wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

2023-24 PMA 2 Review

Total questions: 163

Worksheet time: 2hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Identify this structure.
a)
cell wall
b)
cell membrane
c)
sap vacuole
d)
cytoplasm
2.
Which organelle functions as the control center of our cell, it's where the DNA is stored in Eukaryotes?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Lysosomes 
c)
Nucleus 
d)
Golgi Body
3.
What is a sac-like structure used to store water and nutrients? These are much larger in plant cells?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Vacuoles
d)
Golgi Body
4.
Which organelle is responsible for making proteins?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Nucleolus
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Ribosomes
5.
Which structure is present in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Vacuole 
d)
Mitochondria
6.
What organelle is in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells 
a)
nucleus 
b)
mitochondria 
c)
ribosomes 
d)
golgi apparatus 
7.
Provides energy to our cell, is the "powerhouse" of our cell. 
a)
chloroplasts
b)
ribosomes
c)
lysosomes
d)
mitochondria
8.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
9.
Movement across the cell membrane that does not require energy is called
a)
active transport
b)
passive transport
10.
The concentration of water is higher in the soil than in plant root cells. Water moves into root cells of a plant by...
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
11.

This cell organelle helps organisms maintain homeostasis by controlling what substances may enter or leave cells.

a)

vacuole

b)

nucleus

c)

cell membrane

d)

cell wall

12.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
13.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
14.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
15.
A cell in a hypotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink 
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
16.
What does it mean that a cell membrane is semi-permeable?
a)
It allows all substances in
b)
It allows some substances in
c)
It allows nothing in
17.
The cell membrane is made mostly of
a)
phospholipid monolayer and proteins
b)
phospholipid bilayer and proteins
c)
proteins and carbohydrates bilayer
d)
triglycerides and carbohydrates
18.
Which of the following does NOT move from high to low concentrations?
a)
active transport
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
osmosis
d)
diffusion
19.
Facilitated diffusion
a)
does not require energy
b)
is a form of active transport
c)
moves molecules against the concentration gradient
d)
all of the above
20.
If I'm looking under a microscope and I notice that my cell has DNA not located in a nucleus I can assume that this is a... 
a)
Animal Cell 
b)
Prokaryotic Cell
c)
Plant Cell
d)
Eukaryotic Cell
21.
Charolotte's little brother believes that gnats come from dust, Charlotte is currently in Biology so she knows that this is false, what part of cell theory disproves her little brother. 
a)
All cells come from pre-existing cells 
b)
All cells are made up of one or more cells 
c)
The cell is the basic unit of function 
d)
Cell maintain homeostasis. 
22.
What type of cell is this? 
a)
Plant Cell 
b)
Animal Cell 
c)
Bacteria Cell 
d)
Prokaryotic Cell 
23.
What role has technology had in cell theory? 
a)
Cell theory was developed independently of technology 
b)
It stopped scientist from improving upon the theory 
c)
As it advanced so did our cell theory 
d)
It isolated scientist so that they couldn't communicate
24.
In our egg lab, the eggs placed in water (100% water) and vinegar (95% water) increased, while syrup (5% water) decreased. What does this tell us about selectively permeable membranes?
a)
substances other than water can cross the membrane
b)
substances other than water block pores in the membrane
c)
water enters when placed in areas of high water concentration
d)
Water leaves the cell when placed in environments with low concentration of solutes
25.

In a cell membrane, where are the hydrophobic parts?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

