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PWSH A&P Fall Exam Review

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The arrow is pointing which direction?

a)

medial

b)

lateral

2.

What plane is the line showing

a)

median

b)

transverse

c)

dorsal

d)

sagittal

3.

The RED arrow is _______to the other arrow

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

4.
My heart is ______________ to my spinal cord.
a)
Posterior
b)
Anterior
c)
inferior
d)
superior
5.
My lungs are ______________ to my small intestine.
a)
Posterior
b)
Anterior
c)
inferior
d)
superior
6.
A __________________ plane divides the body into front and back
a)
sagital
b)
frontal
c)
transverse
d)
oblique
7.

Which is the correct order of the levels of complexity, from largest to smallest?

a)

Organism-Organ System-Organs-Tissues-Cells-Cell Structure-Molecules-Atoms

b)

Organs-Cells-Cells Structure-Tissues-Organism

c)

Atoms-Molecules-Cell Structure-Cells-Tissues-Organs-Organ System-Organism

d)

Organism-Organs-Cells-Atoms

8.

Stem cells are ____________________.

a)

cells that grow uncontrollably

b)

undifferentiated cells that can turn into other types of cells

c)

the first cells of a new living organism (fertilized egg)

d)

specialized cells that do one job

9.
Failure to maintain homeostasis could result in:
a)
lack of internal balance
b)
eventual death
c)
difficulty carrying on metabolism 
d)
all three
10.
The two types of feedback systems that help organisms maintain homeostasis are:
a)
positive and negative 
b)
receptor and effector
c)
static and dynamic
d)
minor and major
11.
When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. 
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
12.

The function of the digestive system is to...

a)

support and protection

b)

deliver oxygen to the cells and remove waste

c)

move the body

d)

break down food

13.

What is the function of the respiratory system?

a)

bring in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

b)

break down food

c)

helps all parts of the body to communicate with other parts

d)

maintain fluid levels in the body

14.

The function of the circulatory systems is to...

a)

deliver oxygen to the cells and remove waste from the cells

b)

break down food

c)

support and protection

d)

move the body

15.

What is the definition of ACTIVE TRANSPORT?

a)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient

b)

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

c)

Molecular structure that surrounds the cell and controls what enters and leaves the cell

d)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration

16.

What is the name of 'A' found on the structure below

a)

Lipid Bilayer (cell membrane)

b)

Protein

c)

Phosphate hydrophilic heads

d)

Lipid hydrophobic tails

17.

What is the name of 'B' found on the structure below

a)

Protein

b)

Lipic bilayer

c)

Phosphate hydrophilic heads

d)

Lipid hydrophobic heads

18.
Solutes move with the concentration gradient, therefore no energy is used. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
19.
Which is true about active transport?
a)
It requires energy
b)
it does not require energy
c)
It moves substances down the concentration gradient
d)
it moves material from high to low concentration
20.
Which of the following is not a primary function of blood?
a)
help fight disease
b)
transports nutrients, oxygen, wastes, and hormones
c)
to provide structure 
d)
distributes heat
21.

A condition that develops when your blood lacks enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin

a)

Lymphatic System

b)

Not Anemia

c)

Platelets

d)

Anemia

22.
Which blood type can receive any other blood type?
a)
Type-A
b)
Type-B
c)
Type-O
d)
Type-AB
23.
If a red blood cell has antigen A on its surface, what is its blood type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
24.

Which blood type has Type A antibodies?

a)

Type AB

b)

Type O

c)

Type B

d)

Type B and Type O

25.

Which statement correctly describes the activities of the components of human blood shown in the diagram?

a)

Both A and B function in immune responses, and C transports oxygen

b)

A, B, and C are able to synthesize hemoglobin

c)

Both B and C provide immunity, and A transports nutrients

d)

A transports oxygen, B starts clots, and C functions in immune response to fight infections

26.

a type of cancer that results in an abnormal production of leukocytes (WBC); can be treated by a bone marrow transplant

a)

leukemia

b)

anemia

c)

stroke

d)

embolus

27.

occurs when a blood clot breaks away and floats freely in the bloodstream clogging critical areas such as brain and lungs

a)

stroke

b)

aneurysm

c)

thrombus

d)

embolus

28.

If a person is of blood type B+, which blood types can she receive blood from? (more than one answer)

a)

B-

b)

AB-

c)

O+

d)

B+

e)

O-

29.

If an Rh negative mom is carrying a Rh positive baby, what is the name of the disorder that would put her 2nd baby at risk?

a)

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn - HBN; aka Erythroblastosis Fetalis

b)

Leukemia

c)

Hemophilia

d)

Sickle cell anemia

30.
Name this part.
a)
Right ventricle
b)
Pulmonary artery
c)
Left ventricle
d)
Right atrium
31.
Which side of the heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body?
a)
Right
b)
Left
32.
Name the part.
a)
Pulmonary vein
b)
Right atrium
c)
Aorta
d)
Pulmonary artery
33.
This chamber of the heart PUMPS blood to the body.
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Right Ventricle
c)
Left Atrium
d)
Left Ventricle
34.

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension:

a)

120/80

b)

110/60

c)

170/96

d)

140/90 in a 60-year-old woman

35.

Hannah, Grace, and Evelyn are studying the human heart in their biology class. They learned about the SA node and its functions. According to their study, what is the function of the SA node in the heart?

a)

To regulate blood pressure

b)

To generate electrical impulses and regulate heart rhythm

c)

To filter blood in the kidneys

d)

To produce red blood cells

36.

The correct blood flow through the heart is:

a)

Body - RA - RV - lungs - LA - LV - body

b)

Body - LA - LV - lungs - RA - RV - body

c)

Body - RV - RA - lungs - LV - LA - body

d)

Body - LV - LA - lungs - RV - RA - body

37.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

1 degree heart block

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

d)

2nd Degree Type I heart block

38.

What is the ECG showing

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal sinus rhythm

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

39.

The ambulance is bringing in a client in cardiac arrest. When they arrive in the room a rhythm check is done and the client is in this rhythm. What is your priority?

a)

Defibrillate

b)

Synchronize cardioversion

c)

Administer Epinephrine 1 mg IVP

d)

Perform CPR

40.

Which best describes this rhythm?

a)

Asystole

b)

PEA

c)

Ventricular Tachycardia

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

41.

Identify the rhythm

a)

WPW

b)

Ventircular tachycardia

c)

SVT

d)

Atrial flutter

42.
A disorder of the lungs called ____ causes the bronchi to become restricted (get smaller) so air can't get to the lungs.
a)
asthma 
b)
cold
c)
influenza 
d)
bronchitis 
43.
In the process of breathing, during what stage does the movement of the diaphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity?
a)
Internal respiration
b)
External respiration
c)
Inspiration
d)
Experation
44.
Mr. Arnot is a heavy smoker with a chronic cough, bluish tint to his skin, and a barrel chest. He MOST LIKELY suffers from:
a)
Emphysema
b)
Epistaxis
c)
Tuberculosis
d)
Pleurisy
45.
What is the volume that remains in the lungs even after a forceful exhale
a)
expiratory reserve
b)
residual volume
c)
inspiratory reserve
d)
total lung capacity
46.
What muscles are used in breathing in and breathing out?
a)
diaphragm and intercostals
b)
diaphragm and lungs
c)
lungs and ribs
d)
lungs and diaphragm
47.
What is the volume of one breath called?
a)
minute ventilation
b)
inspiratory capacity
c)
tidal volume
d)
vital capacity
48.
The amount of air you can force out after a normal breath out
a)
Expiratory Reserve
b)
Functional Residual Capacity
c)
Vital Capacity
d)
Inspiratory Capacity
49.
The amount of air you can still inhale after a normal breath in
a)
Vital Capacity
b)
Inspiratory Reserve
c)
Functional Residual Capacity
d)
Inspiratory Capacity
50.
The maximum air you can get in and out of your lungs
a)
Vital Capacity
b)
Total Lung Capacity
c)
Residual Volume
d)
Inspiratory Reserve Volume
51.
When the diaphragm contracts...
a)
the volume of the thoracic cavity increases and the pressure decreases, causing air to rush into the lungs.
b)
the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases and the pressure increases causing air to rush out of the lungs. 
52.

Difficulty in breathing which progressively worsens over time usually due to Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

a)

influenza

b)

pneumonia

c)

dyspnea

d)

tuberculosis

53.

Excessive ventilation that leads to abnormal expulsion of carbon dioxide.

a)

chronic bronchitis

b)

hyperventilation

c)

emphysema

d)

asthma

54.

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs.

a)

inspiration

b)

expiration

c)

internal respiration

d)

external respiration

55.

The process of diffusing oxygen from the blood, into the interstitial fluid and into the cells.

a)

inspiration

b)

expiration

c)

internal respiration

d)

external respiration

56.

Involuntary muscle contractions that move food.

a)

Chemical breakdown

b)

Flexion

c)

Swallowing

d)

Peristalsis

57.

What is the first Nutrient that is broken down in the digestion process?

a)

Fats

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Fiber

58.

Where does MOST of the digestion process occur?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Mouth

c)

Stomach

d)

Large Intestine

e)

Colon

59.

What chemical breaks down Fat?

a)

Water

b)

Saliva

c)

Sodium

d)

Bile

60.

What are proteins made of?

a)

amino acids

b)

minerals

c)

sugars

d)

vitamins

61.

What is the correct order for how food is processed in the digestive system?

a)

digestion, absorption, ingestion, elimination

b)

digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination

c)

ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion

d)

ingestion, digestion, absorption, eilmination

62.

Which process depends on enzymes?

a)

chemical digestion

b)

elimination

c)

mechanical digestion

d)

absorption

63.

Which of the following are true of villi? (select all that apply)

a)

Found in stomach and small intestine

b)

Small, fingerlike projections

c)

Increase surface area

d)

Aid peristalsis

64.
What organ does Cirrhosis affect?
a)
Pancreas 
b)
Liver
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
65.

An autoimmune disease to which some people have a genetic predisposition. It involves the small intestine and usually produces issues with the digestive process, although it can cause a wide range of symptoms. There is no cure, the only way to manage the condition is to adopt a gluten-free diet.

a)

Crohn's Disease

b)

Nausea

c)

Burpring/Gas

d)

Celiac Disease

66.

a chronic inflammatory disease of the intestines, especially the colon and ileum, associated with ulcers and fistulae.

a)

Constipation

b)

Crohn's Disease

c)

Celiac Disease

d)

Ulcer

67.

What causes diarrhea?

a)

Stress and anxiety

b)

Lack of fiber in diet

c)

Insufficient intake of water

d)

Bacterial or viral infections

68.

My brother suffers from constipation and hemorrhoids. His doctor will perform a(n) ___ to find the problem.

a)

CT scan

b)

fMRI

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

MRI

69.

Joe is 15 years old. He normally plays football any time he can, but lately says he is too tired. Even though he is more hungry and thirsty than usual and is eating and drinking more, he has lost a significant amount of weight. He most likely has:

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Pre-diabetes

70.

Lack of voluntary control over urination:

a)

Oliguria

b)

Retention

c)

Incontinence

d)

Pyuria

71.

Painful urination:

a)

Incontinence

b)

Retention

c)

Dysuria

d)

Oliguria

72.

If someone has hematuria, they are experiencing

a)

pus in the urine

b)

blood in the urine

c)

glucose in the urine

d)

urea in the urine

73.

Glycosuria is

a)

protein in the urine

b)

glucose in the urine

c)

blood in the urine

d)

ketones in the urine

74.

a urine sample that has high concentration due to dehydration would have

a)

high specific gravity

b)

low specific gravity

c)

high pH

d)

low pH

75.

Filtering blood to remove excess water and waste products is the job of the:

a)

kidneys

b)

ureters

c)

urinary bladder

76.

A fruity odor in the urine may indicate:

a)

diabetes

b)

infection

c)

high protein diet

77.

Foul smelling, cloudy urine can indicate:

a)

pregnancy

b)

infection

c)

diabetes

78.

Filtrate is created during...

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Tubular Reabsorption

c)

Tubular secretion

d)

Micturition

79.

The process of __________ moves substances from the filtrate to the blood.

a)

Filtration

b)

Reabsorption

c)

Secretion

d)

Excretion

80.

Which of the following is where reabsorption of glucose and amino acids occur?

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Collecting duct

81.

Which of the following are partially reabsorbed by the nephron? Select all that apply.

a)

Glucose

b)

Salt

c)

Urea

d)

Water

e)

Red blood cells

82.

What letter is identifying the site of filtration?

a)

A

b)

H

c)

M

d)

K

e)

J

83.

Which substance(s) is/are NORMALLY found in urine?

a)

urea

b)

proteins

c)

blood cells

d)

sugar

e)

all of these

84.
What do kidneys filter?
a)
ammonia
b)
nitrogenous wastes
c)
urine
d)
blood
85.
What is the top layer of the skin called?
a)
Dermis
b)
Hypodermis
c)
Epidermis
d)
Subcutaneous
86.
The structure that holds the root of the hair firmly in place.
a)
Hair follicle
b)
Hair shaft
c)
Hypodermis
d)
Sweat pore
87.
The main function(s) of the skin is to:___________
a)
hold in water
b)
protect from infection
c)
provide the sense of touch
d)
All of the above
88.
Goosebumps are caused by contractions of the ______ muscle
a)
Arrector pili
b)
Apocrine
c)
Eccrine
d)
Sebaceous
89.
Sweating to regulate body temperature is an example of
a)
negative feedback
b)
positive feedback
c)
a homeostatic imbalance
d)
aging
90.

What is number 5?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Sebaceous Gland

d)

Sudoriferous Gland

91.

What is number 3?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hypodermis/subcutaneous

d)

Artery

92.

What is number 8?

a)

Sebaceous gland

b)

Hypodermis

c)

Sudoriferous gland

d)

Vein

93.

______burns involve the epidermis and dermis. Symptoms include redness, pain, swelling, and blisters.

a)

first degree

b)

no degree

c)

second degree

d)

Fourth degree

94.

_____cancer is the most common cancer, and it is associated with sun exposure.

a)

squamous

b)

basal

c)

skin

d)

melanoma

95.

The reason your face and body may become red when you exercise is...

a)

Blood vessels in the skin constrict to slow blood flow and retain heat

b)

Blood vessels in the skin expand to increase blood flow and release heat

c)

Blood vessels in the skin burst open to release extra nutrients

d)

The heat made when you exercise "cooks" your skin cells

96.

Which of the following increases your risk for having melanoma?

a)

Having darker skin

b)

Being exposed to UV light

c)

Using sunscreen

d)

Being young

97.

Which of the following reduces your risk of developing melanoma?

a)

Using tanning beds

b)

Using sunscreen

c)

Getting sunburned

d)

Not wearing hats or protective clothing

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