
a)
concentration gradients
b)
osmosis
c)
motion
d)
energy
8.
Which of the following do NOT have cell walls?
a)
animal cells
b)
bacteria cells
c)
plant cells
d)
fungi
9.

Which way would the purple molecules move through the semi permeable membrane?

a)

From the A side to the B side

b)

From the B side to the A side

c)

None of the purple molecules would move.

10.
What does it mean that a cell membrane is semipermeable?
a)
It allows all substances inside.
b)
It allows some substances inside.
c)
It allows no substances inside.
11.

When both inside and outside of a cell have the same amount of water it is said that the cell has reached a state of...

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Dynamic Equilibrium

12.
A person's tongue cells after finishing eating a salty french fry would...
a)
get smaller
b)
get bigger
c)
remain the same
13.
If there is 5 percent water inside a cell and 5 percent water outside a cell
a)
more water will move inside the cell
b)
more water will move outside the cell
c)
there will be no net movement of water cells
d)
there will be no movement of water
14.
The picture is an example of...
a)
active tranport
b)
passive transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
15.
The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
a)
simple diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
osmosis
16.
The picture below is an example of _________________.
a)
osmosis
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
simple diffusion
d)
active transport
17.
In which beaker will water move out of the cell?
a)
left
b)
middle
c)
right
18.

Which cell is the animal cell?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

19.

What is this?

a)

A chloroplast

b)

A mitochondrion

c)

A ribosome

d)

A nucleus

20.

Which part of a cell controls the entry and exit of substances?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Ribosomes

21.

What are F, G and H?

a)

cell membrane, ribosome, mitochondrion

b)

cell wall, nucleus, cell membrane

c)

cell membrane, mitochondrion, permanent vacuole

d)

cell wall, chloroplast, permanent vacuole

22.

What is this?

a)

a plant cell

b)

an animal cell

c)

a chloroplast

d)

a mitochondrion

23.

Which of the answers is in the correct size order? smallest to biggest? (picture is NOT to scale)

a)

Bacteria cell, animal cell, plant cell

b)

Animal cell, bacterial cell, plant cell

c)

Bacteria cell, plant cell, animal cell

d)

Plant cell, animal cell, bacteria cell

24.

Which cell component (part) contains DNA?

a)

B

b)

E

c)

G

d)

H

25.

What is represented by the letter C?

a)

ribosome

b)

permanent vacuole

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell wall

26.

Which cell component makes proteins?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

27.

Which letter represents part of a cell that contains cellulose?

a)

D

b)

F

c)

G

d)

H

28.

Where would you find cell sap?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

E

d)

H

29.

Which cell component strengthens the cell and provides support?

a)

cell membrane

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

cell wall

30.

Which of the following would you NOT find in a bacterial cell

a)

cytoplasm

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosomes

d)

mitochondria

31.

What is the structure with a question mark called?

a)

plasmid

b)

cell membrane

c)

flagellum

d)

chromosome

32.

Recall the meaning of the term independent variable

a)

The variable that you keep the same

b)

The variable that you change

c)

Th variable that you monitor

d)

The variable that you measure

33.

Recall the meaning of the term dependent variable

a)

The variable that you keep the same

b)

The variable that you change

c)

Th variable that you monitor

d)

The variable that you measure

34.

Recall the meaning of the term control variable

a)

The variable that you keep the same

b)

The variable that you change

c)

Th variable that you monitor

d)

The variable that you measure

35.

A low solute (sucrose) solution =

a)

a high water concentration

b)

a low water concentration

36.

Recall two factors you must control when investigating osmosis in potatoes

a)

the amount of sucrose

b)

volume of the sucrose solution

c)

surface area of the potato

d)

the volume of water

37.

Recall the definition of Osmosis

4 lines
38.

Recall the definition of Osmosis

4 lines
39.

The pieces of potato are blotted dry before they are re-weighed to remove excess (a)   .

40.

Give one way in which the accuracy of results could be increased in an investigation

a)

Take your time to complete the investigation

b)

Repeat the investigation

c)

Repeat the investigation and calculate an average

d)

Do a trial run first to get all the errors out of your system

41.

Calculate the % change in mass for Chip 6 in the table.

Give your answer to an appropriate number of decimal places.


% change in mass = (change in mass ÷ starting mass) x 100

a)

-27.0

b)

27.03

c)

27.0

d)

27.03

42.

What piece of equipment would you use to measure the volume of water

a)

Measuring cylinder

b)

Conical flask

c)

Pipette

d)

Weighing scales

43.