26.
Which of the following are found in plants and not animals?
a)
nucleus
b)
cell wall
c)
cytoplasm
d)
mitochondria
27.
What is Cell A
a)
bacteria
b)
animal
c)
plant
d)
virus
28.
Which of the following statements is not part of the cell theory?
a)
Cells are the basic unit of structure and function in all living things.
b)
All cells are produced from other cells.
c)
Only animal cells are composed of cells.
d)
All living things are composed of cells.
29.
Which statement reflects one of the major components of the cell theory?
a)
All living things are multi-cellular.
b)
Organs are the basic unit of structure and function for all living things.
c)
All cells come from previously existing cells.
d)
Every organism has a reproductive system to ensure survival of the species.
30.
What structures distinguish a plant cell from an animal cell?
a)
Plant cells have cell walls and ribosomes.
b)
Plant cells have cell walls and chloroplasts.
c)
Plant cells have chloroplasts and ribosomes.
d)
Plant cells have chloroplasts and mitochondria.
31.
When cells are damaged, new cells are created by cell division. How does the cell theory support this fact?
a)
It states that all cells have a nucleus which divides.
b)
It states that all living things are made up of one or more cells.
c)
It states that cells come from previously existing cells.
d)
 It states that the basic units of structure and function are cells.
32.
Which organism is made up of cells that have both a cell membrane and a cell wall?
a)
desert mouse
b)
human 
c)
maple tree
d)
zebra
33.
This is the "powerhouse" of the cell that converts food to energy.
a)
Mitocondria
b)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
c)
Nucleus
d)
Lysosome
34.
In plant cells, this structure captures energy from the sun to produce food.
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Cell Wall
c)
Vacuoles
d)
Chloroplasts
35.
I store water in both plant and animal cells. What am I?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
ribosomes
c)
vacuole
d)
lysosomes
36.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
37.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
38.

Which of the following elements are found in all macromolecules? (Select all that apply).

a)
b)
c)
d)
39.

Match the following MONOMERS and MACROMOLECULES

a)
1.

Nucleic Acid

b)
2.

Protein

c)
3.

Lipid

d)
4.

Carbohydrate

40.

An enzyme is a ______________.

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

41.
Which major macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
42.
Which of the following contains the genetic code for protein synthesis?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
43.
What type of macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
44.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

45.
Carbohydrates are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
46.
Lipids are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
47.
Proteins are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
48.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
49.
Is found in the cell membrane as a bilayer. 
a)
lipids
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
50.
What is the primary function of carbohydrates in your body?
a)
Speed up chemical reactions.
b)
Give immediate energy.
c)
Help to store energy.
d)
Build cell walls in plants.
51.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

52.

What is the macromolecule of structure A2 and what is its function?

a)

Nucleic Acid - it stores genetic information for protein production

b)

Lipid - it regulates the movement of materials into and out of the cell

c)

Protein - it speeds up chemical reactions in the cytoplasm of the cell

d)

Carbohydrate - it stores short term energy to produce ATP for the cell

53.

All of the biological macromolecules found in organisms contain hydrogen, oxygen and carbon.  However, there are distinguishing features of each.  Which of the following could be used to differentiate between a carbohydrate and a nucleic acid?

a)

Carbohydrate molecules have a nitrogen base, whereas, nucleic acid molecules have an R-group.

b)

Carbohydrate molecules have nitrogen atoms, whereas, a nucleic acids have an attached phosphate group.

c)

Carbohydrate molecules are only found in rings, while nucleic acid molecules form ring or branched chain shapes.

d)

Carbohydrate molecules contain only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms, whereas, nucleic acid molecules also have a nitrogen base and phosphate group.

54.

Carbohydrates are a macromolecule that provides short term energy while Lipids are a macromolecule that provides long term energy. In terms of their structure, carbohydrates and lipids have what in common?

a)

Both structures are the shape of a hexagon

b)

Both structures are the shape of a long chain

c)

Both structures contain the elements Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen

d)

Both structures contain the elements Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, and Oxygen

55.

Ovalbumin is a protein found in eggs. Which of the following best describes the molecular structure of ovalbumin?

a)

A group of six carbon atoms joined in a ring

b)

A chain of amino acids folded and twisted into a molecule

c)

A set of three fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol

d)

A sequence of nitrogenous bases attached to a sugar phosphate backbone

56.

Plants get their nutrients from the soil. If the phosphorus was removed from the soil, what macromolecule would be decreased in the plant?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

57.

In a plant, the soil was altered. The presence of each macromolecule was measured and recorded before and after the soil was altered. This can be seen in the graph. What could have caused this change?

a)

Decrease in nitrogen

b)

Increase in phosphorus

c)

Decrease in water

d)

Increase in carbon dioxide

58.

Match the following.

a)

Carbohydrate

1.

Short Term Energy Storage

b)

Protein

2.

Structure, support, assists in chemical reactions

c)

Lipid

3.

Long Term Energy Storage

d)

Nucleic Acid

4.

Stores genetic information

59.

