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Disease Storyline Review

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What can cancer cells do that normal cells cannot?

a)

they do everything the same

b)

they regenerate their telomeres, preventing them from aging

c)

they go through cellular division

d)

they grow

2.

What is the complementary mRNA strand for the following DNA strand? TGA GTT TGT

a)

CAU CAA ACA

b)

ACU CGG ACA

c)

ACU CAA ACA

d)

ACT CAA ACA

3.

What gene is often mutated to become inactive which can lead to cancers?

a)

p57

b)

EVR 1

c)

p53

d)

telomerase

4.

Use the codon wheel to determine the amino acid sequence below:

AUU CCG UUG GAG

a)

Methionine - Leucine- Leucine - Aspartic Acid

b)

Isoleucine - Proline - Leucine -Aspartic Acid

c)

Isoleucine - Proline - Leucine -Glutamic Acid

d)

Asparagine - Arginine - Phenylalanine - Glycine

5.

What is apoptosis?

a)

necrosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

programmed cell death

d)

inflammation of the cell

6.

What is the relationship between cancer rates and the body mass of animals?

a)

The larger the animals the higher the cancer rates

b)

The smaller the animal the lower the cancer rates

c)

There is no correlation between cancer rates and body size

d)

The small the animal the higher the cancer rates

7.

The Hayflick limit involves

a)

the size a cell can reach before dividing

b)

a cell dividing about 50 times before it reaches senescence

c)

telomeres lengthening with each cell division

d)

None of the choices

8.

Telomeres ___ with each cell division

a)

lengthen

b)

shorten

9.
What are the building blocks for DNA?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleotides
c)
lipids
d)
proteins
10.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
11.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains uracil
12.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
13.
The molecule pictured is a monomer of _______.
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
a carbohydrate
d)
a protein
14.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine present is always equal to the amount of _________.
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
15.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

16.

Which is the role of DNA polymerase?

a)

Unwinds the original DNA strand

b)

Lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

Builds new strands by bringing in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Remove Okazaki fragments for new nucleotides.

17.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

Letter A since it is copied from 5' to 3'

b)

Letter A since it is copied from 3' to 5'

c)

Letter B since it is copied from 3' to 5

d)

Letter B since it is copied from 5' to 3'

18.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
19.

Undifferentiated cells that can become one or more specialized types of cell are called_________

a)

Stem Cells

b)

Somatic Cells

c)

Body Cells

d)

Zygotes

20.

What is a gene?

a)

A section of DNA with instructions for making a protein

b)

A section of DNA with instructions for making a carbohydrate

c)

One nucleic acid chain that codes for DNA

d)

One protein chain that codes for DNA

21.

How many chromosomes are in each human body cell?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

1

d)

48

22.

The division phase of the cell cycle is called...

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Metaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

23.

During Metaphase where do the chromosomes line up?

a)

Middle of the cell

b)

Outside the cell

c)

Edges of the Cell

d)

Around the Cell

24.

During Anaphase what are separated?

a)

Spindle Fibers

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Telomeres

d)

Chromosomes

25.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical body cells

b)

2 gametes

c)

2 zygotes

d)

2 different body cells

26.

Which stage of the cell cycle do cells spend the most time?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Interphase

d)

Prophase

27.

What stage is represented with this image?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

28.

What stage is represented by this image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

29.

What stage is represented by this image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

30.

True or False: Environmental factors can increase the risk of cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Cell programmed self destruction is called

a)

Atopic

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Abi-normal

d)

Anticellular

32.

Which of the following has the phases of mitosis in the correct order?

a)

Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase,

Anaphase

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

c)

Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase, Prophase

33.
a)
cell cycle
b)
mitosis
c)
cancer tumor
d)
DNA Replication
34.
a)
cell cycle
b)
mitosis
c)
cancer tumor
d)
DNA Replication
35.
DNA Replication happens during ___.
a)
G2 phase
b)
M phase
c)
G1 phase
d)
S phase
36.

How are cancer cells different from normal cells?

a)

cancer cells divide quicker

b)

normal cells divide faster

c)

Cancer cells have no contact inhibition

d)

normal cells have no contact inhibition

37.

Cells of organisms must go through cell division for?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of these

38.
Identify the parts of the nucleotide shown:
a)
1) Ribose Sugar      2) Phosphate 
3)  Nitrogen Base
b)
1) Deoxyribose Sugar
2) Phosphate
3) Nitrogen Base
c)
1) Phosphate
2) Ribose Sugar
3) Nitrogen Base
d)
1)  Phosphate
2) Deoxyribose Sugar
3)  Nitrogen Base
39.
What occurs during G1?
a)
Checkpoint after S phase
b)
Chromosomes line up at the equator.
c)
The cell grows and develops.
d)
Spindle fibers separate chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell. 
40.

During mitosis, DNA is found in the condensed form called a

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

41.

These undifferentiated cells can become specialized cells after receiving a chemical signal.

a)

stem cells

b)

generic cells

c)

blank cells

d)

empty cells

42.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
43.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
44.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
45.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
46.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
47.

Which of the following describes the result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical, haploid cells

b)

4 non-identical haploid cells

c)

2 identical, diploid cells

d)

4 non-identical, diploid cells

48.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
49.

