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Semester Review 3

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What makes up the SIDES of a DNA ladder?

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

sugars & phosphates

c)

genes & chromosomes

d)

RNA

2.

What makes up the rungs (MIDDLE) of a DNA ladder?

a)

sugars & phosphates

b)

nitrogen bases

c)

sugars

d)

genes & chromosomes

3.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
4.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
5.
Cytosine always pairs with
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Uracil
d)
Guanine
6.

What is the complement to the DNA strand below:
5'-ATGCCAT-3'

(a)  

7.
What is the significance of the sequence (order) of the Nitrogen Bases in DNA?
a)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the number of chromosomes present in an organism.
b)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the traits that an organism will possess (have).
c)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the gender of an organism.
d)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines whether an organism is abiotic biotic.
8.
Assume that you have straight hair and your sibling has curly hair. What accounts for this difference?
a)
You have DNA and your sibling does not.
b)

Your sequence of nitrogen bases is different than your sibling.

c)
Your sibling has a weave. 
d)
Your sibling has a genetic mutation. 
9.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
10.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
11.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
12.

What is a small section of DNA that codes for a specific protein called?

a)

RNA

b)

replication

c)

gene

d)

protein

13.

What do organisms have in common?

a)

DNA sequence made of A,C,T,G

b)

DNA sequence is in the same order

c)

DNA sequence between organisms have nothing in common

d)

DNA sequence made of A,U,C,T,G

14.

What is the outcome of DNA transcription and translation?

a)

Make muscles

b)

Make protein

c)

Make cells

d)

Make DNA

15.

What is true of RNA? (select all that apply)

a)

Single Strand

b)

Contains uracil

c)

Ribose Sugar

d)

Deoxyribose Sugar

16.

What is true of DNA?

a)

Double Helix

b)

Contains Thymine

c)

Deoxyribose Sugar

d)

Ribose Sugar

17.

Which amino acid will be added to a protein chain if the codon is UAA?

a)

Ser

b)

Lys

c)

Ala

d)

STOP

18.
What are proteins made of?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Amino acids
19.
What happens during transcription?
a)
DNA is made into amino acids
b)
DNA is made into mRNA
c)
DNA is made into a protein
20.
Where does translation take place?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Mitochondria
21.
What is process #1 and where is it located?
a)
transcription, nucleus
b)
translation, nucleus
c)
transcription, ribosomes
d)
translation, ribosomes
22.
What process is #2 and where is it located?
a)
transcription, nucleus
b)
translation, nucleus
c)
transcription, ribosomes
d)
translation, ribosomes
23.

What's does the question mark in the picture represent?

a)

mRNA

b)

amino acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Codon

e)

ribosome

24.

What's does the question mark in the picture represent?

a)

mRNA

b)

amino acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Codon

e)

ribosome

25.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
26.

What process is happening in the diagram?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

dna replication

d)

mitosis

27.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
28.
Transcribe this strand:
AACATG
a)
TTGTAC
b)
AAGTAC
c)
UUGUAC
d)
CGTACGU
29.
What is transcription?
a)
When DNA is turned into RNA
b)
When RNA is turned into proteins
c)
When proteins are turned into DNA
d)
When proteins are turned in RNA
30.
What is translation?
a)
When DNA is turned into RNA
b)
When RNA is turned into proteins
c)
When proteins are turned into DNA
d)
When proteins are turned in RNA
31.
Which is the organelle that makes proteins?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Rough ER
d)
Golgi Apparatus
32.
What is the correct order?
a)
Transcription then Translation
b)
Translation then transcription
c)
Translation then replication
d)
Replication then Translation
33.

Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?

a)

polysaccharides

b)

nucleotides

c)

fatty acids

34.

What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?

a)

the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases

b)

the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases

35.
Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication 
36.
What process is being shown here?
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
37.
ATCAGTGAT A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides that code for an amino acid. If the DNA sequence shown here goes through transcription and translation, how many amino acids will result from this sequence?
a)
5
b)
4
c)
2
d)
3
38.

What is the order for Protein Synthesis?

a)

Transcription -> Translation -> Protein

b)

Translation - > Transcription -> Protein

c)

Protein -> Transcription -> Translation

d)

Translation -> Protein -> Transcription

39.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
40.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
41.
The codon CCU codes for what amino acid?
a)
Isoleucine
b)
Stop
c)
Methionine
d)
Proline
42.
Which amino acid pairs with the codon AGA
a)
Thr
b)
Arg
c)
Ala
d)
Glu
43.

Arginine

a)

AAG

b)

AGG

c)

ACU

d)

CUG

e)

UAG

44.

lysine

a)

AAG

b)

AGG

c)

ACU

d)

CUG

e)

UAG

45.

Methionine

a)

AUG

b)

AGG

c)

ACU

d)

CUG

e)

UAG

46.