What is the optimal pH of enzyme A?

a)

8

b)

2

c)

5.7-10

d)

10

60.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
61.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
62.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell.  Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
63.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
64.
What is another name for enzymes?
a)
chemical catalysts
b)
microorganisms
c)
biological catalysts
d)
inorganic catalysts
65.
What factors affect an enzyme's reaction rate?
a)
temperature 
b)
pH
c)
substrate concentration
d)
all of these
66.

Which enzyme would you expect to find in bacteria growing in a hot environment?

a)

Enzyme X

b)

Enzyme Y

67.

Which enzyme has an optimum temperature of 40 degrees Celsius?

a)

Enzyme X

b)

Enzyme Y

68.

Enzymes are important for the body because

a)

they increase the activation energy needed for a chemical reaction.

b)

keep the activation energy of a chemical reaction at a constant level.

c)

lower the activation energy needed for the chemical reaction.

d)

remove all of the activation energy needed for a chemical reaction.

69.

The optimum pH for this enzyme is approximately

a)

2

b)

3.5

c)

5.5

d)

8

e)

10

70.

What happens to enzyme activity if it is denatured?

a)

Enzyme activity will increase

b)

Enzyme activity will decrease

c)

Enzyme activity will remain the same

d)

Enzyme activity will increase and then decrease

71.

What is the optimum temperature this enzyme works the best in?

a)

20

b)

26

c)

38

d)

50

72.

Which of the following best explains why enzymes are necessary for many cellular reactions?

a)

Enzymes supply the oxygen necessary for the reactions

b)

Enzymes change reactants from solid to liquids during the reactions

c)

The reactions take up too much space in the cell if the enzymes are missing

d)

The reactions are too slow to meet the needs of the cell if enzymes are missing

73.

As food travels through the digestive system, it is exposed to a variety of pH levels.  The stomach has a pH of 2 due to the presence of hydrochloric acid (HCl), and the small intestine has a pH ranging from 7 to 9. HCl converts pepsinogen into pepsin, an enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach.  Which of the following most likely happens to pepsin as it enters the small intestine?

a)

It becomes inactive.

b)

It begins to replicate.

c)

Its begins to engulf large proteins.

d)

Its activity increases to digest more proteins.

74.

Meat tenderizer contains an enzyme that interacts with meat. If meat is coated with the tenderizer and then placed in a refrigerator for a short time, how would the enzyme be affected?

a)

It would get broken down

b)

Its activity would slow down

c)

Its shape would change

d)

It would no longer act as an enzyme

75.

Consider the energy diagram for a chemical reaction in Figure 6-3. Overall, is energy released or absorbed?

a)

absorbed, because the energy level increases during the reaction

b)

absorbed, because the energy level of the products is greater than that of the reactants

c)

released, because the reaction does not require the input of activation energy

d)

released because the energy level of the reactants is greater than that of the products

76.

Which of the following experimental conditions would produce the most product?

a)

Place it in pH 14

b)

Place it in pH 5

c)

Heat it to 40*C

d)

Heat it to 70*C

77.

The diagram shows the relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate.

Based on the graph, which of the following describes why continually adding substrate does not lead to a continuous increase in reaction rate?

a)

More substrate needs to be added for the reaction to occur

b)

The rate of reaction slows down as enzymes are used up

c)

There is only a certain amount of enzyme present in the reaction.

d)

Enzymes do not replicate fast enough to keep up with the substrate

78.

Salivary amylase is an enzyme in spit that breaks down starches into sugars, which can be easily absorbed by the body. Salivary amylase was tested at different pHs to see how much starch is broken down into sugar and these numbers were recorded in the graph.

Based on these results, what is the optimal pH for salivary amylase to function?

a)

pH 1 because that is where the starch concentration is the highest.

b)

pH 5 because that is where the starch and sugar concentrations are equal.

c)

pH 7 because that is where the sugar concentration is the highest.

d)

pH 11 because the higher the pH, the more active the enzyme is. 

79.

Which statement was NOT included in cell theory?

a)

All living things are composed of cells.

b)

Living cells come only from other living cells.

c)

Each cell contains a cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum.

d)

Cells are the smallest structure of living things that can perform the functions necessary for life.

80.
When cells are damaged, new cells are created by cell division. How does the cell theory support this fact?
a)
It states that all cells have a nucleus which divides.
b)
It states that all living things are made up of one or more cells.
c)
It states that cells come from previously existing cells.
d)
 It states that the basic units of structure and function are cells.
81.

