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My CS Class's Pre-Suffering

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

De Broglie equation

a)

relates the momentum of a mass to its wavelength

b)

relates the energy of a mass to its wavelength

c)

relates the frequency of a mass to its wavelength

d)

relates the work function of a mass to its wavelength

2.

An electron is moving freely with kinetic energy 10 eV. It's de-Broglie wavelength is

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.

The equation which links Energy to wavelength is...

a)

E=hfE=hf

b)

E=hfλE=\frac{hf}{\lambda}

c)

E=hcλE=\frac{hc}{\lambda}

d)

c=fλc=f\lambda

4.

Name the scientist who created an equation to treat the electron as a wave

a)

Planck

b)

Heisenberg

c)

de Broglie

d)

Schrodinger

5.

The SI unit of frequency is the __________.

a)

meter

b)

second

c)

hertz

d)

meter per second

6.

find the correct applications of quantum mechanics.

a)

Quantum mechanics is used to explain the concept of

photoelectric effect.

b)

The atomic structure and the origin of spectral lines are explained by Bohr based on quantum concepts.

c)

The phenomenon like Scattering of X-rays are

explained by Compton based on quantum ideas.

d)

Based on quantum ideas, the problem

of specific heat of solids at low temperature

is explained successfully.

7.

This equation represents Schrodinger's

a)

time independent in 3-d for free particle.

b)

time independent in 3-d.

c)

time dependent in 1-d for free particle.

d)

time dependent in 1-d.

8.

Which one is correct Schrodinger time independent equation

a)

[∇2 ψ + 2m (E –V) ψ] / ħ2 = 1

b)

[∇2 ψ + m (E –V) ψ] / ħ2 = 0

c)

[∇2 ψ + 2m (E –V) ψ] / ħ2 = 0

d)

[∇2 ψ + 2m (E –V) ψ] / ħ = 0

9.

How do you combine vectors if they are in opposite directions?

a)

Add

b)

Subtract (or add a negative)

c)

Pythagorean Theorem

d)

Use trigonometry

10.

What is the resultant force?

a)

10 N

b)

30 N

c)

20 N

d)

40 N

11.

What is the resultant force?

a)

30 N

b)

60 N

c)

0 N

d)

90 N

12.

Examples of vector quantity are __________________ (You can tick more than one answer)

a)

displacement

b)

speed

c)

velocity

d)

acceleration

13.

Lilly is paddling in her kayak 3 m/s East in a river that has a current of 0.5 m/s West. What is her resultant velocity?

a)

2.5 m/s East

b)

3.5 m/s East

c)

2.5 m/s West

14.

Bob walks 4 miles west and stops to rest. He then continues to walk another 3 miles west. What is his displacement?

a)

7 miles west

b)

1 mile west

c)

12 miles west

d)

7 miles east

15.

Three vectors are added following the rules of vector addition. A fourth vector is drawn from the tail of the first vector to the head of the last vector. This fourth vector is referred to as ____.

a)

the equilibrant

b)

the hypotenuse

c)

the resultant

d)

the mistake

16.

A vector includes ______ and ________.

a)

direction, magnitude

b)

magnitude, units

c)

direction, units

d)

scalars, scalars

17.
Velocity
a)
Vector
b)
Scalar
18.
Force
a)
Vector
b)
Scalar
19.
A quantity that has both magnitude and direction is called a scalar quantity.
a)
True
b)
False
20.
If v =〈a,b〉, then a is the ___________ component of v.
a)
vertical
b)
horizontal
c)
parallel
d)
slope
21.
If v =〈a,b〉 , then _____ is the vertical component of v.
a)
a
b)
i
c)
b
d)
j
22.
Given F1 = 〈3, 4〉 , what is the magnitude of F1?
a)
5
b)
7
c)
25
d)
undefined
23.
Which vector does not have magnitude 10?
a)
〈-6,-8〉
b)
〈6,-8〉
c)
〈6,4〉
d)
〈6,8〉
24.
Given v = 〈3,-5〉 and w = 〈-2,3〉, what is 2v?
a)
〈6,-10〉
b)
〈1,-2〉
c)
〈0,-1〉
d)
none of these
25.
Given v = 〈3,-5〉 and w = 〈-2,3〉, what is v + w?
a)
〈6,-10〉
b)
〈1,-2〉
c)
〈0,-1〉
d)
none of these
26.

What below is NOT considered matter?

a)

Carbon atoms

b)

Gravity

c)

Bacteria

d)

Air

27.

Matter is anything that.....

a)

Has mass and takes up space

b)

Has mass and is visible

c)

Takes up space and has energy

d)

Has energy and is visible

28.

What particle view below is a mixture?

a)

b)

c)

d)

29.

What is the best classification for this substance?

a)

An element

b)

A compound

c)

A mixture

30.

Is this a pure substance?

a)

Yes

b)

No

31.

What is the best classification of this substance?

a)

An element

b)

A compound

c)

A mixture of 2 elements

d)

A mixture of 2 compounds

32.

How would you name this sample? T = triangle, Sq = square, C = circle.

a)

T + Sq + C

b)

TC + Sq

c)

TC4 + Sq3

d)

TCSq

33.

What is an example of a physical property?

a)

Silver is shiny

b)

Alcohols are flammable

c)

Alkali metals are reactive with water

d)

Acids are sometimes corrosive

34.

What is an example of a chemical change?

a)

Tearing paper

b)

Dissolving salt in water

c)

Melting ice

d)

Burning wood

35.

Mg and Cl create...

a)
Mg2Cl
b)
MgCl2
c)
Mg2Cl2
d)
MgCl
36.

Ca and N create...

a)
Ca2N3
b)
Ca3N2
c)
CaN3
d)
Ca2N
37.

Li and P create...

a)
Li3P
b)
LiP3
c)
LiP
d)
Li2P
38.

Na and Cl create...

a)

Na2Cl

b)

NaCl2

c)

Na2Cl2

d)

NaCl

39.

K and S create...

a)

K2S

b)

KS2

c)

K2S2

d)

KS

40.

Nanotechnology fabrication methods can usually be divided into two groups:

a)

Bottom-Up & Top-Down

b)

Top-Up & Bottom-Down

c)

Top-Bottom & Up-Down

d)

Top & Bottom

41.

Which does not include the Top-Down Method

a)

Conventional Lithography

b)

Photolithography

c)

Softlithography

d)

Colloidal Monography

42.

Determine the following method according to the picture:

a)

Photolithograpy

b)

Nanosphere lithography

c)

Writing "atom by atom"

d)

Colloidal lithography

43.

Determine the following method according to the picture:

a)

Conventional Lithography

b)

Scanning lithography

c)

Scanning probe lithography

d)

nanosphere lithography

44.

Determine the following method according to the image it represents:

a)

Top-Down

b)

Bottom-Up

c)

Top-Up

d)

Top-Bottom

45.

Determine the following method according to the picture:

a)

Conventional Lithography

b)

Scanning lithography

c)

nanosphere lithography

d)

Scanning probe lithography

46.

Determine the fabrication method from the following drawing:

a)

Sol-gel synthesis

b)

Molecular self-assembly

c)

Plasma arcing

d)

Chemical vapour deposition

47.


Determine the fabrication method from the following drawing:

a)

Sol-gel synthesis

b)

Molecular self-assembly

c)

Plasma arcing

d)

Chemical vapour deposition

48.

Determine the following method according to the picture:

a)

Photolithograpy

b)

Nanosphere lithography

c)

Writing "atom by atom"

d)

Colloidal lithography

49.

What wavelength is used in Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) lithography?

a)

193 nm

b)

355 nm

c)

13.5 nm

d)

100 nm

50.

In soft lithography, which elastomer is commonly used for making molds?

a)

PVC

b)

PDMS

c)

Polystyrene

d)

Polyethylene

51.

Which of the following techniques is associated with maskless lithography?

a)

Direct Laser Writing

b)

Microcontact Printing

c)

Micromolding

d)

Replica Molding

52.

What is the primary purpose of using a spin coater in photolithography?

a)

Exposure

b)

Developing

c)

Etching

d)

Coating Photoresist

53.

Which gas is typically used as the basis for generating EUV light?

a)

Helium

b)

Argon

c)

Xenon

d)

Tin

54.

In maskless lithography, what is used to project the pattern onto the substrate?

a)

A fixed mask

b)

A Digital Micromirror Device (DMD)

c)

An Elastomeric Stamp

d)

A Mechanical Printer

55.

What property of PDMS makes it suitable for soft lithography processes with UV exposure?

a)

Electrical Conductivity

b)

Optical Transparency

c)

Thermal Conductivity

d)

Magnetic Permeability

56.

What is the primary advantage of using EUV lithography over traditional photolithography?

a)

Lower Cost

b)

Longer Wavelength

c)

Simpler Equipment

d)

Higher Resolution

57.

What is a common method to generate a 13.5 nm wavelength light for EUV lithography?

a)

LED Emission

b)

Plasma Emission from Tin Droplets

c)

Incandescent Bulbs

d)

Halogen Lamps

58.

Which of the following is a technique within the umbrella of soft lithography?

a)

Reactive Ion Etching

b)

Microcontact Printing

c)

Plasma Etching

d)

Wet Etching

59.

What type of light is commonly used in photolithography?

a)

Infrared

b)

Visible

c)

Ultraviolet

d)

X-ray

60.

What happens to positive photoresist when exposed to light?

a)

It becomes insoluble.

b)

It becomes soluble.

c)

It becomes opaque.

d)

It polymerizes.

61.

What is the main purpose of a photomask in photolithography?

a)

To filter the light

b)

To transfer a pattern onto the photoresist

c)

To protect the substrate from contamination

d)

To focus the light

62.

In photolithography, what is the term for the limit of the smallest feature size that can be reliably printed?

a)

Depth of focus

b)

Resolution

c)

Contrast

d)

Exposure

63.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the photolithography process?

a)

Etching

b)

Prebake

c)

Deposition

d)

Development

64.

Negative photoresist, when exposed to light, undergoes which of the following processes?

a)

Solubilization

b)

Decolorization

c)

Cross-linking

d)

Melting

65.

What role does the developer solution play in the photolithography process?

a)

Hardens the photoresist

b)

Exposes the photoresist to light

c)

Removes either the exposed or unexposed areas of the photoresist

d)

Acts as a solvent for the etching process

66.

Which principle of physics is crucial in understanding the limitations of photolithography resolution?

a)

Gravity

b)

Thermodynamics

c)

Diffraction

d)

Electrostatics

67.

During the photolithography process, what is the purpose of the post-exposure bake?

a)

To clean the substrate

b)

To enhance the photochemical reactions in the photoresist

c)

To remove any remaining developer

d)

To prepare the substrate for etching

68.

What is the primary function of the photoresist in photolithography?

a)

To act as an etchant

b)

To protect certain areas of the substrate during etching

c)

To generate light for exposure

d)

To clean the substrate

69.

Which level of a programming language is Machine Code?

a)

Low

b)

High

70.

Which level of a programming language is Assembly Code?

a)

Low

b)

High

71.

Which level would create the fastest code to execute?

a)

Low

b)

Assembly

c)

High

72.

Which level would create the easiest code for humans to understand?

a)

Low

b)

Assembly

c)

High

73.
Machine Code uses mnemonics to represent instructions
a)
True
b)
False
74.

Python is an example of a High Level programming language

a)

True

b)

False

75.
An advantage of programming in Low Level is
a)
Easier for us to understand
b)
Easier to debug
c)
Programs require less file space
76.
A disadvantage of programming in Low Level is
a)
No technical skill is required
b)
Needs to be translated before it can be executed
c)
Difficult for humans to debug
77.
An advantage of programming in High Level is
a)
Easier for us to understand
b)
Useful for device drivers
c)
Programs execute faster than other generations
78.
A disadvantage of programming in High Level is
a)
A lot of code must be translated before it can be executed
b)
Difficult to debug
c)
High level of technical skill is required
79.
What sort of relationship do the instructions have between High and Low Level languages?
a)
One to One - One high level instruction is equivalent to one low level
b)
One to Many - For every hgh level instruction there are many low level ones
80.

Which generation?

a)

Machine Code - Low

b)

Assembly Code - Low

c)

High Level

81.

Which generation?

a)

Machine Code - Low

b)

Assembly Code - Low

c)

High Level

82.

Which generation?

a)

Machine Code - Low

b)

Assembly Code - Low

c)

High Level

83.

Binary is the only language a computer can understand

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Computers must translate everything into binary

a)

True

b)

False

85.

High Level Code is easier for humans to understand as it is written in English

a)

True

b)

False

86.

For AND, when is it TRUE?

a)

false AND false

b)

true AND false

c)

false AND true

d)

true AND true

87.

For AND, when is it FALSE?

a)

false AND false

b)

true AND false

c)

false AND true

d)

true AND true

88.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

89.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

90.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

91.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

92.

For OR, when is it TRUE?

a)

false AND false

b)

true AND false

c)

false AND true

d)

true AND true

93.

For OR, when is it FALSE?

a)

false AND false

b)

true AND false

c)

false AND true

d)

true AND true

94.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

95.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

96.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

97.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

98.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

99.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

100.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

101.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

102.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

103.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

104.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

105.

What is the output?

a)

True

b)

False

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