wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biol 1215 Midterm Review

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 3hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a hydrocarbon?

a)

Methane

b)

Ethanol

c)

Butane

d)

Ethylene

2.

What type of bond is primarily responsible for the unique properties of water?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Van der Waals forces

3.

Which functional group is characterized by a carbon double-bonded to an oxygen?

a)

Hydroxyl

b)

Carbonyl

c)

Carboxyl

d)

Amino

4.

What property of water allows it to dissolve many substances?

a)

High specific heat

b)

High heat of vaporization

c)

Polarity

d)

Covalent bonding

5.

Which functional group contains a nitrogen atom bonded to two hydrogen atoms?

a)

Hydroxyl

b)

Carbonyl

c)

Carboxyl

d)

Amino

6.

What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds a single water molecule can form?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

7.

Which of the following is a property of water that contributes to the Earth's ability to support life?

a)

Low specific heat

b)

Nonpolar nature

c)

High surface tension

d)

Low heat of vaporization

8.

Which property of water is responsible for its ability to climb up narrow tubes against the force of gravity?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

High specific heat

d)

High heat of vaporization

9.

Which of the following is not a property of water?

a)

It is a universal solvent

b)

It has a high boiling point compared to other similar molecules

c)

It is most dense in its gaseous state

d)

It has a high surface tension

10.

What is the significance of hydrogen bonding in DNA?

a)

It forms the backbone of the DNA molecule

b)

It stabilizes the double helix structure by connecting the two strands

c)

It is responsible for the replication of DNA

d)

It prevents DNA from being soluble in water

11.

Which functional group is commonly found in sugars?

a)

Hydroxyl

b)

Carbonyl

c)

Carboxyl

d)

Amino

12.

How does the specific heat of water compare to that of most other substances?

a)

It is lower

b)

It is about the same

c)

It is higher

d)

It varies more significantly

13.

Which of the following are functions of lipids?​ (a)   ​ ​ (b)   ​ (c)   ​​ (d)   ​ (e)  

Choose from the below words
Stored Energy
Protective Cushioning
Waterproofing
Insulation
Regulating proteins
Genetic Code
Quick Energy
Catalyst for reactions
Building Proteins
14.

Which of the following are functions of Proteins?

a)

Defense

b)

Structure

c)

Energy

d)

Catalyst

e)

Insulation

15.

Match the following

a)

DNA Bases

1.

A-T

b)

RNA Bases

2.

A-U

c)

DNA Structure

3.

Double Stranded

d)

RNA Structure

4.

Single Stranded

e)

DNA Function

5.

Genetic Code

16.

Match the following

a)
1.

Carbohydrate

b)
2.

Protein

c)
3.

Nucleic Acid

d)
4.

Lipid

17.

Match the following

a)

Carbohydrate

1.

Cellulose

b)

Lipid

2.

Olive Oil

c)

Protein

3.

Enzyme

d)

Nucleic Acid

4.

mRNA

18.

Match the following

a)

Glucose

1.

Monosaccharide

b)

Sucrose

2.

Table Sugar

c)

Starch

3.

Plant Storage

d)

Chitin

4.

Animal Structure

e)

Lactose

5.

Milk Sugar

19.

Which Elements are found in ALL organic compounds?​ (a)   ​ (b)   ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
Oxygen
Carbon
Hydrogen
Phosphorous
Nitrogen
Helium
Potassium
Carbon Dioxide
Sulfer
20.

The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements? 

a)

Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.

b)

The body needs to be warm to prevent hypothermia.

c)

The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action. 

d)

There is no connection between the two statements. 

21.

A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

22.

What will most likely happen if an appropriate enzyme is added to a chemical reaction? 

a)

The reaction rate will increase.

b)

The equilibrium of the reaction will be maintained. 

c)

The reaction rate will decrease.

d)

The reaction will stop.

23.

RNA and DNA are which type of macromolecules? 

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

24.

You are analyzing a compound in the laboratory. You find that it is made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of two hydrogen atoms for each carbon atom. How will you classify the compound?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

carbohydrate

d)

nucleic acid

25.

The diagram shows the general structure of an amino acid. Which type of molecule is formed from amino acids?

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acids

26.

