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Chapters 9-10 Test Review

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 8hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The center of mass of the Earth-Moon system is called the ________.

a)

aphelion

b)

apogee

c)

barycenter

d)

perigee

e)

perihelion

2.

The barycenter follows ________.

a)

a path that is perpendicular to the Earth's ecliptic

b)

a pattern that parallels the Moon's orbit

c)

a smooth orbit around the Sun

d)

a wavy path around the Sun

e)

the Earth's declination

3.

If the side of the Earth that faces the Moon experiences a high tide, then the side of the Earth that is opposite from the Moon will have a ________.

a)

high tide

b)

low tide

c)

neap tide

d)

proxigean tide

e)

spring tide

4.

A full lunar tidal cycle is ________.

a)

12 hours in duration

b)

12 hours 25 minutes in duration

c)

24 hours in duration

d)

24 hours and 50 minutes in duration

e)

48 hours in duration

5.

When the tides appear to move water in toward the shore it is called ________.

a)

Flood tide

b)

Ebb tide

c)

Lunar tidal bulge

d)

Solar tidal bulge

6.

When the tides appear to move water away from shore it is called ________.

a)

Flood tide

b)

Ebb tide

c)

Lunar tidal bulge

d)

Solar tidal bulge

7.

A(n) ________ is the time that elapses between when the Moon is directly overhead and the next time the Moon is directly overhead.

a)

Solar day

b)

Martian day

c)

Lunar day

d)

Earth day

8.

Which of the following best explains why there is a difference between a lunar day and a solar day?

a)

During one Earth rotation, the Moon has continued orbiting Earth.

b)

The Moon must rotate an additional 50 minutes to catch up to Earth.

c)

The solar day and lunar day are measured from different meridians.

d)

The Sun has a stronger pull on the larger Earth versus the smaller Moon.

e)

The tide-generating forces of the Sun and Moon are working at right angles.

9.

Compared with a solar day, a lunar day is ________.

a)

equal to a solar day

b)

half the length of a solar day

c)

longer than a solar day

d)

shorter than a solar day

e)

twice the length of a solar day

10.

The vertical difference between consecutive high and low tides is called the ________.

a)

ebb tide

b)

flood tide

c)

todal bore

d)

tidal height

e)

tidal range

11.

A spring tide ________.

a)

has moderate high and low tides

b)

occurs at a blue moon

c)

occurs at the vernal equinox

d)

has very high high tides and very low low tides

e)

has very little difference between high and low tides

12.

Spring tide occurs about ________.

a)

once per month

b)

once per season

c)

once per year

d)

twice per month

e)

twice per year

13.

A neap tide has ________.

a)

moderately high tidal range

b)

moderately low tidal range

c)

no tidal range

d)

very high tidal range

e)

very low tidal range

14.

Neap tides occur ________.

a)

at summer and winter solstice

b)

during a storm surge

c)

when the Moon is full or new

d)

when the Moon is in quadrature

e)

when the Sun is at perihelion or aphelion

15.

When the Earth is at its greatest distance from the Sun, it is said to be at ________.

a)

apogee

b)

aphelion

c)

perigee

d)

perihelion

e)

proxigean

16.

Tidal ranges will be greatest when the Earth and the Moon are at ________.

a)

Perihelion

b)

Aphelion

c)

Perigee

d)

Apogee

e)

Proxigean

17.

Tidal ranges will be smallest when the Earth and the Moon are at ________.

a)

Perihelion

b)

Aphelion

c)

Perigee

d)

Apogee

e)

Proxigean

18.

Tidal ranges are the smallest when the Earth is near its most distant point (from the Sun) called ________.

a)

Perihelion

b)

Aphelion

c)

Perigee

d)

Apogee

e)

Proxigean

19.

The Moon cycles between perigee, apogee, and back to perigee every _______.

a)

27 days

b)

27.5 days

c)

28 days

d)

28.5 days

e)

29 days

20.