The first ever lab grown burger was created in 2013. After extensive testing, the first country to approve the production and consumption of lab-grown meat was Singapore in 2020. To create this meat product, scientists extract muscle stem cells from an animal and grow them in a laboratory setting. Next, the tissue is fed, multiplied, shaped, and structured using bioreactors to become what we might recognize as a burger or meat product. This meat has the same properties as a traditional burger since it is the same muscle. What part of cell theory best supports the ability to do this?

a)

The cell is the basic unit of life

b)

All living things are made of cells

c)

All cells come from preexisting cells

d)

Cells contain hereditary information

82.

The slides show a plant cell‚ cheek cells‚ and a paramecium as seen through a light microscope.

Which component of the cell theory is supported most by the cells pictured above?

a)

Living things are made of cells.

b)

Atoms are the basic units of matter.

c)

Single-celled organisms come from existing organisms.

d)

Cells of larger organisms are larger than the cells in smaller organisms.

83.

A cell containing only starch was placed into a beaker of water. Based on the graph, what happened?

a)

The water from the beaker moved into the cell

b)

The starch from inside the cell moved out of the cell

c)

The water from inside the cell moved out of the cell

d)

The starch from the beaker moved into the cell

84.

What is a FALSE statement about what happened in the image?

a)

Water moved into the cell until it reach equilibrium

b)

Sodium is a small molecule that moved out of the cell

c)

Fats are able to move freely into and out of the cell

d)

The cell membrane is semi-permeable so only certain substances can move through it

85.

Which graph could describe what happened INSIDE THE CELL based on this image?

a)

b)

c)

d)

86.

What best describes what is happening INSIDE THE CELL in the image?

a)

b)

c)

d)

87.

The body gets a disease that prevents it from producing proteins. What organelle is affected by this disease?

a)

mitochondria

b)

lysosome

c)

ribosome

d)

chloroplast

88.

The body gets a disease that prevents it from breaking down lipids and digesting them. What organelle is affected by the disease?

a)

chloroplast

b)

mitochondria

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

lysosome

89.

The body gets a disease that prevents it from producing usable energy. What organelle is affected?

a)

mitochondria

b)

lysosome

c)

ribosome

d)