Proline

a)

AUG

b)

CAA

c)

ACU

d)

CCC

e)

UAG

47.
Question Image

Match the following

a)
UUU
1.
Phenyl-alanine
b)

UAG

2.

Stop

c)

AUG

3.

Methionine (Start)

d)

GUG

4.

Valine

e)

UGG

5.

Tryptophan

48.

What describes a change in the DNA sequence?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA replication

d)

Mutation

e)

Apoptosis

49.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

50.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base but still forms the same protein?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

51.

What type of mutation involves adding or deleting bases from the DNA, which results in new codons (a shift in the reading of the codons)?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

52.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC GAC TCG AAT

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation

d)

No mutation occurred

53.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC GTA CTT GAA T

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation due to adding extra base

d)

Frameshift mutation due to deletion of base

54.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation

d)

No mutation occurred

55.

What type of chromosomal mutation occurred?

a)

chromosomal insertion/duplication

b)

chromosomal deletion

c)

chromosomal inversion

d)

chromosomal translocation

56.

What type of chromosomal mutation occurred?

a)

chromosomal insertion/duplication

b)

chromosomal deletion

c)

chromosomal inversion

d)

chromosomal translocation

57.

What type of chromosomal mutation occurred?

a)

chromosomal insertion/duplication

b)

chromosomal deletion

c)

chromosomal inversion

d)

chromosomal translocation

58.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC ACT TGA AT

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation due to addition of base

d)

Frameshift mutation due to deletion of base

59.

What are considered "negative" mutations?

a)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and harms the organism

b)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and benefits the organism

c)

mutations in the DNA sequence that produces the same protein

d)

all mutations are considered bad and harm the organisms

60.

What are considered "positive" mutations?

a)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and harms the organism

b)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and benefits the organism

c)

mutations in the DNA sequence that produces the same protein

d)

all mutations are considered bad and harm the organisms

61.

Match the following

a)

Mutation

1.

a change in the DNA sequence

b)

Point mutation

2.

a type of mutation where one to few bases are substituted with different bases

c)

Frameshift mutation

3.

a type of mutation caused by adding or deleting bases, affecting all the codons after the change

d)

Silent mutation

4.

a type of mutation that doesn't result in a change in the amino acid sequence (same protein)

e)

Chromosomal mutation

5.

a type of mutation where large sections of the chromosome are affected

62.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
63.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
64.
AA and Aa always show up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
65.
aa always shows up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
66.
If B = brown hair and b = blonde hair, what is the probability of brown hair?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
75%
67.
In certain species of plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant to white flowers (p). If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what will be the phenotype of the offspring?
a)
100% purple flowers
b)
100% white flowers
c)
75% white flowers, 25% purple flowers
d)
25% white flowers, 75% purple flowers
68.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
69.

A male beetle has the genotype Ttbb. If this beetle mates with a female with genotype TTBb, what is the chance their offspring will have the genotype TtBb? [Type the answer in fraction]

(a)  

70.

Cross Two Homozygous plants

(RRYY x rryy)

R = round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds

What is the probability for an offspring to have Round and Yellow seeds? [Answer in fraction]

(a)  

71.

A white mouse with red eyes is crossed with a black mouse with brown eyes. The white mouse is recessive for both of its traits. The black mouse is dominant for both of its traits.

This cross would be

a)

BBEE x bbee

b)

BBEe x BbEe

c)

BbEE x BbEe

d)

BBee x BBEE

72.

In certain camels, one hump (H) is dominant over two humps (h) while long necks (N) are dominant over short necks (n). Cross a camel that is heterozygous for both traits with a camel that is homozygous recessive for hump & heterozygous for the neck.


What is the probability for an offspring to be homozygous recessive for both traits? [Answer in fraction]

(a)  

73.

A male alligator has the genotype RrAa. If this alligator mates with a female with genotype RrAa, what is the chance their offspring will have the genotype rrAa? [Type the answer in fraction]

(a)  

74.

Cross Two Homozygous plants

(RrYy x rrYy)

R = round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds

What is the probability for an offspring to have Wrinkled and Green seeds? [Answer in fraction]

(a)  

75.

The following pedigree chart shows _______ females and ______ males that DO NOT have the trait.

a)

7, 3

b)

4, 4

c)

3, 2

d)

3, 3

e)

57, 93.5

76.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
77.

What is the genotype of individual IV – 2?

a)

HH

b)

HY

c)

hh

d)

Yh

78.
Examine the pedigree. The allele for the presence of a widow’s peak is dominant. Therefore, we can tell from the chart that in the couple labeled 2:
a)
the male is heterozygous and the female is homozygous.
b)
the male is homozygous and the female is heterozygous.
c)
the male is homozygous and the female is homozygous.
d)
the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.
79.
If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, what genotype would individual III-3 have?
a)
XbX
b)
XbXb
c)
XbYb
d)
XbY
80.

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease .


Study the pedigree what are the possible genotypes of #10? (more than one answer)

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAXa

81.

What is the genotype of the mother? Hint Draw a punnett square

a)

BB

b)

bb

c)

Bb

d)

BB or Bb

82.

Brown is dominant to green. What is the probability of these parents having green offspring?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

83.

What would go into punnet square 1

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

all choices

84.

The genotype of this flower is....

a)

homozygous recessive

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

white

85.

This type of inheritance pattern is a BLEND of both phenotypes.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

Mendelian dominance

d)

complete dominance

86.

Incomplete dominance or co-dominance?

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur.

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Co-dominance

c)

Complete dominance

d)

Mendelian dominance

87.

A breed of chicken shows codominance for feather color. One allele codes for black feathers, another codes for white feathers. The feathers of heterozygous chickens of this breed will be....

a)

all black

b)

all white

c)

all gray

d)

speckled black and white

88.

An individual can be blood group A, B, AB, or O. What type of inheritance is this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Mendelian dominance

d)

Complete dominance

89.

A man with type O blood is accused of being the father of a type B baby. The mother is type A. Could this man be the father? Draw a Punnett square if it helps you.

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

90.
Which of the following is purebred?
a)
AA
b)
oo
c)
Ao
d)
Both AA and oo
91.
If two parents are heterozygous for type A blood, what is the probability that their offspring would have type O blood?
a)
100 %
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
92.
If a father is AA and a mother is AB, what is the probability for a child with AB blood? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
93.
If two parents have type AB blood, what is the probability that their child will have type O blood?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
94.
Jim has type AB blood. His dad could be type O.
a)
True
b)
False
95.
If one of your parents is blood type A and the other is type B, which of the following blood types would you likely be?
a)
O
b)
AB
c)
A or B
d)
Any
96.
If two parents are heterozygous for type A blood, what is the probability that their offspring would have type O blood?
a)
100 %
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
97.

The pelvic bone of whales is not needed for movement within the water. This is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

98.

The forelimbs of mammals have similar anatomy because these groups descended from a recent common ancestor. Their bone structure is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

99.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

100.

Below are the % similarities of DNA between whales and other species. Based on this, which are whales most closely related to?

a)

Pig, 68.4%

b)

Hippo, 83.4%

c)

Mouse, 38.4%

101.

How does embryology support the Theory of Evolution?

a)

It shows that embryos who develop similarly share a common ancestor

b)

It shows that embryos who develop similarly are not related to one another

c)

It shows that organisms have the ability to evolve, or change, over time

102.

What did Darwin notice about the Finches in the Galapagos?

a)

the size and shape of beak was different depending on the food source of each island

b)

the size of finch was different depending on the habitat of each island

c)

the shape and size of beak was the same

d)

the size of finch was the same but the color was different

103.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
104.
How do fossils provide evidence that evolution has happened on Earth?
a)
Fossils show how the sizes of certain animals has changed drastically over millions of years
b)
Fossils show that some species have gone extinct
c)
Fossils show how life forms present today are different than those from the past
d)
Different sedimentary rock layers provide evidence for how the environment has changed over time
105.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.

Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
106.

Vestigial structures

a)

structures that perform a similar function but are not similar in origin

b)

remnants of once-important structures that have slowly lost all or most of their function

c)

features found in different organisms that share structural similarities but may have very different functions

d)

preserved remains of an organism

107.

What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the whale?

a)

The bones are analogous structures to the fins of living fish.

b)

The bones are vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor.

c)

The bones are homologous structures to the wings of butterflies.

d)

The bones are fossil structures from an extinct ancestor.

108.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
109.

Two organisms that are closely related would have

a)

Very similar DNA sequences

b)

Very different DNA sequences

c)

The same exact DNA sequences

d)

No similarity in DNA

110.

this evidence provides proof of what life existed in the past. These show animals that were once alive and now completely excitinct, and animals that still have living relatives today. The higher up the animal is in the rock, the more similar it is to todays species.

a)

Genetics

b)

fossil records

c)

anatomy

d)

patterns of distribution

111.

What is the best way to determine the evolutionary relationships between species?

a)

by comparing their bone structures

b)

by comparing their physical appearance

c)

by comparing the amino acid sequences of their proteins or DNA

d)

by comparing fossils that resemble the organisms to identify common ancestors

112.

The table shows the number of differences between the amino acid sequence in the hemoglobin molecules of several different species compared with the amino acid sequence in human hemoglobin. Using this data, which organism is most related to humans?

Responses

a)

frog

b)

gorilla

c)

horse

d)

pig

113.

What

type

of structure?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Embryological

d)

Vestigial

114.

What

type

of structure?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Embryological

d)

Vestigial

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