The --------------------- cells undergo Mitosis while the --------- undergo Meiosis

a)

(A) Somatic or body ; Gametes

b)

(B) Gametes; Somatic or body cells

c)

(C) Gametes; Gametes

d)

(D) Somatic or Body cells; Somatic or Body cells

50.

Has one set of chromosomes

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Body cells

d)

None of the above

51.

What crosses over in Meiosis I?

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

Sister chromatids

52.

Forms gametes

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

53.

Forms genetically non-identical cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

54.

The picture depicts what stage of meiosis?

a)

(A) Prophase 1

b)

(B) Anaphase 1

c)

(C) Metaphase 2

d)

(D) Metaphase 1

e)

(E) Telophase 1

55.

What phase does the crossing over take place?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

56.
How many chromosomes do humans have?
a)
46-- 23 from mom, 23 from dad
b)
22--11 from mom, 11 from dad
c)
10-- 5 from mom, 5 from dad
d)
23
57.

Produces diploid cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

58.

What can cancer cells do that normal cells cannot?

a)

they do everything the same

b)

they regenerate their telomeres, preventing them from aging

c)

they go through cellular division

d)

they grow

59.

Which of the following is not a type of mutation?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Prescription

d)

Deletion

60.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

61.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

62.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

63.

Failure of homologous chromosomes

to separate during meiosis.

Results in gametes with either one extra or one missing chromosome.

a)

Translocation

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

64.
Which of the following terms refers to a segment of DNA the controls the expression of a trait?
a)
Chromosome
b)
Chromatid
c)
Gene
d)
Histone
65.

Identify which of these statements is correct, the percent (%) of guanine is equal to the percent of

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

66.

In the DNA of a panda, there is 30% adenine. Determine the percent of guanine.

a)

15%

b)

40%

c)

10%

d)

20%

67.
A nucleotide consists of...
a)
A nitrogen base
b)
A nitrogen base and a sugar
c)
A nitrogen base, sugar, and phosphate
d)
Two nitrogen bases, a sugar, and phosphate
68.
The "rungs" of the DNA ladder are made of...
a)
Phosphates and Bases
b)
Sugars
c)
Sugars and Phosphate
d)
Bases
69.
DNA replication results in...
a)
2 completely new DNA molecules
b)
2 DNA molecules that each contain a strand of the original
c)
1 new molecule of RNA
d)
1 new DNA, 1 old molecule is conserved
70.
The base pair rules state that...
a)
A pairs with T, G pairs with C
b)
DNA is a double helix held together by hydrogen bonds
c)
Replication is seiconservative
d)
A pairs with G, T pairs with C
71.
The twisted ladder shape of DNA is called a...
a)
Hydrogen Twist
b)
Deoxyribose Flip
c)
Double Helix
d)
Double Membrane
72.
The DNA molecule is held together by:
a)
Magnetism
b)
Glucose
c)
Glue
d)
Hydrogen Bonds
73.

A nucleotide is composed of

a)

A phosphate, sugar and nitrogenous base

b)

A protein, protein and Guanine

c)

A phosphate, Adenine, and nitrogenous base

d)

A protein, Adenine and nitrogenous base

74.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
75.
What is this image showing?
a)
DNA
b)
Chromosome
c)
Alleles
d)
Phenotype
76.
Which of the following is not a nitrogen base found in DNA?
a)
Thymine
b)
Uracil 
c)
Guanine
d)
Adenine
77.

According to Chargaff's rule, Cytosine always pair with

a)

Adenine

b)

Uracil

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

78.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
79.
Why is it crucial that living things are able to replicate their DNA?
a)
Each cell must have its own DNA
b)
Less copies of DNA are needed when a new cell is created
c)
A cell needs multiple copies of DNA
d)
Only muscle cells need DNA 
80.

The two strands of DNA are

a)

Parallel

b)

Antiparallel

c)

Perpendicular

d)

At Right Angles

81.

A pair of chromosomes having the same gene sequences, each derived from one parent

a)

Sister Chromatids

b)

Homologous Chromosomes

c)

Proto-Oncogenes

d)

Oncogenes

82.

A disease caused by uncontrolled division of abnormal cells

a)

Cancer

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Sickle Cell Anemia

d)

Arthritis

83.

What is the purpose of the cell cycle checkpoints?

a)

To make sure the cell isn't duplicating too fast

b)

They were there by chance and happen to help reduce the chances of cancer

c)

To make sure that all parts of the cell are healthy to avoid mutations

84.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting....
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
85.

What is the scientific term that refers to sex cells?

a)

autosome

b)

gamete

c)

karyotype

d)

chromosome

86.

This term refers to half the normal chromosome number

a)

haploid

b)

2N

c)

diploid

d)

3N

87.

The stage of meiosis where crossing over or the exchange of genetic information happens between pairs of chromosomes

a)

Prophase II

b)

Telophase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Prophase I

88.

The exchange of genetic information that insures that every gamete is unique is referred to as

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

reduction division

d)

crossing over

89.

All sperm and egg cells are genetically identical.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

90.

The term that refers to a cell that has its full or complete number of chromosomes is

a)

diploid

b)

N

c)

gamete

d)

haplpoid

91.

What is another term for body cells?

a)

somatic cells

b)

gamete

c)

stem cell

d)

neural cell

92.

Name this phase of Meiosis

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

93.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

94.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

95.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Telophase I

96.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Anaphase II

97.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Anaphase II

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