golgi apparatus

90.
Invasive species are:
a)
non-native
b)
harmful to an ecosystem
c)
organisms that can lack predators in the new environment
d)
all of the answers are correct
91.
All the different life in an area
a)
species
b)
population
c)
biodiversity
d)
organisms
92.
One way that humans could have a positive impact on local environments is to:
a)
generate waste products as a result of technological advances
b)
use resources that are renewable
c)
increase planting large areas of one crop
d)
increase the use of pesticides
93.
New fuels are being produced by converting corn and grasses into compounds containing alcohols that can be broken down for energy in various engines. The purpose of this research is to
a)
reduce the use of nonrenewable resources.
b)
increase the rate of air pollution.
c)
reduce the rate of homeostasis in organisms.
d)
cause a loss of biodiversity in the rain forests.
94.
The presence of wastes, such as plastic bags and motor oil, in lakes and streams miles away from developed areas suggests that:
a)
ecosystems are interconnected and human action can alter ecosystem equilibrium.
b)
recycling programs have failed to conserve biotic resources.
c)
natural processes can alter ecosystem stability.
d)
direct harvesting practices have led to irreversible destruction of ecosystems.
95.
DDT and other pesticides used over 50 years ago are still affecting the environment today. Scientists have found these substances in recent glacier runoff. Glacier runoff occurs during the summer, when precipitation that has fallen on glaciers during the winter is released. Ice layers from existing glaciers have been analyzed. The results of this analysis show that the concentrations of DDT and other pesticides were highest about 10 years after the use of these substances was banned.This information shows that:
a)
DDT and other pesticides cause glacier runoff during the summer.
b)
it takes humans over 50 years to analyze a glacier.
c)
precipitation helps to break down pesticides.
d)
the decision of one human generation may have an impact on future generations.
96.
 Which of the following is considered to be a factor affecting Earth’s ozone layer?
a)
Chloroflourocarbons
b)
hydrogen gas
c)
nitrogen gas
d)
water vapor
97.
Burning fossil fuels results in which of the following:  
a)
ozone layer depletion
b)
global climate change
c)
deforestation
d)
pollution of ocean waters
98.
Which of the following would cause the greatest decrease in the number of species of plants and animals living in some of the lakes & streams?
a)
increase in dissolved oxygen
b)
global warming
c)
ozone destruction
d)
acid rain
99.
Deforestation results in which of the following
a)
increase in CO2
b)
decrease in CO2
c)
increase in O2
d)
decrease in H
100.
If the human population continues to grow exponentially it would result in which of the following:
a)
a reduction of resources
b)
decrease pollution
c)
increase in available freshwater
101.
shows accumulation of toxins in the food chain
a)
biodiversity
b)
global warming
c)
biomagnification
d)
induced species
102.
Which human activity would preserve nonrenewable resources?
a)
deforestation
b)
removing carnivores from a forest 
c)
recycling
d)
heating homes with fossil fuels  
103.
Continued depletion of the ozone layer will most likely result in
a)
an increase in skin cancer among humans 
b)
a decrease in atmospheric pollutants 
c)
an increase in marine ecosystem stability 
d)
a decrease in climatic changes
104.
Increased industrialization will most likely
a)
decrease available habitats 
b)
increase environmental carrying capacity 
c)
increase the stability of ecosystems 
d)
decrease global warming
105.
Which human activity would most likely deplete nonrenewable resources?
a)
use of natural enemies to eliminate insect pests
b)
development of wildlife refuges 
c)
governmental restriction of industrial pollution 
d)
increased use of fossil fuels
106.
A large tract of land is purchased by a commercial agricultural company. The land is cleared of its native flora (plants), and a single crop is planted instead. What is the effect of this action?
a)
There is an increase in the variety of foods.
b)
The biodiversity of the area is reduced.
c)
There is a reduction in the size of the land
d)
The cost of the planted crop increases
107.
Albert wants to practice conservation. He has decided to examine his lifestyle in order to identify areas in which he can reduce the resources he consumes, reuse resources he already has, and recycle resources that he cannot reuse. In which of the following ways can Albert best reduce the resources he currently consumes?
a)
Use paper grocery bags as gift wrap
b)
Ride a bike to work instead of taking his car
c)
Subscribe to a daily rather than a weekly newspaper
d)
Use an organic rather than synthetic fertilizer in his garden
108.
Many common products, such as wooden furniture, paper, and books, are made from trees. Which of the following is a likely consequence of humans cutting down a forest in order to make use of the natural resources there? 
a)
the decrease of chemical runoff into the oceans
b)
increased acid rain
c)
the increase of light pollution in cities
d)
the destruction of habitats
109.
Which of the following historical events most likely triggered the largest increase in the human population? 
a)
the Black Death plague, which occurred in the mid-1300s
b)
the domestication of wheat crops, which began around 8000 B.C
c)
the fall of the Roman Empire, which occurred around A.D. 800
d)
the Industrial Revolution, which began in the late 1700s
110.
What would Earth be like without the greenhouse effect?
a)
Too cold to be habitable
b)
A little cooler than it is now
c)
The same temperature as it is now
d)
A little warmer than it is now
111.
Humans often change ecosystems as a result of population growth, consumption, and technology. Which of the following exemplifies a way in which humans modify ecosystems? 
a)
factory and automotive emissions causing acid rain 
b)
redirecting and storing freshwater behind dams 
c)
cutting down trees to build new buildings and roads 
d)
all of these
112.
Global warming has been linked to a decrease in 
a)
the size of the polar ice caps 
b)
the temperature of Earth 
c)
the rate of species extinction 
d)
the rate of carbon dioxide production
113.
What are renewable resources?
a)
Resources that are used faster than they form
b)
 Resources that can replenish themselves over time
c)
  Resources that exist only in urban areas
d)
Resources that exist only in rural areas
114.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
a)
coal
b)
solar energy
c)
natural gas
d)
oil
115.
The use of organisms like bacteria to remove or decrease contaminants from an area.
a)
biological magnification
b)
eutrophication
c)
bioremediation
d)
sustainability
116.
When species are killed off faster than they can reproduce.
a)
overexploitation
b)
habitat fragmentation
c)
use of resources
d)
pollution
117.
The increase of things such as nitrogen or phosphorus in an ecosystem.
a)
invasive species
b)
eutrophication
c)
global warming
d)
pollutants
118.
Reduce, reuse, recycle
a)
overexploitation
b)
non-native species
c)
sustainability
d)
habitat fragmentation
119.
The equation below represents a biological process. Where is this process completed?