In living cells, enzymes act as catalysts, which may reduce the amount of activation energy required for a chemical reaction to occur.  In the graphs below, pathway x is a solid line representing the uncatalyzed reaction. The dotted line shows the catalyzed reaction. Which graph best illustrates the changes in a reaction when the catalyst reduces the amount of energy required?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

27.

Water is essential for life. Its special properties make water the single most important molecule in plant life. Which of the following properties of water enables it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?

a)

Water expands as it freezes.

b)

Water is an excellent solvent.

c)

Water exhibits cohesive behavior.

d)

Water is able to moderate temperature.

28.

As food travels through the digestive system, it is exposed to a variety of pH levels. The stomach has a pH of 2 due to the presence of hydrochloride acid (HCl), and the small intestine has a pH ranging from 7 to 9. HCl converts pepsinogen into pepsin, an enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach. Which of the following most likely happens to pepsin as it enters the small intestine?

a)

It becomes inactive.

b)

It begins to replicate.

c)

It's shape changes to engulf large proteins.

d)

It's activity increases to digest more proteins.

29.

Figure 1 represents a segment of DNA. Radiation can damage the nucleotides in a DNA molecule. To repair some types of damage, a single nucleotide can be removed from a DNA molecule and replaced with an undamaged nucleotide. Which of the four labeled bonds in Figure 1 could be broken to remove and replace the cytosine nucleotide without affecting the biological information coded in the DNA molecule?

a)

Bond X only

b)

Bond W only

c)

Bonds Y and Z at the same time

d)

Bonds W and Z at the same time

30.

Which of the following statements is correct about the molecule shown in Figure 1 ?

a)

It is RNA because of the relative direction of the two strands.

b)

It is RNA because of the number of different nucleotides found in the molecule.

c)

It is DNA because of the nature of the hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine.

d)

It is DNA because of the nucleotides present.

31.

Which statement describes how water is pulled up through the xylem to the leaves of the plant?

a)

As water exits the leaf, hydrogen bonding between water molecules pulls more water up from below.

b)

As water exits the leaf, signals are sent to the roots to pump more water up to the leaves through the xylem by adhesion.

c)

Evaporation from the leaf decreases the hydrogen bonds that form between the water molecules in the xylem, which helps the water molecules to be pulled up the xylem.

d)

Evaporation of water from the leaf increases the hydrogen bonds that form between water molecules in the air, providing the energy for transport.

32.

Phosphorous (P) is an important nutrient for plant growth. Figure 1 shows Arabidopsis thaliana plants grown under phosphorus‐sufficient (left) and phosphorus‐starved (right) conditions for six weeks.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for the difference in leaf growth?

a)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required proteins and lipids, limiting growth.

b)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required proteins and carbohydrates, limiting growth.

c)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required nucleic acids and lipids, limiting growth.

d)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required carbohydrates and nucleic acids, limiting growth.

33.

Which of the following requires the dehydration reaction of two amino acids?

a)

Carboxyl group of first amino acid binds with carboxyl group of second amino acid

b)

Carboxyl group of first amino acid binds with amino group of second amino acid

c)

R group of first amino acid binds with R group of second amino acid

d)

Amino group of first amino acid binds with amino group of second amino acid

34.

This type of inhibition blocks the active site of an enzyme:

a)

competitive inhibition

b)

allosteric inhibition

c)

noncompetitive inhibition

35.

A molecule that is so similar to the normal substrate that it competes for the active site of the enzyme

a)

Allosteric Inhibition

b)

Competitive Inhibition

c)

Noncompetitive Inhibition

d)

Feedback Inhibition

36.

The process illustrated in the figure is called:

a)

condensation

b)

protein synthesis

c)

hydrolysis

d)

dehydration synthesis

37.

In prokaryotes, what part is the site of protein synthesis?

(a)  

38.

In prokaryotic cells, which part stores genetic material?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

nucleoid region

d)

nucleolus

39.

In eukaryotic cells, which organelle generates energy for the cell?

a)

golgi apparatus

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplast

d)

vacuole

e)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

40.

In eukaryotic cells, which part stores genetic information?

a)

nucleolus

b)

nucleus

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleoid region

41.

Which of the following are true about the rough endoplasmic reticulum? (check all that apply)

a)

Found prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

b)

Embedded with ribosomes

c)

Modify and transport proteins

d)

Synthesis lipids

e)

Detoxifies the cell

42.

Which of the following are true about the cell membrane? (check all that apply)

a)

Found prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

b)

Controls what enters the cell

c)

Controls what leaves the cell

d)

Made of phospholipids

e)

Serves as an impermeable barrier

43.

Which of the following are true about the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? (check all that apply)

a)

Only found in eukaryotic cells

b)

Embedded with ribosomes

c)

Modify and transport proteins

d)

Helps synthesize lipids and carbs

e)

Stores calcium ions

44.

Which part(s) is found in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

ribosome

c)

cell membrane

d)

DNA

e)

nucleus

45.

In plant cells, what organelle is used to store nutrients and water?

a)

lysosome

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

golgi apparatus

46.

In plant cells, where does photosynthesis occur?

a)

chloroplast

b)

vacuole

c)

nucleolus

d)

cell wall

47.

What process occurs in the mitochondria?

(a)  

48.

What process occurs in the chloroplast?

(a)  

49.

Which of the following is true about the cytoskeleton? (check all that apply)

a)

A hard protective covering for the cell

b)

Provides reinforcement of the cell's shape

c)

Contains thin filaments that allow contraction of the muscle cells

d)

A mesh of protein fibers

e)

Stores calcium ions

50.

In eukaryotic cells, which organelle is a specialized vesicle containing hydrolytic enzymes that can break down old cell parts and food.

a)

vacuole

b)

mitochondria

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

nucleolus

e)

lysosome

51.

In eukaryotic cells, what structure is made up of uncoiled and uncondensed DNA and proteins.

a)

chromosome

b)

nucleus

c)

nucleolus

d)

chromatin

e)

cytoskeleton

52.

In eukaryotic cells, what organelle produces the building blocks of ribosomes?

a)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

nucleus

c)

nucleolus

d)

cytoskeleton

e)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

53.

What is cell differentiation?

a)

Process by which cells produce MORE cells.

b)

Process by which cells become UNSPECIALIZED

c)

Process by with cells become SPECIALIZED

d)

Process by which cells become old and DIE

54.

Why do stomach cells function differently than skin cells?

a)

They contain entirely different DNA

b)

They use different genes in the DNA

55.

Which of the following membrane-bound organelles is responsible for hydrolysis (using enzymes to break down macromolecules)?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Peroxisomes

56.

Which of the following is a reason that cells are so small?

a)

Cells are small because they want to maximize their surface area-to-volume ratio.

b)

Cells are small because they want to maximize their volume-to-surface area ratio.

c)

Cells are small because they need to produce extremely small macromolecules.

d)

Cells are small because they prefer to work together in clusters of many thousands that wouldn't otherwise fit anywhere.

57.

Which of the following is one way that cells increase their surface area without increasing their size?

a)

Cells will often include perfectly spherical membranes.

b)

Cells will often include folds in their membranes.

c)

Cells will often include holes in their membranes.

d)

Cells will maximize their volume.

58.

Which of the following correctly describes hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions of the cellular membrane?

a)

The hydrophobic region is made of phosphates, and the hydrophilic region is made of lipids.

b)

The hydrophobic region is 'water-loving', and the hydrophilic region is 'water-fearing'.

c)

The hydrophobic region is polar, and the hydrophilic region is non-polar.

d)

The hydrophobic region faces inward in the interior of the membrane, the hydrophilic region faces outwards towards the aqueous environment.

59.

Which of the following is the correct name of the model that describes the structure of the cell membrane?

a)

The Fluid Molecular Model

b)

The Free Molecular Model

c)

The Fluid Mosaic Model

d)

The Free Mosaic Model

60.

Which of the following would need assistance moving through the plasma membrane?

a)

Nitrogen gas (N2)

b)

Oxygen gas (O2)

c)

Carbon Dioxide gas (CO2)

d)

Water

61.

Which of the following is a difference between passive and active transport?

a)

Passive transport moves molecules against their gradient, while active transport moves molecules with their gradient.

b)

Passive transport moves molecules with a direct input of energy, while active transport moves molecules without a direct input of energy.

c)

Passive transport moves molecules non-spontaneously, while active transport moves molecules spontaneously.

d)

Passive transport moves molecules without a direct input of energy, while active transport moves molecules with a direct input of energy.

62.

What is the primary role of aquaporins?

a)

To transport water across the membrane.

b)

To change the state of water from gas to liquid.

c)

To pump water into the mitochondria for cellular respiration.

d)

To use water for hydrolytic purposes.

63.

Which of the following describes a solution that has a higher concentration than the internal environment of the cell?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Transtonic

64.

If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, what is likely to happen to it over time?

a)

The cell will swell, as water flows into the cell.

b)

The cell will not change, as it will be at dynamic equilibrium.

c)

The cell will lyse, as water bursts the cell.

d)

The cell will shrink, as water flows out of the cell.

65.

Which of the following describes the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

A prokaryotic cell engulfed several other types of smaller prokaryotic cells, and eventually its compartmentalization made the cell eukaryotic.

b)

A eukaryotic cell engulfed several other types of smaller prokaryotic cells, and eventually its compartmentalization made the cell prokaryotic.

c)

A prokaryotic cell engulfed several other types of smaller eukaryotic cells, and eventually its compartmentalization made the cell eukaryotic.

d)

A eukaryotic cell engulfed several other types of smaller eukaryotic cells, and eventually its compartmentalization made the cell prokaryotic.

66.

Which of the following membrane-bound organelles evolved from free-living prokaryotic cells?

a)

Nuclei and plasmids.

b)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts.

c)

Vacuoles and lysosomes.

d)

Centrioles and microtubules.

67.

Which of the following factors would tend to increase membrane fluidity?

a)

a greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids

b)

a greater proportion of saturated phospholipids

c)

a lower temperature

d)

a relatively high protein content in the membrane

68.

White blood cells engulf bacteria using _______________.

a)

phagocytosis

b)

pinocytosis

c)

osmosis

d)

receptor-mediated exocytosis

69.

Assuming that the purple molecules are too large to pass through the membrane, what would happen to the water level as a result of osmosis?

a)

The water level would rise on the A side

b)

The water level would rise on the B side

c)

The water level would remain constant

d)

The water level would drop on the A side.

70.

Which cell is in a hypertonic environment?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None of them are hypertonic

71.

Which of the following processes is an "umbrella" term for the others?

a)

Osmosis.

b)

Facilitated diffusion.

c)

Passive transport.

d)

Transport of an ion down its electrochemical gradient.

72.

Which of the following statements about diffusion is true?

a)

It is very rapid of long distances.

b)

It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.

c)

It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.

d)

It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

73.

Which of the following would likely diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?

a)

sucrose.

b)

an amino acid.

c)

O2.

d)

Na+.

74.

Which of the following statements describes a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane?

a)

It exhibits specificity for a particular type of molecule

b)

It requires the expenditure of cellular energy to function.

c)

It works against diffusion.

d)

It has not hydrophobic regions.

75.

In what way do the membranes of a eukaryotic cell vary?

a)

Phospholipids are found only in certain membranes

b)

Certain proteins are unique to each membrane

c)

Only certain membranes of the cell are selectively permeable

d)

Some membranes have hydrophobic surfaces exposed to the cytoplasm while others have hydrophilic surfaces facing the cytoplasm.

76.

According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, phospholipids___________________.

a)

can shift laterally along the plane of the membranee

b)

frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other

c)

occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane

d)

have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane

77.

Which of the following membrane activities requires energy from ATP?

a)

Facilitated diffusion of chloride ions through a chloride channel.

b)

Movement of Na+ ions from lower concentration in a mammalian cell to a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid.

c)

Movement of glucose molecules into a bacteria cell from a medium containing a higher concentration of glucose than inside the cell.

d)

Movement of carbon dioxide out of a paramecium.

78.

An animal cell lacking in carbohydrates on the external surface of its plasma membrane would likely be impaired in which function?

a)

transporting ions against an electrochemical gradient

b)

cell-cell recognition

c)

attaching the plasma membrane to the cytoskeleton

d)

establishing a diffusion barrier to charged molecules

79.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Eukaryotic cell?

a)

Animal

b)

Fungi

c)

Protist

d)

Archaea

80.

Eukaryotic cells possess an extensive endomembrane system. The extensive use of internal membranes gives eukaryotic cells certain useful advantages not seen in prokaryotic cells. Choose the example that correctly describes one of these advantages.

a)

Nucleic acids can freely mingle with cytoplasmic enzymes

b)

Lysosomes can maintain a much lower pH than surrounding cytoplasm

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum is prevented from forming vesicles

d)

Surface area available for chemical reactions is greatly decreased

81.

Cells tend to be small, with sizes ranging between 1 and 100 mm. These small sizes help to ensure that cells have a favorable surface-area-to-volume ratio. Choose the statement that explains why a favorable surface-area-to-volume ratio is advantageous.

a)

Higher surface-area-to-volume ratios improve the efficiency of transporting materials in and out of cells.

b)

Lower surface-area-to-volume ratios improve the efficiency of transporting materials in and our of cells.

c)

Higher surface-area-to-volume ratios speed up the flow of cytoplasm within cells.

d)

Higher surface-area-to-volume ratios slow down the flow of cytoplasm within cells.

82.

The Endosymbiotic Theory suggests that eukaryotic cells evolved when an ancient cell engulfed another, forming a permanent symbiotic relationship. Choose the evidence that best justifies this claim.

a)

Both mitochondria and chloroplasts perform energy functions

b)

Eukaryotic cells have many mitochondria

c)

Eukaryotic cells have traits in common with archaea

d)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain circular loops of unique DNA

83.
Which of the following is not a part of interphase?
a)
G2
b)
M
c)
G1
d)
S
84.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
85.
What is meant that DNA replication follows a “semi-conservative” model?
a)
After DNA replication, each strand contains one side that is a parental strand and the other side is a daughter strand.
b)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains only parental DNA while the other contains only daughter DNA.
c)
None of these identify the “semi-conservative” model.
d)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains a mixture of both parental DNA and daughter DNA dispersed throughout the strand.
86.
What is the function of telomeres on a DNA strand?
a)
They are used as a recognition site for DNA helicase to bond & begin "unzipping" the strand for replication.
b)
They bond the Okazaki fragments together forming a continuous replication of DNA on the lagging strand.
c)
When cell continually replicate, the DNA gets shorter so by adding telomeres to the ends of DNA, they extend the life of a cell.
d)
They help untangle the DNA strand prior to DNA helicase's arrival to unzip the DNA strand, readying it for replication.
87.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
88.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
89.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
90.
Which of the following phrases best describes cytokenesis
a)
division of the cytoplasm
b)
division of the nucleus
c)
division of DNA
d)
division of surface area
91.
The graph represents the amount of DNA in the nucleus of each cell during the cell cycle.
Which region represents the G2 phase?
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
IV
92.
How does the concentration of cyclin change as a cell goes through the cell cycle?
a)
Cyclin concentration remains constant.
b)
Cyclin concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cyclin concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cyclin concentration is inversely related to MPF concentrations.
93.
The normal function of a tumor suppressor gene is 
a)
to produce growth signals
b)
to code for proteins that inhibit, or slow, cell division
c)
to cause the cell to move faster through the cell cycle
d)
to attack cancer cells in the body
94.
Fuse with the plasma membrane
a)
Golgi Apparatus
b)
Lysosomes
c)
Secretory Vesicles
d)
Transport Vesicles
95.
In general, Eukaryota cells (including plant and animal cells) are ____ _____ than Prokaryotic cells. 
a)
obviously stronger
b)
less complex
c)
more complex
d)
obviously weaker
96.
What is the total magnification of a microscope with an eyepiece magnification of 10x and an objective lens magnification of 50x ?
a)
500x
b)
50x
c)
5x
d)
5000x
97.
What 4 structures are common between plant, animal, and bacterial cells?
a)
Golgi Apparatus, Chloroplasts, Ribosomes, Nucleus
b)
Cell Wall, Mitochondria, Cell Membrane, Cytoplasm
c)
Rough ER, Smooth ER, Nucleus, Ribosomes
d)
DNA, Cytoplasm, Ribosomes, Cell membrane
98.
Shuttles proteins and lipids to various locations such as the Golgi apparatus
a)
Secretory Vesicles
b)
Transport Vesicles
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Peroxisomes
99.

Plants use the following reactants for the light reaction

a)

Water and CO2

b)

Water and NADPH

c)

Water and NADP+

d)

NADPH and ATP

100.

Photosynthesis goal is to

a)

convert light energy into glucose energy

b)

use light energy to make oxygen gas

c)

convert sugar energy into ATP

d)

convert sugar energy into oxygen gas

101.

Rubisco is important in which step of photosynthesis

a)

energizing the electrons in chlorophyll

b)

carbon fixation when CO2 is connected to RUBP during calvin cycle

c)

regeneration phase as RUBP is made during calvin cycle

d)

reduction of the carbon chain during the calvin cycle

102.

Which of the following would have the least affect on photosynthetic rate?

a)

increase the temp from 20 C to 30 C

b)

increasing the CO2 from 400 ppm to 600ppm

c)

increasing the light intesity from 40 Watts to 60 Watts

d)

increasing the amount of O2 from 20% to 30% in the air

103.

Plants obtain CO2 into the chloroplast by

a)

active transport

b)

diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

endocytosis

104.

Photosystems are made of

a)

chloroplasts

b)

chromosomes

c)

chlorophyll

d)

cytoplasm

105.

What is FALSE about the calvin cycle

a)

uses the light reactions products

b)

produces a three carbon sugar (G3P)

c)

produces carbon dioxide

d)

produces NADP+

106.

What does a C4 plant do?

a)

stores CO2 in a separate cell from its photosynthetic cell during the day

b)

stores CO2 in a vacuole during the night.

c)

can't store CO2 so it sufferes photorespiration

d)

can't store CO2 so it speeds up cellular respiration in order to make more CO2

107.

Why does photorespiration occur?

a)

stomata are closed and CO2 levels are too low.

b)

stomata are closed and O2 levels are too low.

c)

stomata are open and too much water is leaving the plant

d)

stomata are open and the plant receives too much CO2

108.

Plants that store CO2 at night as an acid in a vacuole are called

a)

C3 plants

b)

C4 plants

c)

CAM plants

109.

Which plant LACKS CO2 storage method

a)

C3

b)

C4

c)

CAM

110.

What happens to the oxygen levels if a plant were left in the dark over night?

a)

go up due to photosynthesis

b)

go down due to cell respiration

c)

stay the same since stomata are closed

111.

Which plant would have the most oxygen produced in 1 hour?

a)

plant given red light only

b)

plant given blue light only

c)

plant given white light

d)

plant given green light only

112.

An increase in CO2 in the air would most likely

a)

increase photosynthesis

b)

increase cell respiration

c)

increase photorespiration

d)

increase transpiration

113.

The calvin cycle requires what substances from the light reaction?

a)

CO2 and Water

b)

light and CO2

c)

ATP and NADPH

d)

glucose and O2

114.

Why does the light reaction perform cyclic photophosphorylation? (where ATP is made with electrons that return to where they started)

a)

because the stomata are closed and CO2 levels are low

b)

because the Calvin cycle runs out of ATP

c)

because the Calvin cycle runs out of NADPH

d)

because there is no water to donate electrons to those that are leaving for the Calvin cycle

115.
Which process is the largest contributor to the release of CO
a)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
116.
Which of the following molecules is NOT a byproduct of cellular respiration? 
a)
CO2
b)
Heat
c)
H2O
d)
ATP
117.
Which molecule is not an important molecule regarding Cellular Respiration? 
a)
H2O
b)
NADH
c)
O2
d)
CO2
118.
Which process does not occur in aerobic conditions? 
a)
Fermentation
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs cycle 
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
119.
What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration? 
a)
Transport electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain 
b)
Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration
c)
Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration
d)
Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis
120.

How is cellular respiration related to photosynthesis?

a)

Both require oxygen to start

b)

It is the reverse reaction of photosynthesis

c)

Both start with glycolysis

d)

Both end with 38 ATP for cells

121.

Which of the following statements are false?

a)

Glycolysis does not require oxygen

b)

Glycolysis is the first step in both anaerobic and aerobic respiration

c)

Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria

d)

Glycolysis produces 2 ATP, 2 Pyruvates, and 2 NADH

122.
Glucose is broken down into pyruvate in a process known as 
a)
glycolysis
b)
electron transport
c)
the Krebs cycle
d)
phosphorylation
123.

What are the products of aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

ATP

b)

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

c)

Water

d)

All of the above

124.

The Electron Transport Chain (ETC) occurs across the ________ and so extra folds called ________ enable it to occur more often

a)

Mitochondrial matrix, villi

b)

Outer mitochondrial membrane, flagella

c)

Inner mitochondrial membrane, cristae

d)

Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum

125.

After strenuous exercise, a muscle cell would contain decreased amounts of ______ and increased amounts of ______ ____

a)

glucose; ATP

b)

ATP; glucose

c)

oxygen; lactic acid

d)

lactic acid; ATP

126.

What process is found in both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism?

a)

the Kreb's cycle

b)

oxidative phosphorylation

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

glycolysis

127.

The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is _______ and this allows _______________ to continue.

a)

oxygen, electron flow

b)

water, citric acid cycle

c)

carbon dioxide, aerobic respiration

d)

NAD+, chemiosmosis

128.
Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
129.

It is possible for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes to perform glycolysis because it occurs in the _____________

a)

mitochondrial matrix

b)

inner membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

130.

Anaerobic respiration yields about ______ ATP per glucose whereas aerobic respiration yields about _______ ATP per glucose.

a)

38, 2

b)

2, 38

c)

2, 18

d)

18, 2

131.

The electrons that transfer energy to pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane were supplied by

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

NADH and FADH2

c)

water and oxygen

132.
What correctly describes the DNA content in the G2 phase?
a)
normal amount
b)
double amount
c)
increasing
d)
decreasing
133.
Cells do not need growth factors to grow.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
134.
Cells are anchorage dependent.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
135.
Cell growth is not inhibited by contact with other cells.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
136.
What correctly describes the DNA content in the G1 phase?
a)
normal amount
b)
double amount
c)
increasing
d)
decreasing
137.
In which stage are cells more susceptible to mutations? 
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
138.
Which is a characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Chromosome structure
b)
Division of cytoplasm and cell membrane
c)
Nuclear membrane reformation
d)
Binary fission
139.
The cell is carrying out its typical functions, not engaged in preparing for cell division
a)
S-phase
b)
Gap 0
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Anaphase
140.
Failure of this stage prior to mitosis would result in daughter cells without sufficient DNA
a)
S-phase
b)
Gap 1
c)
cytokinesis
d)
anaphase
141.
Sister chromatids begin to separate
a)
S-phase
b)
Gap 1
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Anaphase
142.
The cell cycle is made up of 2 main stages: Interphase and Mitosis. What are the phases of Interphase?
a)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
b)
S1, G, S2
c)
G1, S, G2
d)
G1, GO, G2
143.

A researcher examining a root tip observes a plant cell with condensed sister chromatids, kinetochores with attached microtubules, and individual chromosomes that are aligned at the equatorial plate of the cell. Which of the following best describes what the next process will be in the cell?

a)

Homologous chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

b)

Paired chromatids will separate, and the new daughter chromosomes will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

c)

The nuclear envelope will break down, and the spindle will begin to form.

d)

The chromatin will decondense, and the daughter cell will enter interphase.

144.

In which stage of the cell cycle does the divison of the nucleus take place?

a)

G2

b)

S

c)

Mitosis

d)

Cytokinesis

145.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
146.

The amount of DNA in a cell is measured right after mitosis and found to be 8 picograms. How many picograms of DNA would be found in a nucleus in the G2 phase?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

24

147.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
148.
In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids line up on the equator of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
149.
In which phase of mitosis does the nucleus disappear, centrioles move to the poles, and chromosomes condense into sister chromatids?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
150.

What is the role of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

a)

It divides the cell in half.

b)

It duplicates the DNA.

c)

It breaks down the nuclear membrane.

d)

It helps separate the chromosomes.

151.

Which is not a phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Duplication

152.

How many rounds of division in meiosis?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

153.

How many rounds of DNA replication?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

154.

What phase does the crossing over take place?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

155.

Compare and contrast number of divisions between mitosis & meiosis

a)

Mitosis – 0, Meiosis – 1

b)

Mitosis – 1, Meiosis – 1

c)

Mitosis – 1, Meiosis – 2

d)

Mitosis – 1, Meiosis – 0

156.

Describe the daughter cells in meiosis vs parent cell

The daughter cells are…

a)

Identical & Diploid

b)

Unique & Diploid

c)

Identical & Haploid

d)

Unique & Haploid

157.

What goes through movements in Meiosis II?

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

Sister chromatids

158.
A scientist observes a base sequence of AGCTAGCTAGCT.  Which of the following would be the complimentary strand?
a)
TGCATGCATGCA
b)
TCGATCGATCGA
c)
TAGCTAGCTAGC
d)
TTAAGGCCTTCC