What piece of equipment would you use to determine the mass of the potato chips?

a)

Weighing scales

b)

Measuring cylinder

c)

Pipette

d)

Conical flask

44.

What three pieces of equipment do you need to ensure that each potato chip has the same surface area?

a)

Knife

b)

Ruler

c)

Potato corer/cork borer

d)

Scales

e)

Potato

45.

The potato chips must be left for at least 15 minutes in the sucrose to allow (a)   to occur.

46.

Calculate the % change in mass for Chip 2 in the table.

Give your answer to an appropriate number of decimal places.


% change in mass = (change in mass ÷ starting mass) x 100

a)

16.6

b)

16.59919028

c)

-16.6

d)

-17.0

47.
This model was developed after J.J. Thompson discovered electrons, a particle smaller than an atom. Is shows electrons floating freely in a positive space.
a)
The "Plum Pudding Model" of the atom
b)
The "Rutherford Model" of the atom
c)
Democritus's model of the atom
d)
The "Solar System Model" of the atom
48.

What is an ion?

a)

A Charged Atom

b)

A Large Atom

c)

A Small Atom

d)

A Cute Atom

49.

How many atoms are in this molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

50.
What is the atomic mass of "F"
a)
9
b)
18
c)
17
d)
19
51.
His model had electrons surrounding the nucleus at a distance?
a)
Dalton
b)
Schrödinger / Heisenberg
c)
Rutherford
d)
Bohr
52.
According to Ernest Rutherford, an atom is made of mostly....
a)
empty space
b)
electrons
c)
the nucleus
d)
protons
53.
Who created the "plum pudding" model of the atom?
a)
Democritus
b)
Rutherford
c)
Dalton
d)
Thomson
54.
According to Dalton's theory, all atoms of a particular _______ are identical.to 
a)
mass
b)
element
c)
weight
d)
color
55.
What is an atom mostly made up of?
a)
protons
b)
electrons
c)
empty space
d)
neutrons
56.
Which scientist conducted experiments using alpha particles and thin gold foil, which later helped him develop his model for the atom? 
a)
Ernest Rutherford
b)
Kneels Bore
c)
Niels Bohr
d)
Earnest Rutherfraud
57.
What is the element name of the atom pictured? 
a)
Fluorine
b)
Neon
c)
Argon
d)
Potassium
58.
Which letter represents a proton?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
59.
An atom has 10 protons, 15 neutrons and 10 electrons what is its mass number.
a)
20
b)
10
c)
5
d)
25
60.
How many electron shells/levels does this atom have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
61.
The subatomic particles in green are...
a)
Protons
b)
Neutrons
c)
Electrons
62.
Which two subatomic particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Neutrons and Electrons
c)
Electrons and Protons
d)
Protons and Neutrons
63.
Which subatomic particle has a positive (+) charge?
a)
Neutron
b)
Proton
c)
Electron
64.
Which subatomic particle has a negative (-) charge?
a)
Proton
b)
Electron
c)
Neutron
65.
Which subatomic particle has a negative (-) charge?
a)
Proton
b)
Electron
c)
Neutron
66.

Different isotopes have...

a)

different masses

b)

different atomic numbers

c)

different electrons

d)

different protons

67.

Who discovered particles in the nucleus of atoms, neutrons

a)

Niels Bohr

b)

Ernest Rutherford

c)

J.J. Thomson

d)

James Chadwick

68.

Electrons orbit the nucleus in shells. Each shell can only hold a maximum number of electrons . Argon has an atomic number of 18. What would be its electrons arrangement.

a)

2,16

b)

2,4,6,6

c)

8,8,2

d)

2,8,8

69.
Ionic bonds happen between
a)
Metal atoms and metal atoms
b)
Metal atoms and non-metal atoms
c)
Non-metal atoms and non-metal atoms
70.
An element forms an ion with a 2- charge. This means that 2 electrons were __________.
a)
Gained
b)
Lost
c)
Shared
d)
Destroyed
71.
An element forms an ion with a 2- charge. This means that 2 electrons were __________.
a)
Gained
b)
Lost
c)
Shared
d)
Destroyed
72.

Group 1 Metals in the periodic table are called

a)

Alkali metals

b)

Halogens

c)

Noble gases

d)

Transition metals

73.

Group 1 Metals have how many electrons in their outer shell?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

74.

Which of these scientists were involved in the development of the Periodic Table?

a)

Isaac Newton

b)

Dmitri Mendeleev

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Stephen Hawking

75.

The nucleon number and proton number of the lithium atom are shown by the symbol.

What is the correct symbol for the lithium ion in lithium chloride?

a)
b)
c)
d)
76.
Ionic bonds occur when electrons are ….
a)
Discharged
b)
Transferred
c)
Transfixed
d)
Shared
e)
Moving
77.

What happens when magnesium loses 2 electrons?

a)

It stabilizes to a net charge of 0

b)

It turns into an atom

c)

It becomes negatively charged

d)

It becomes positively charged

78.
What usually forms the positive ion?
a)
Metal
b)
Non Metals
c)
None
79.
An element forms an ion with a 2- charge. This means that 2 electrons were __________.
a)
Gained
b)
Lost
c)
Shared
d)
Destroyed
80.
What was Dmitri Mendeleev's greatest contribution to the history of the periodic table?
a)
He arranged all of the known elements by their atomic number
b)
He realised that there was a pattern of reactivity which repeated every 8 elements
c)
He predicted the existence (and properties) of new elements
d)
He identified the "law of triads" which became the groups
81.
Why were there blank spaces left in Mendeleev's periodic table?                                              
a)
He didn't know what to put there.
b)
 Undiscovered elements not yet known.
c)
Multiple elements could have fit
d)
He forgot to add the elements in.
82.

In the modern periodic table elements are arranged by:

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

valence electrons

d)

number of isotopes

83.
Which property did Mendeleev use to order his periodic table?
a)
Shielding effect
b)
Eletronegitivity
c)
Atomic Weight
d)
Metallic Character
84.

What is the equation linking kinetic energy, mass and velocity?

a)

Energy = mass x velocity2

b)

Energy = mass / velocity

c)

Energy = 0.5 x mass x velocity2

d)

Energy = mass x velocity

85.

What are the units for energy?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Kilograms (kg)

d)

Newtons (N)

86.

What are the units of mass?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Kilograms (kg)

d)

Newtons (N)

87.

What are the units for velocity?

a)

mph

b)

m/s

c)

m/s2

d)

km/h

88.

What is the equation linking gravitational field strength, gravitational potential energy and height?

a)

Gravitational field strength = mass x gravitational potential energy x height

b)

Gravitational potential energy = mass x gravitational field strength x height

c)

Height = mass x gravitational field strength

89.

What are the units of gravitational field strength?

a)

Newtons (N)

b)

Kilograms (kg)

c)

Kilograms per newton (kg/N)

d)

Newtons per kilo (N/kg)

90.

What is the equation linking energy transferred, power and time?​

a)

Power = energy x time

b)

Power = energy / time

c)

Energy = time / power

91.

What are the units of work done?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Kilograms (kg)

d)

Newtons (N)

92.

Food, batteries, fuel and muscles store which energy type?

a)

Elastic potential energy

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Thermal energy

d)

Chemical energy

93.

Which energy store changes as height of an object changes?

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Gravitational potential energy

c)

Elastic potential energy

d)

Sound energy

94.

Which energy store is linked with springs and catapults?

a)

Nuclear energy

b)

Light energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Elastic potential energy

95.

Which two energy stores change depending on the position of an object?

a)

Electrical energy

b)

Elastic potential energy

c)

Gravitational potential energy

d)

Chemical energy

96.

What is the relationship between KE and GPE?

a)

Direct proportion - they both increase at the same rate

b)

Direct proportion - as KE increases, GPE decreases

c)

Inverse proportion - they both increase at the same rate

d)

Inverse proportion - as KE increases, GPE decreases

97.

What is the specific heat capacity of a material?

a)

The amount of energy required to heat up a material.

b)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of material.

c)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg of a material.

d)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg of a material by 1⁰C.

98.

Which equation is used to calculate specific heat capacity?

a)

Change in thermal energy = mass x specific heat capacity x change in temperature

b)

Change in temperature = mass x specific heat capacity x change in thermal energy

c)

Change in thermal energy = mass x specific heat capacity x temperature of a material

99.

Which type of energy is stored in an inflated balloon

a)

Gravitational potential energy

b)

Elastic potential energy

c)

Strain energy

d)

Chemical energy

100.

When measuring the specific heat capacity of a metal block, what is the function of the ammeter?

a)

To measure the voltage

b)

To measure the power

c)

To measure the current

d)

To measure the energy

101.

When measuring the specific heat capacity of a metal block, how can we increase the accuracy of our results?

a)

Insulate the metal block

b)

Add water to the hole with the thermometer

c)

Place the metal block on a heat proof mat

d)

All of the above

102.

Change in thermal energy = mass x specific heat capacity x change in temperature


Calculate the energy transferred to a metal block that has a specific heat capacity of 380J/kg⁰C, has a temperature change of 15⁰C and a mass of 2.7kg

a)

68.4J

b)

68,400J

c)

15,390J

d)

15.39J

103.

What is the definition of efficiency?

a)

A measure of how much energy is wasted by an appliance

b)

A measure of how quickly energy is transferred to an appliance

c)

A measure of the energy transferred usefully to an appliance

d)

A measure of the energy given off to the surroundings by an appliance

104.

What is the equation used to calculate efficiency?

a)

Efficiency = total energy input / total energy output

b)

Efficiency = useful energy output / total energy input

c)

Efficiency = useful energy input / useful energy output

d)

Efficiency = total energy input / useful energy output

105.

Which of the following can also be used to calculate efficiency?

a)

Current

b)

Voltage

c)

Mass

d)

Power

106.

Which key term is used to describe energy being spread out or wasted?

a)

Efficient

b)

Deficient

c)

Dissipate

d)

Elevate

107.

What term is used to describe a method for reducing unwanted energy transfers by reducing friction?

a)

Insulation

b)

Titration

c)

Lubrication

d)

Dissipation

108.

What is a thermal insulator?

a)

A non-conductive material

b)

A conductive material

109.

What is the name of the method of reducing unwanted energy transfers by the use of non-conductive materials?

a)

Insulation

b)

Titration

c)

Lubrication

d)

Dissipation

110.

What is the law of conservation of energy?

a)

Energy is created and transferred

b)

Energy is created and stored

c)

Energy is stored and destroyed

d)

Energy is stored and transferred

111.

How does thermal conductivity of a material affect the rate of conduction across that material?

a)

The higher the conductivity, the faster the rate of conduction

b)

The higher the conductivity, the slower the rate of conduction

c)

The lower the conductivity the faster the rate of conduction

112.

What are the units of power?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Kilograms (kg)

d)

Newtons (N)

113.

What is the definition of power?

a)

How much electricity passes through an appliance

b)

The amount of energy wasted by an appliance

c)

The rate of energy transfer or the rate of doing work

d)

The rate of electron transfer

114.

What is the equation linking power, time and work done?​

a)

Power = work done / time

b)

Power = work done x time

c)

Work done = power / time

115.

Which energy transfers relate to an object being projected upwards?

a)

Increase chemical, increase KE, increase sound

b)

Increase GPE, decrease KE, increase thermal

c)

Increased KE, decreased GPE

d)

Decrease GPE, increase KE, increase thermal

116.

Which energy transfers relate to a moving object hitting an obstacle?

a)

Decrease sound, decrease chemical, decrease thermal

b)

Increase sound, decrease chemical, increase thermal

c)

Decrease KE, increase sound, increase thermal

d)

Increase KE, increase chemical, decrease thermal

117.

Which energy transfers relate to a vehicle accelerating?

a)

Increase chemical, increase elastic, increase sound

b)

Decrease chemical, decrease KE, increase thermal

c)

Decrease chemical, increase KE, increase thermal

118.

Which energy transfers relate to a vehicle decelerating?

a)

Increase chemical, increase elastic, increase sound

b)

Decrease chemical, decrease KE, increase thermal

c)

Decrease chemical, increase KE, increase thermal

119.

Which energy transfers relate to a boiling kettle?

a)

Decrease electrical, increase thermal, increase sound

b)

Decrease electrical, increase thermal, increase chemical

c)

Increase electrical decrease thermal, increase sound

120.

What does it mean if a resource is renewable?

a)

The resource is replenished

b)

The resource will eventually run out

c)

The resource will always release energy

d)

The resource relies on external factors

121.

What does it mean if a resource is reliable?

a)

The resource is replenished

b)

The resource will eventually run out

c)

The resource will always release energy

d)

The resource relies on external factors

122.

What does it mean if a resource is non-renewable?

a)

The resource is replenished

b)

The resource will eventually run out

c)

The resource will always release energy

d)

The resource relies on external factors

123.

Which resource is renewable?

a)

Coal

b)

Natural gas

c)

Nuclear

d)

Biofuel

124.

Which resource does not release carbon dioxide?

a)

Coal

b)

Natural gas

c)

Nuclear

d)

Biofuel

125.

Which resource is reliable?

a)

Solar

b)

Wind

c)

Wave

d)

Tidal

126.

Which resource contributes damage to the ecosystem?

a)

Solar

b)

Wind

c)

Wave

d)

Tidal

127.

Which resource is described as carbon neutral?

a)

Biofuel

b)

Fossil fuels

c)

Nuclear

d)

Hydeoelectric

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