carbon dioxide + water ->  glucose + oxygen
a)
mitochondria
b)
ribosomes
c)
cell membrane
d)
chloroplasts
120.
Which identifies the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
a)
Both processes generate energy for cell use
b)
Both processes release energy for cell use
c)
The products of one process are used as reactants by the other process
d)
The reactants of one process are also the reactants of the other process
121.
What function does ATP carry out in living things?
a)
aids in protein folding and coiling
b)
used to capture and transfer energy
c)
identifies DNA start sequences for transcription
d)
helps maintain the fluidity of cell membranes
122.
6CO2 + 6H2O -->C6H12O6 + O2

The formula above represents which chemical reaction?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Glycolysis
c)
Krebs Cycle
d)
Cellular respiration
123.
The reactant(s) for photosynthesis are
a)
C6 H12 O6 + 6O2
b)
6CO2 + 6 H2O
c)
ATP
d)
C6 H12 O6
124.
A diagram representing the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is shown here. The numbered boxes in the diagram represent which of the following?
a)
1 - water; 2 - nitrogen
b)
1 - nitrogen; 2 - oxygen
c)
1 - oxygen; 2 - carbon dioxide
d)
1 - carbon dioxide; 2 – water
125.
During a fitness competition, the muscle cells are not able to take in enough oxygen to make very much ATP, so you get tired. Which process is going on?
a)
As the cells run out of oxygen they switch to anaerobic respiration, making little ATP.
b)
As the cells run out of oxygen, they die off gradually so he has fewer working cells.
c)
The cells will never run out of oxygen if the weightlifter is breathing
d)
As the cells run out of oxygen, they will continue to make the same amount of ATP.
126.
The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to
a)
yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain
b)
act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water.
c)
combine with carbon, forming CO2
d)
combine with lactate, forming pyruvate
127.
___ is the process in which plants make food.
a)
reproduction
b)
fertilization
c)
photosynthesis
d)
binary fission
128.
Bromothymol blue turns blue in the presence of Oxygen. When would it turn the most blue?
a)
When a plant is in the sunlight
b)
When a plant is in the dark
c)
When cellular respiration is happening
d)
When oxygen is removed from the air
129.
When is lactic acid produced?
a)
Photosynthesis because of the glucose
b)
Anaerobic Respiration because of the lack of oxygen
c)
Aerobic Respiration because of the oxygen
d)
Photosynthesis, when there isn't enough glucose
130.
What causes ATP to increase over time?
a)
Active transport
b)
Cell movement
c)
Cellular Respiration
d)
Photosynthesis
131.
Cellular Respiration occurs in
a)
only plants
b)
only animals
c)
both plants and animals
d)
neight plants nor animals
132.
When you eat food, what reactant of cellular respiration are you obtaining?
a)
ATP
b)
oxygen
c)
glucose
d)
carbon dioxide
133.
What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
a)
Aerobic needs oxygen, Anaerobic does not
b)
Aerobic does not need oxygen, Anaerobic does
c)
Aerobic occurs in plants, Anaerobic occurs in animals
d)
Aerobic makes 2 ATP, Anaerobic makes 32 ATP
134.
Fermentation is a type of Anaerobic Respiration. How does the energy compare to Aerobic Respiration?
a)
It is more
b)
It is the same
c)
It is less
d)
It varies based on sunlight
135.

What is NOT one of the products of cellular respiration?

a)

CO2

b)

C6H12O6

c)

H2O

d)

ATP

136.

Carbon Dioxide is to Photosynthesis as Oxygen is to...

a)

Anaerobic Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Cellular Respiration

d)

Energy

137.

The equation below represents a biological process. Where is this process completed?


glucose + oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water + energy

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosomes

c)

cell membrane

d)

chloroplasts

138.

When you breathe out, what reactant of photosynthesis are you exhaling?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Steam

d)

Glucose

139.

The transfer of pollen, containing the sperm cells, to the female part of the flower.

a)

seed dispersal

b)

pollination

c)

germination

d)

fertilization

140.

The part of the flower on which the pollen grains land

a)

pistil

b)

stamen

c)

stigma

d)

style

141.