At ________, half of the Moon's sunlit face is visible.

a)

New Moon

b)

First quarter

c)

Full Moon

d)

Waxing gibbous

e)

Waxing crescent

21.

At ________, the entire Moon's sunlit face is visible.

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

First quarter

d)

Third quarter

e)

Waning crescent

22.

Between the Moon's full and third-quarter phases, it is a ________.

a)

Waxing gibbous

b)

Waning gibbous

c)

Waning crescent

d)

Waxing crescent

23.

Examine the five words and/or phrases and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the one option that does not fit the pattern.

a)

Full Moon

b)

Neap tide

c)

New Moon

d)

Spring tide

e)

Syzygy

24.

Examine the five words and/or phrases and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the one option that does not fit the pattern.

a)

Aphelion

b)

Nadir

c)

Apogee

d)

Perigee

e)

Perihelion

25.

There is constructive interference between the lunar and solar tidal bulges during ________ tides.

a)

fall

b)

neap

c)

spring

d)

summer

e)

winter

26.

There is destructive interference between the lunar and solar tidal bulges during ________ tides.

a)

fall

b)

neap

c)

spring

d)

summer

e)

winter

27.

The center of an open ocean tidal system is called a(n) ________.

a)

amphidromic point

b)

cotidal center

c)

rotary center

d)

seiche

e)

tidal flux

28.

A detailed analysis of all the variables that affect the tides at any particular coast reveals that nearly ________ factors are involved.

a)

100

b)

200

c)

300

d)

400

e)

500

29.

An area that experiences semidiurnal tides will have ________.

a)

one high tide and one low tide daily

b)

one high tide and two low tides daily

c)

one low tide and two high tides daily

d)

two high tides and two low tides of nearly equal height daily

e)

two unequal low and high tides daily

30.

An area that experiences diurnal tides will have ________.

a)

one high tide and one low tide daily

b)

one high tide and two low tides daily

c)

one low tide and two high tides daily

d)

two high tides and two low tides of nearly equal height daily

e)

two unequal low and high tides daily

31.

The most common tidal patterns around the world are _______.

a)

diurnal tides

b)

mixed tides

c)

proxigean tides

d)

semidiurnal tides

e)

spring tides

32.

In the United States, semidiurnal tides commonly occur along the _______.

a)

Atlantic coast

b)

Gulf of Alaska

c)

Gulf of Mexico coast

d)

Florida Keys

e)

Pacific coast

33.

In the United States, mixed tides commonly occur along _______.

a)

the Atlantic coast

b)

Cape Cod

c)

the Gulf of Mexico coast

d)

the Florida Keys

e)

the Pacific coast

34.

Diurnal tides have a tidal period of _______.

a)

24 hours

b)

24 hours 30 minutes

c)

24 hours 50 minutes

d)

25 hours 30 minutes

e)

26 hours

35.

Semidiurnal tides have a period of _______.

a)

12 hours

b)

12 hours 25 minutes

c)

12 hours 50 minutes

d)

13 hours

e)

13 hours 25 minutes

36.

Mixed tides have a period of _______.

a)

12 hours

b)

12 hours 25 minutes

c)

12 hours 50 minutes

d)

13 hours

e)

13 hours 25 minutes

37.

Which of the following coasts is an example of a diurnal tidal pattern?

a)

East Coast of The United States

b)

Gulf of Mexico

c)

West Coast of Africa

d)

West Coast of South America

e)

West Coast of The United States

38.

The graph shown is an example of which of the following tidal patterns?

a)

Diurnal Tidal Pattern

b)

Mixed Tidal Pattern

c)

Quadrantal Tidal Pattern

d)

Semidiurnal Tidal Pattern

e)

Trimester Tidal Pattern

39.

The graph shown is an example of a ______ tidal pattern.

a)

diurnal

b)

mixed

c)

quadrantal

d)

semidiurnal

e)

trimester

40.

The Bay of Fundy is well known for which tidal characteristic?

a)

A diurnal tide

b)

Two amphidromic points

c)

Very large seiche

d)

Very low tidal range

e)

Very high tidal range

41.

Which of the following produces a tidal current?

a)

Both ebb tides and flood tides

b)

Both neap tides and spring tides

c)

Ebb tide

d)

Flood tide

e)

Spring tide

42.

A grunion is a marine ________ that comes completely out of the water to spawn.

a)

fish

b)

eel

c)

shark

d)

crab

e)

turtle

43.

Grunion are common in which state?

a)

New York

b)

California

c)

Tennessee

d)

Nevada

e)

Texas

44.

Where are the largest tidal bores in the world located?

a)

Europe

b)

China

c)

Africa

d)

United states

e)

Australia

45.

The ________ is the longest estuary affected by oceanic tides.

a)

Nile River

b)

Amazon River

c)

Tygarts River

d)

Yangtze River

e)

Mississippi River

46.

A(n) ________ is produced when water rushes into a bay (or river) with an incoming high tide.

a)

rotary current

b)

reversing current

c)

flood current

d)

ebb current

47.

A(n) ________ is produced when water drains out of a bay (or river) because a low tide is approaching.

a)

rotary current

b)

reversing current

c)

flood current

d)

ebb current

48.

The Maelstrom off the coast of ________ is one of the strongest whirlpools in the world.

a)

Canad

b)

Italy

c)

Japan

d)

Norway

e)

Scotland

49.

Whirlpools can be created in some restricted shallow passages due to ________.

a)

a vertically mixed estuary

b)

reversing tidal currents

c)

tidal bores up low-lying rivers

d)

tsunamis or tidal waves

e)

wave refraction

50.

A wave formed on a river by a flood current is called a(n) ________.

a)

ebb tide

b)

flood tide

c)

seiche

d)

tidal bore

e)

tsunami

51.

Which of the following statements comparing a tidal power electricity-generating with a conventional thermal power plant is correct?

a)

The initial cost of building a tidal power electricity-generating plant may be lower.

b)

The operating costs of a tidal power electricity-generating plant are higher.

c)

The periodicity of the tides is an advantage of a tidal power electricity-generating plant.

d)

Tidal power initially requires fossil or nuclear fuels to get started.

e)

Tidal power is considered a cleaner and renewable resource.

52.

The section of the coast that is exposed at low tide and submerged at high tide is called the __________.

a)

backshore

b)

foreshore

c)

nearshore

d)

offshore

e)

shoreline

53.

The particle size on a beach __________.

a)

can be related to the frequenc of storms

b)

is a function of the type of bedrock underlying the coastal area

c)

is related to whatever material is locally available

d)

shows seasonal variation only on low energy coasts

e)

varies only with storm intensity and duration

54.

A __________ is a deposit of shore area.

a)

beach

b)

berm

c)

longshore bars

d)

wave-cut bench

e)

backshore

55.

The __________ is the dry, gently sloping, slightly elevated margin of the beach that can be found at the foot of coastal cliffs or sand dunes.

a)

beach

b)

berm

c)

longshore bars

d)

wave-cut bench

e)

backshore

56.

The __________ marks the boundary between the shore and the coast.

a)

shore

b)

coast

c)

coastline

d)

beach

e)

berm

57.

Which feature is not part of the beach?

a)

breakers

b)

foreshore

c)

low tide

d)

high tide

e)

coast

58.

The zone that lies between the lowest tide level and the highest elevation on land that is affected by storm waves is known as the ________.

a)

beach

b)

coast

c)

coastline

d)

shore

e)

wave front

59.

The part of the shore that is above the high tide shoreline and is covered with water only during storms is known as the ________.

a)

backshore

b)

foreshore

c)

nearshore

d)

offshore

e)

shoreline

60.

The part of the shore that represents the water's edge and migrates back and forth with the tide is known as the ________.

a)

backshore

b)

foreshore

c)

nearshore

d)

offshore

e)

shoreline

61.

The part of the shore that extends seaward from the low tide shoreline to the low tide breaker line is known as the ________.

a)

backshore

b)

foreshore

c)

nearshore

d)

offshore

e)

shoreline

62.

The part of the shore beyond the low tide breaker line and is deep enough that waves rarely affect the bottom is known as the ________.

a)

backshore

b)

foreshore

c)

nearshore

d)

offshore

e)

shoreline

63.

About what percent of the world fishery is obtained within 320 kilometers (200 miles) of shore?

a)

5%

b)

25%

c)

55%

d)

75%

e)

95%

64.

Which of the following statements about coastal waters is correct?

a)

Coastal waters are of minor importance for shipping because they traverse the open ocean.

b)

Coastal waters have limited opportunities for oil production and recreational activities.

c)

Coastal waters only support about 15% of the total mass of life in the oceans.

d)

Coastal waters receive land-derived pollutants after passing through the open ocean.

e)

Coastal waters serve as nursery grounds for many species that inhabit the open ocean.

65.

Smaller, low-energy waves move sand up the beach face toward the berm to create a ________.

a)

summertime beach

b)

wintertime beach

c)

springtime beach

d)

autumn time beach

66.

Larger, high-energy waves scour sand from the berm and create a ________.

a)

summertime beach

b)

wintertime beach

c)

springtime beach

d)

autumn time beach

67.

Both longshore currents and longshore transport occur only within the ________.

a)
surf zone
b)

breaker zone

c)

swash zone

68.

The longshore current generally flows in which direction along both the Atlantic and Pacific Coasts of the United States?

a)

Northward

b)

Southward

c)

Eastward

d)

Westward

69.

Where does sand accumulate during heavy wave activity?

a)

Along the beach face

b)

Behind the dunes

c)

Beneath the breakers

d)

In the berm

e)

Offshore sand bars

70.

Where does sand accumulate during light wave activity?

a)

Along the beach face

b)

Behind the dunes

c)

Beneath the breakers

d)

In the berm

e)

Offshore sand bars

71.

Which of the following occurs during light wave activity?

a)

A backward movement of sand along the beach face

b)

A net movement of sand down the beach face

c)

Backwash dominates the transport system

d)

Much of the swash soaks into the beach

e)

The beach is saturated with water from previous waves

72.

Which of the following occurs during heavy wave activity?

a)

A backward movement of sand along the beach face

b)

A net movement of sand down the beach face

c)

Backwash dominates the transport system

d)

Much of the swash soaks into the beach

e)

The beach is saturated with water from previous waves

73.

Which of the following best describes littoral drift?

a)

The building of a berm at the expense of a longshore bar caused by light wave activity

b)

The formation of a rocky flattened beach face with a narrow berm

c)

The formation of a sandy steep beach face with a wide berm

d)

The movement of sediment in a zigzag fashion caused by the longshore current

e)

The use of floating objects such as shoes from shipping mishaps to track currents

74.

Sediment is supplied to the coastal zone by ________.

a)

coastal erosion

b)

local biological activity

c)

rivers

d)

coastal erosion, local biological activity and rivers are sources of sediment in the coastal zone.

e)

only coastal erosion and local biological activity are sources of sediment in the coastal zone.

75.

Eroded material is carried along coastlines from high-energy wave areas to _______.

a)

active offshore berms

b)

low-energy wave areas

c)

the backshore

d)

the foreshore

e)

the nearshore zone

76.

Which of the following is found at a depositional shore?

a)

Headlands

b)

Wave-cut cliffs

c)

Deltas

d)

Sea caves

e)

Sea arches

77.

Narrow currents flowing across the surf zone toward the open ocean are called _______.

a)

longshore currents

b)

nearshore currents

c)

rip currents

d)

surf flow

e)

swash

78.

A linear ridge of sediment attached to land at one end might be called a _______.

a)

barrier island

b)

bay barrier

c)

bay-mouth bar

d)

spit

e)

tombolo

79.

If one were to walk from the ocean landward across a barrier island complex, in which order would one encounter the following environments?

a)

Beach, dune, barrier flat, low marsh, high marsh

b)

Dune, barrier flat, beach, high marsh, low marsh

c)

Beach, dune, barrier flat, high marsh, low marsh

d)

Low marsh, high marsh, barrier flat, dune, beach

80.

The area of the barrier island complex that would contain thickets and woodlands would be the _______.

a)
barrier flat
b)

dune

c)

high marsh

d)

lagoon

e)

low marsh

81.

Large deposits of sediment at the mouths of rivers are called ________.

a)

barrier flats

b)

barrier islands

c)

bay-mouth bars

d)

deltas

e)

tombolos

82.

Which of the following is not an erosional feature?

a)

Cliffs

b)

Spits

c)

Sea arches

d)

Sea stacks

e)

Marine terraces

83.

Which of the following is not a depositional feature?

a)

Spits

b)

Tombolos

c)

Marine terraces

d)

Barrier islands

e)

Deltas

84.

Which river system has the largest known delta?

a)

Colorado River

b)

Mississippi River

c)

Ohio River

d)

Hudson River

e)

Missouri River

85.

Which of the following is not a feature of a barrier island?

a)

Dunes

b)

Barrier flat

c)

Spit

d)

Salt marsh

e)

Lagoon

86.

Examine the five words and/or phrases and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the one option that does not fit the pattern.

a)

Marine terrace

b)

Sea arches

c)

Sea caves

d)

Tombolo

e)

Wave-cut cliffs

87.

Examine the five words and/or phrases and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the one option that does not fit the pattern.

a)

Marine terrace

b)

Sea arches

c)

Sea caves

d)

Tombolo

e)

Wave-cut cliffs

88.

Which of the following can help prevent beach starvation?

a)

Beach replenishment

b)

Damming a river

c)

Disrupting longshore transport

d)

Lining a river with concrete

e)

Sand and gravel mining

89.

Isostatic movement of a coastline might occur due to ________.

a)

increased glacial melting due to global warming

b)

rise in sea level due to a large weight of a glacier on a continental mass

c)

sinking of the crust due to increases in sediment load

d)

uplift related to earthquake activity

e)

volcanic activity resulting in the formation of new continental crust

90.

Eustatic changes in sea level might include ________.

a)

additional seawater

b)

changes in the rate of seafloor spreading

c)

the removal of a large glacier that rested in that area

d)

underwater landslides

e)

uplift related to earthquake activity

91.

Which of the following occurs when seafloor spreading rates increase?

a)

New continental crust forms.

b)

Sea level falls.

c)

Subduction increases.

d)

There is a rise in sea level.

e)

There is no change in sea level.

92.

Sea level began to rise about ________ years ago as the glaciers melted and water returned to the oceans.

a)

18,000

b)

19,000

c)

20,000

d)

21,000

e)

22,000

93.

Which of the following is a feature of an emerging shoreline?

a)

Marine terraces

b)

Drowned beaches

c)

Drowned river valleys

d)

Submerged dune topography

94.

Which of the following is a feature of a submerging shoreline?

a)

Drowned beaches

b)

Marine terraces

c)

Wave-cut beaches

d)

Stranded beach deposits

95.

Which U.S. coast is considered an emerging shoreline?

a)

Atlantic coast

b)

Pacific coast

c)

Gulf coast

96.

Which of the following is designed to prevent or slow down shoreline erosion?

a)

Beach nourishment

b)

Groin

c)

Seawall

d)

All of these are used to try to prevent or slow down shoreline erosion.

e)

Both the groin and seawall prevent or slow down shoreline erosion.

97.

In terms of erosion protection from wave action, seawalls __________.

a)

lead to erosion of sediment on their seaward sides

b)

result in a more gradual seaward slope of beaches

c)

are permanent and thus never need to be replaced

d)

require very little maintenance

98.

Which of the following is an example of hard stabilization?

a)

Seawalls

b)

Beach replenishment

c)

Construction restrictions

d)

Relocation

e)

Beach renourishment

99.

Which of the following is not a hard stabilization option?

a)

Groins

b)

Jetties

c)

Relocation

d)

Breakwaters

e)

Seawalls

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