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2nd Nine Weeks Review

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 25hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The cell membrane main purpose is...

a)

Selective Permeability

b)

Energy Production

c)

Locomotive

d)

Looking good

2.
Where in the cell does cell respiration occur?
a)
chloroplast 
b)
central vacuole 
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
3.
This organic molecule is the main component of biological membranes.....
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids 
c)
proteins 
d)
nucleic acids
4.
Which of the following is found in plant cells but not in animal cells? 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cell Wall 
d)
Ribosomes 
5.
What plant organelle is used to make sugars?
a)
Cell wall 
b)
Mitochondria 
c)
Chloroplast 
d)
Vacuole
6.
Which part of the cell is often called "the brain of the cell"?
a)
nuclear membrane
b)
endoplasmic reticulum
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
7.

What is the outer most part of a cell?

a)

cell wall

b)

nucleus

c)

cell membrane

d)

cell skin

8.
Which organelle uses energy from sunlight to make sugar?
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleus
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
9.

True or False: Lipids are insoluble

a)

True

b)

False

10.

True or False: The main function of a lipid is to store energy.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The units of protein are

a)

Amino acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Fatty acid

d)

Peptides

12.

The structure of a Plasma Membrane has what 2 parts

a)

Made of Phospholipid Bilayer

b)

Glycerol

c)

2 Layers of lipids + proteins + carbohydrates

d)

Fatty Acids

13.

Condensed Chromatin

a)

Nucleaus

b)

Microfilaments

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Flagella

14.

Match the following

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

1.

Membrane system of folded sacs and interconnected channels

b)

Rough ER

2.

Synthesizes Proteins

c)

Smooth ER

3.

Synthesizes Lipids; detoxifies drugs

d)

Golgi Apparatus

4.

Modify, Sort & Package Proteins (FedEx of the Cell)

e)

Vesicles

5.

Membrane bound sacs used for transport - (semi-trucks)

15.

Match the following

a)

Mitochondria

1.

Converts chemical energy from food into a usable form - (power plant)

b)

Vacuoles

2.

Storage containers - Only found in plant cells

c)

Lysomes

3.

Breakdown lipids, carbs, proteins (Recycling center)

d)

Centrome

4.

Small region of cell that produces microtubles

e)

Centrioles

5.

Short microtubles arragned in a cylindrical tube

16.

Match the following

a)

Passive Transport

1.

No energy required from the cell

b)

Diffusion

2.

Net movement of particles from an area of high concentration to low

c)

Dynamic Equilibrium

3.

Continuous movement of molecules, BUT, no overall change

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

4.

Diffusion through transport proteins

e)

Osmosis

5.

Diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane

17.

Match the following

a)

Isotonic

1.

Soln. w/ same concentration of solutes as cytoplasm

b)

Hypertonic

2.

Soln w/ higher concentration of solutes than cytoplams

c)

Hypotonic

3.

Soln w/ lower concentration of solutes than cytoplasm

18.

Active Transport Requires: (3)

a)

Energy

b)

Against concentration gradient

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Molecular Transport - through transport proteins or pumps

19.

2 parts of Active Transport

a)

Osmosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Isotonic

20.

Match the following

a)

Endocytosis

1.

Taking in material by folding membrane inward

b)

Phagocytosis

2.

Taking in FOOD

c)

Pinocytosis

3.

Taking in LIQUID

d)

Exocytosis

4.

Forcing materials OUT of the cells

e)

Cytoplasm

5.

Semifluid materials inside the membrane

21.

Match the following

a)

Robert Hook

1.

Coined the term "cell"

b)

Anton von Leeuwenhoek

2.

1st to see microscoptic pond life

c)

Cell Theory

3.

All cells come from preexisting cells

d)

Fluid mosaic model

4.

parts of a cell membrane can slide and move passed each other

e)

Cell membrane

5.

Outer covering of a cell

22.

Match the following

a)

Robert Hook

1.

Coined the term "cell"

b)

Anton von Leeuwenhoek

2.

1st to see microscoptic pond life

c)

Cell Theory

3.

All cells come from preexisting cells

d)

Fluid mosaic model

4.

parts of a cell membrane can slide and move passed each other

e)

Cell membrane

5.

Outer covering of a cell

23.

Match the following

a)

Fatty Acid Tails

1.

Phospholipid bilayer that repeals wateer

b)

Selective Permiability

2.

cell membranes only allow certain things to pass in and out

c)

Mitochondria

3.

Provides energy to the cell

d)

Nucleus

4.

Cell growth, DNA and reproduction

e)

Cytoplasm

5.

Water based where all organelles are suspended

24.

Match the following

a)

Cell membrane

1.

Oraganelle that seperates the interior of the cell from the outside

b)

mitochondria

2.

Organelle has it's own DNA stored in it

c)

golgi bodies

3.

Organelle functions to package and deliver proteins

d)

ribosome

4.

Organelle that is a protein factory

e)

a phospholipid bilayer

5.

all organelles are contained in it

25.

Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

26.

Where does transcription take place in EUKARYOTIC cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

27.

What is the difference between the sugar in DNA and RNA?

a)

In DNA, the sugar is Deoxyribose while in RNA the sugar is Ribose

b)

In DNA, the sugar is Ribose while in RNA the sugar is Deoxyribose

c)

In DNA, it is a 5 carbon sugar while in RNA it is only a 4 carbon sugar.

d)

There is no difference between the sugars

28.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence into RNA: AUG CGC TCT

a)

AUG CAA UGA

b)

ATG CAA TGA

c)

UAC GCG AGA

d)

TAC GTT ACT

29.

Where does transcription take place in PROKARYOTIC cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

30.

Nucleic acids are the building blocks of...

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Atoms

d)

Nucleotides

31.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
32.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence into RNA: TAC GTT ACT

a)

AUG CAA UGA

b)

ATG CAA TGA

c)

AUG GAT UGA

d)

TAC GTT ACT

33.

How many nucleotides equal make up a codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

34.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur in EUKARYOTIC cells?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

35.

Which RNA carries the message from the DNA molecule out of the nucleus?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

36.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
37.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
38.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
39.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
40.

Transcribe the following DNA sequence into RNA:


AAT TAG GGC TCG

a)

AAT TAG GGC TCG

b)

TTA ATC CCG AGC

c)

UUA AUC CCG AGC

d)

TTU UTC CCG UGC

41.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
42.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
43.
What is the monomer of carbohydrates?
a)
Amino Acid
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Triglyceride
d)
Monosaccharide
44.
Proteins are made of:
a)

Amino Acids

b)

Fatty Acids

c)

Nucleotids

d)

Monosaccharides

45.
What type of molecule is this?
a)

protein

b)

carbohydrate

c)

lipid

d)

nucleic acid

46.

This is a nucelotide monomer. What polymer is made when these monomers are joined together?

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrate

c)

lipid

d)

nucleic acid

47.

Unsaturated fats are lipids that are ____ at room temperature?

a)

solid.

b)

liquid.

c)

gas.

48.

All of the following are functions of proteins EXCEPT

a)

catalyze/speed up chemical reactions

b)

provide quick energy

c)

make up muscles, hair, and bones

d)

support the immune system

49.

What happens to an enzyme when it denatures?

a)

The activation energy of the reaction is doubled.

b)

The activation energy of the reaction is lowered.

c)

It's optimal conditions for temperature of the enzyme are doubled.

d)

The shape of the enzyme molecule is changed.

50.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
51.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
52.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
53.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
54.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
55.
Which of these is most likely an enzyme?  
a)
Sucrose
b)
Galactose
c)
Fructose
d)
Amylase
56.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
57.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
58.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
59.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
60.

Which 2 factors can affect the rate of enzyme activity?

a)

Light intensity

b)

Temperature

c)

pH

d)

Oxygen concentration

61.

Cellular respiration is the process that releases energy from food in the presence of

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

glucose

d)

ATP

62.

The first set of reactions in cellular respiration is

a)

the Krebs cycle

b)

electron transport

c)

glycolysis

d)

the Calvin cycle

63.

Which stage of cellular respiration is an anaerobic process?

a)

the Krebs cycle

b)

electron transport

c)

glycolysis

d)

the Calvin cycle

64.
Occurs when a person has an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

a)
Down syndrome
b)
Huntington's disease
c)
Parkinson's disease
d)
Zika syndrome
65.
A chart that tracks which members of a family have a particular trait.
a)
pedigree
b)
genetic diagram
c)
manuscript
d)
flow chart
66.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
67.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
68.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ---

a)

not affected female.

b)

not affected male.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

69.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

70.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
71.
There are no carriers for Huntington's Disease- you either have it or you don't. Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
72.

What is the gender of this person?

a)

Male

b)

Female

73.

What phase is shown here? Hint: you are starting to see the nuclear membrane again!

a)

Metaphase II

b)

Telophase I

c)

Telophase II

d)

Metaphase I

74.

What phase is this?


Hint: membrane is disappearing

a)

Interphase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

75.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
Anaphase I
76.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Anaphase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Anaphase I
d)
Telophase II
77.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Telophase II
b)
Anaphase II
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Interphase I
78.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Anaphase I
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
 Metaphase I
79.
What phases is shown here?
a)
Prophase II
b)
Prophase I
c)
Anaphase II
d)
Interphase I
80.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Telophase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Telophase II
d)
Anaphase I
81.
What process is shown here?
a)
Genetic Randomization
b)
Cross Over
c)
Allele Switching
d)
Cross Pollination
82.
When does the process shown here happen?
a)
Prophase I
b)
Anaphase II
c)
Interphase II
d)
Telophase I
83.

CROSSING OVER INCREASES

a)

LIFE SPAN

b)

GENETIC VARIATION

c)

THE NUMBER OF OFF-SPRING

d)

ALL ARE TRUE

84.
The correct order of the phases of mitosis and meiosis could be abbreviated as:
a)
MAPT
b)
PAMT
c)
TPAM
d)
PMAT
85.

Is this person a male or female?

a)

Male

b)

Female

86.

Is this a male or female?

a)

Male

b)

Female

87.

Karyotypes are pictures of

a)

Cells

b)

Specific genes

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Proteins

88.
A change in DNA or chromosomes
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
mutation
d)
Osmosis
89.

Label #2 is likely the...

a)

Centromere

b)

p-arm

c)

q-arm

d)

Telomere

e)

Chromomere

90.

How many chromosomes are in this image?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

91.

Together these TWO chromosomes are called _______ chromosomes

a)

Homologous

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Parental

d)

Autosomal

92.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

93.
What is the haploid number for this Karyotype?
a)
26
b)
27
c)
52
d)
54
94.

Which would be considered a gamete ?

a)

Sperm cell

b)

Egg Cell

c)

Skin Cell

d)

All of these

95.

How many chromosomes are in a typical human somatic (body) cell?

a)

23

b)

22

c)

44

d)

46

96.
a)

This karyotype shows an extra chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21)

b)

This karyotype has no abnormality

c)

This karyotype is missing a sex chromosome (monosomy x)

d)

This karyotype is from a gamete

97.
a)

This karyotype shows an extra chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21)

b)

This karyotype has no abnormality

c)

This karyotype is missing a sex chromosome (monosomy x)

d)

This karyotype is from a gamete

98.
This karyotype contains an error.  What is it?
a)

An extra sex chromosome

b)

A missing sex chromosome

c)

A missing autosome (Monosomy)

d)

An extra autosome (Trisomy)

99.
This image shows a mutation where the DNA does not divide equally. What is this mutation called?
a)
Point
b)
Nondisjunction 
c)
Substitution
d)
Silent 
100.

When red cows are crossed with white cow, the offspring have a mix of red hair and white hair. These cows are called roan. This is an example of:

a)

complete dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

polygenic inheritance

e)

multiple alleles

101.

When red snapdragons are crossed with white snapdragons, the offspring produce pink flowers. This is an example of:

a)

complete dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

polygenic inheritance

e)

multiple alleles

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