The part of a flower that produces the male reproductive cells.

a)

anther

b)

stigma

c)

style

d)

filament

142.

The part of the plant that holds the plant in place and absorbs water and minerals from the soil.

a)

stem

b)

roots

c)

root cap

d)

leaves

143.

Which part of the plant makes the food?

a)

roots

b)

leaf

c)

stem

d)

flower

144.

What is the male part of the flower?

a)

Petals

b)

Sepals

c)

Stamen

d)

Pistil

145.

What is the female part of the flower?

a)

Petals

b)

Sepals

c)

Stamen

d)

Pistil

146.

Water travels ____ the plant, through the _____

a)

up, phloem

b)

down, phloem

c)

up, xylem

d)

down, xylem

147.

Glucose travels ______ the plant, through the ______

a)

up, phloem

b)

down, phloem

c)

up, xylem

d)

down, xylem

148.

Xylem and Phloem are both __.

a)

Transpiration

b)

Absorption

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Vascular tissue

149.

Opening that allows gas exchange, BUT results in water loss

a)

Leaves

b)

Stomata

c)

Roots

d)

Vascular tissue

150.

How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related?

a)

They have the same equation

b)

They both produce carbon dioxide

c)

They have opposite equations

d)

They both produce oxygen

151.

Primary growth is the result of growth of cells made by the

a)

cork cambium

b)

vascular cambium

c)

apical meristem

d)

primary xylem

152.

What does label 3 point to?

a)

leaves

b)

meristem

c)

fruit

d)

stem

153.

Through what part of the plant are gases such as CO2 and O2 able to enter and leave?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Roots

c)

Stomata

d)

Seeds

154.

Where are the seeds located on an adult plant?

a)

roots

b)

stem

c)

leaf

d)

flower

155.

Part of a plant that makes food

a)

roots

b)

stem

c)

flower

d)

leaves

156.

Part of a plant used for support and has tubes for carrying food, minerals, and water

a)

roots

b)

stem

c)

leaves

d)

flower

157.

Part of a plant that holds and protects seeds

a)

roots

b)

stem

c)

fruit

d)

leaves

158.

What is the purpose of petals on a flower?

a)

Soak in sunlight for photosynthesis

b)

Attract pollinators to transfer their pollen to other flowers

c)

Make seeds to reproduce more plants

159.

In which tissue does growth happen?

a)

Dermal

b)

Meristematic

c)

Ground

d)

Vascular

160.

If the stomata were damaged, what would be the effect?

a)

Plant cannot absorb water and oxygen from the air which would dry out the plant

b)

Plant cannot exchange oxygen for carbon dioxide which would decrease photosynthesis

c)

Glucose made in photosynthesis cannot get to the rest of the plant which would starve the plant

d)

Sunlight cannot reach the plant's tissues which would limit photosynthesis

161.

If xylem were damaged, what would be the effect?

a)

Plant would not be able to transport food down

b)

Plant would not be able to transport water up

c)

Plant cannot collect sunlight anymore

d)

Plant will become diseased and die

162.

If a closed container has 500 L of CO2 in it and a plant is placed inside, what will happen to the amount of CO2 in the container?

a)

It will increase

b)

It will decrease

c)

It will stay the same

163.

What allows you to move?

a)

Your mitochondria use respiration to create lipids to make you move

b)

Your mitochondria use respiration to create enzymes to make you move

c)

Your mitochondria use respiration to create proteins to make you move

d)

Your mitochondria use respiration to create ATP to make you move

Similar Resources on Wayground

PLANT PHYSIOLOGY COMBINED QUIZ

160 questions

PLANT PHYSIOLOGY COMBINED QUIZ

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

Biology Fall Final w photosynthesis

165 questions

Biology Fall Final w photosynthesis

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

EOC Study Guide

160 questions

EOC Study Guide

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Unit 3 Test Review

163 questions

Unit 3 Test Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Active and Passive Transport

161 questions

Active and Passive Transport

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

Topic 2 - Molecular Biology MEGA QUIZ

167 questions

Topic 2 - Molecular Biology MEGA QUIZ

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Ecology SC 30245 Feb 2022 M. 6/4

166 questions

Ecology SC 30245 Feb 2022 M. 6/4

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade

TN SInh

161 questions

TN SInh

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade