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Worksheets

Unit 2

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 4hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the dark blue color on the map of the United States indicate?

a)

Counties with lower population densities

b)

Bodies of water

c)

Counties with higher population densities

d)

State borders

2.

What is the range of the highest category for the Coronary Artery Disease Death Rate per 100,000 People according to the map?

a)

90.2 - 104.6

b)

124.2 - 331.3

c)

104.7 - 124.1

d)

76.5 - 90.1

3.

Which range represents the lowest category for Median Household Income on the map?

a)

$25,000 - $42,000

b)

$42,000 - $53,000

c)

$53,000 - $61,000

d)

$61,000 - $140,000

4.

According to the legend, how many counties have insufficient data for the Coronary Artery Disease Death Rate?

a)

7

b)

643

c)

647

d)

64

5.

How many counties have a Median Household Income in the range of $61,000 - $140,000 based on the map?

a)

600

b)

645

c)

663

d)

669

6.

What is usually listed first on a nutrition label?

a)

calories

b)

serving size

c)

nutrients

7.

Which of the following nutrients should you try and limit?

a)

sodium

b)

fiber

c)

calcium

8.

How many grams of carbohydrates are listed on this food label?

a)

55

b)

14

c)

17

9.

Is this a healthy food?

a)

yes

b)

no

10.

If I were to eat 1/2 cup of this food, how much cholesterol would I consume?

a)

200g

b)

55mg

c)

6%

11.

If I ate 21 pieces of this food, how many calories from fat would I receive?

a)

90

b)

150

c)

10

12.

How many grams of sugar are in one can of Mountain Dew?

a)

46

b)

60

c)

18

13.

How many calories from fat are in this Hershey Chocolate bar?

a)

40

b)

12

c)

110

14.

What is the serving size of Nature Valley Granola Bars?

a)

1 bar

b)

2 bars

c)

6 bars

15.

Which of the following is considered a "good" fat?

a)

saturated fat

b)

unsaturated fat

c)

trans fat

16.

We should try to eat foods with high amounts of cholesterol and sodium.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What does %DV stand for?

a)

percent of dietary value

b)

percent of daily value

c)

percent of dairy value

18.

Which nutrient would you want 20%DV or higher?

a)

sugar

b)

fat

c)

fiber

19.

Which nutrient would you want 5%DV or less?

a)

protein

b)

sodium

c)

vitamin C

20.

According to this nutrition label, which nutrient does a banana give you the higest %DV?

a)

Calcium

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Vitamin C

21.

How many calories are in one cup of strawberries?

a)

11

b)

0

c)

46

22.

What is the main ingredient in Fruit Gushers?

a)

sugar

b)

grape juice

c)

strawberries

23.

Based on this food label, how many chips are in one serving of this bag of potato chips?

a)

6

b)

17

c)

120

24.
What is the job of LDL?
a)
Take cholesterol to the liver
b)
Take cholesterol to the cells
c)
Take cholesterol to the pancreas
d)
Take cholesterol to the blood
25.
What is a lipoprotein?
a)
a fat that carries protein in the blood
b)
a protein that carries cholesterol in the blood
c)
a cell that carries blood to the liver
d)
a cell that transforms cholesterol into protein
26.
What is the job of LDL?
a)
Take cholesterol to the liver
b)
Take cholesterol to the cells
c)
Take cholesterol to the pancreas
d)
Take cholesterol to the blood
27.
What is the job of HDL?
a)
Take cholesterol to the liver
b)
Take cholesterol to the cells
c)
Take cholesterol to the pancreas
d)
Take cholesterol to the blood
28.
What is a lipoprotein?
a)
a fat that carries protein in the blood
b)
a protein that carries cholesterol in the blood
c)
a cell that carries blood to the liver
d)
a cell that transforms cholesterol into protein
29.
Which lipoprotein is larger?
a)
LDL
b)
HDL
30.
Which lipoprotein decreases your chances of heart disease?
a)
HDL
b)
LDL
c)
PDL
d)
BDL
31.
Total cholesterol should be under _____ mg/dL
a)
100
b)
150
c)
200
d)
250
32.
LDL cholesterol levels should be under ____ mg/dL.
a)
50
b)
100
c)
150
d)
200
33.
HDL cholesterol levels should be over ___ mg/dL.
a)
30
b)
40
c)
50
d)
60
34.
What is familial hypercholesterolemia?
a)
genetic disorder that affects the LDL receptor
b)
genetic disorder that affects the HDL receptor
c)
someone with poor diet and exercise can become positive for FH
35.
What is the genotype for someone who is homozygous for familial hypercholesterolemia?
a)
ff
b)
Ff
c)
FF
36.
What process is used to analyze the DNA? (what we did in lab)
a)
Centrifuge
b)
Transcription
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
Protein synthesis
37.
DNA has an overall charge of __________.
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
38.
Can someone be a carrier of the FH gene? Why or why not?
a)
Yes, because it is recessive
b)
Yes, because it is dominant
c)
No, because it is recessive
d)
No, because it is dominant
39.
What is the name of the “bands” we visually see and analyze in gel electrophoresis?
a)
Restriction Enzymes
b)
Double Helix
c)
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
d)
Gel
40.
Draw a Punnett Square of a heterozygous male & heterozygous female with FH. What is the % chance of a child without FH?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
41.
What is atherosclerosis?
a)
Plaque build up in the inner walls of arteries
b)
Plaque build up in the heart chambers
c)
Quivering contraction of the ventricles
d)
Quivering contraction of the atria
42.
What is angioplasty?
a)
Use of a balloon & stent to move plaque and reinforce the wall
b)
Use of a balloon to move plaque to clear pathway
c)
Use of new vessel to go around the blocked section of blood flow
43.
What is coronary artery bypass graft?
a)
Use of a balloon & stent to move plaque and reinforce the wall
b)
Use of a balloon to move plaque to clear pathway
c)
Use of new vessel to go around the blocked section of blood flow
44.
What is a function of the coronary arteries?
a)
Supply blood to the lungs
b)
Supply blood to the brain
c)
Supply blood to the heart
d)
Supply blood to the Aorta
45.
What is the medical term for heart attack?
a)
Myocardial infarction
b)
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c)
Commotio cordis
d)
Myocardial difibrilation
46.
How do statins work to lower cholesterol?
a)
inhibit an enzyme in the liver from producing cholesterol
b)
inhibit the receptor  for HDL on cells
c)
inhibit the receptor for LDL on cells
47.

What is the meaning of coronary heart disease (CHD)?

a)

A disease of the damage septum in heart

b)

A disease when you eat a lot of unhealthy food

c)

A disease when your coronary arteries become narrower because the plaque buildup

d)

A disease when you become lazy to do exercise

48.

The heart is made up from

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Nervous tissue

c)

Connective tissue

d)

Muscle tissue

49.

What happens when the blood could not supply to the heart as there is a blockage in the coronary arteries?

(You can choose multiple answers)

a)

The muscle cell at the heart will die

b)

The person will probably get a stroke

c)

Can cause a heart attack

d)

The person does not feel anything

50.

These are the risk factors for coronary heart disease EXCEPT

a)
b)
c)
d)
51.

Which blood vessel carries blood from the heart to the kidneys?


Only one answer is correct.

a)

pulmonary artery

b)

pulmonary vein

c)

renal artery

d)

renal vein

52.

If fatty deposits form inside the coronary artery, the blood flow to the cardiac muscle

a)

increases

b)

decreases

53.

Electric instruments that doctors place inside a person's chest to control the heartbeat.

a)

heart attack

b)

Pacemaker

c)

stroke

d)

angioplasty

54.

When the coronary _____ are blocked, blood does not flow as well and coronary artery disease begins to develop.

a)

arteries

b)

arteriosclerosis

c)

symptoms

d)

blood pressure

55.

A blockage in a coronary artery can cause a person to suffer a ______________________

a)

heart attack

b)

heart beat

c)

heart stopper

56.

What is the meaning of coronary heart disease (CHD)?

a)

A disease of the damage septum in heart

b)

A disease when you eat a lot of unhealthy food

c)

A disease when your coronary arteries become narrower because the plaque buildup

d)

A disease when you become lazy to do exercise

57.

Bicuspid valve and tricuspid valves are closed during

a)

Ventricular systole

b)

Ventricular diastole

c)

Atrial systole

d)

Late joint diastole

58.

State the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrial systole, ventricular systole

b)

Atrial diastole, ventricular systole

c)

Atrial systole, ventricular diastole

d)

Atrial diastole, ventricular diastole

59.

State the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrial systole, ventricular systole

b)

Atrial diastole, ventricular systole

c)

Atrial systole, ventricular diastole

d)

Atrial diastole, ventricular diastole

60.

State the phase of cardiac cycle shown in the diagram.

a)

Atrial systole, ventricular systole

b)

Atrial diastole, ventricular systole

c)

Atrial systole, ventricular diastole

d)

Atrial diastole, ventricular diastole

61.

Which of the following nitrogen bases is NOT found in RNA?

a)

adenine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

cytosine

62.

RNA is different from DNA because RNA:

a)

is single-stranded

b)

contains the sugar deoxyribose

c)

is a double helix

d)

contains the nitrogen base thymine

63.

The enzyme that separates DNA by breaking the hydrogen bonds that link the nitrogen bases is:

a)

amylase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

RNA helicase

64.

DNA is important because:

a)

it contains the hereditary information for an organism.

b)

it contains the instructions for making proteins.

c)

All of the these

d)

None of the these

65.

The three-nucleotide sequence on mRNA that specifies an amino acid or "start" or "stop" signal is called:

a)

a codon

b)

an anticodon

c)

a protein

d)

a nitrogen base

66.

This type of RNA carries the instructions for making a protein from a gene to the site of translation:

a)

uRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

67.

A three-nucleotide sequence on a tRNA that recognizes a complementary sequence on mRNA is called:

a)

a codon

b)

an anticodon

c)

a protein

d)

a nitrogen base

68.

The process of transferring genetic information from a gene in DNA to mRNA is called:

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

anagrams

d)

transcription

69.

The process of putting together the amino acids that make up a protein is called:

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

anagrams

d)

transcription

70.

The function of mRNA is to:

a)

synthesis DNA

b)

carry information from genes to ribosomes

c)

form ribosomes

d)

transfer amino acids to ribosomes

71.

RNA is to U as DNA is to:

a)

C

b)

G

c)

T

d)

A

72.

What would be the mRNA sequence representing the following DNA gene? GAG-TTC-ACG-AAG

a)

GAG-UUC-ACG-AAG

b)

CUC-AAG-UGC-UUC

c)

AGA-CCT-GTA-GGA

d)

CTC-AAG-TGC-TTC

73.

What would be the tRNA anticodons matching the mRNA codons: CUC-AAG-UGC-UUC

a)

AGA-CCT-GTA-GGA

b)

UAU-UUC-GAG-ACG

c)

CCC-GGG-AAA-UUU

d)

GAG-UUC-ACG-AAG

74.

Use your codon chart to determine the sequence of amino acids for the following mRNA sequence: AGA-GGU-GUA-CCA

a)

Serine-Tyrosine-Arginine-Glycine

b)

Leucine-Aspartic Acid-Proline-Histidine

c)

Arginine-Glycine-Valine-Proline

d)

Valine-Serine-Threonine-Lysine

75.

An RNA molecule is typically ______; a DNA molecule is typically ______ .

a)

single-stranded; double-stranded

b)

double-stranded; single-stranded

c)

both are single-stranded

d)

both are double-stranded

76.

RNA's form by ______; proteins form by ______ .

a)

replication; translation

b)

translation; transcription

c)

transcription; translation

d)

replication; transcription

77.

The main function of a DNA molecule is to:

a)

store hereditary information

b)

carry RNA's message for translation

c)

form peptide bonds between amino acids

d)

carry amino acids to ribosomes

78.

Most codons specify a(n):

a)

amino acid

b)

protein

c)

polypeptide

d)

mRNA

79.

Anticodons pair with:

a)

mRNA codons

b)

DNA codons

c)

RNA anticodons

d)

amino acids

80.

Where does transcription take place in a typical eukaryotic cell?

a)

ribosomes

b)

the nucleus

c)

cytoplasm

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

81.

Where does translation take place in a typical eukaryotic cell?

a)

the nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosomes

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

82.

A permanent change in a DNA's sequence is called a(n):

a)

deficiency

b)

mutation

c)

convergence

d)

polysome

83.

A mutation in which one base pair is replaced by a different base pair is called:

a)

point mutation

b)

deletion

c)

insertion

d)

none of these

84.

A mutation that involves the addition of one or more extra nucleotides is called a(n):

a)

point mutation

b)

deletion

c)

insertion

d)

none of these

85.

Sickle-cell anemia, a type of anemia that is most common in people of African ancestry, is caused by a(n):

a)

point mutation

b)

deletion

c)

insertion

d)

none of these

86.

The sequence of t-RNA nucleotides is determined by

a)

deoxyribose

b)

cytoplasmic genes

c)

enzymes

d)

DNA of the nucleus

87.

Any change in the nucleotide sequence of the DNA of a gene is called

a)

codon

b)

anticodon

c)

translation

d)

mutation

88.

The building blocks that make up DNA and RNA are called

a)

nucleotides

b)

amino acids

c)

hydrocarbons

d)

monosaccharides

89.

Which of the following sequences best describes the flow of information that takes place when a gene directs the synthesis of a protein?

a)

protein --> RNA --> DNA

b)

DNA --> mRNA --> tRNA --> protein

c)

DNA --> amino acid --> RNA --> protein

d)

DNA --> tRNA --> mRNA --> protein

90.

A mRNA strand consists of 123 bases. Including the stop codon, how many amino acids would this code for?

a)

369

b)

41

c)

40

d)

246

91.

Select the correct complementary sequence of DNA for

TAC ACG TTA AGC ACT .

a)

ATG TGC AAT TCG TGA

b)

TGC AAT TCG ACG UGA

c)

UGC AAT UCG TGA

d)

AUG TGC AAT UCG UGA

92.

The diagram shows the DNA fingerprints from a blood sample and four different hair samples.

Based on the DNA fingerprints, which hair sample came from the same organism as the blood sample?

a)

Hair Sample 1

b)

Hair Sample 2

c)

Hair Sample 3

d)

Hair Sample 4

93.

Which description explains the role of the tRNA in the process shown in this model?

a)

The model delivers amino acids to the ribosome so that they can be added to the developing peptide.

b)

The model recognizes the stop codon of a developing peptide so that no new amino acids are added.

c)

The model signals the release of the peptide from the ribosome once all of the amino acids have been added.

d)

The model scans the developing peptide to make sure that the sequence of the amino acids matches the mRNA.

94.

The pentagon-shaped (5 sided) parts represent...

a)

nitrogen base

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Ribose

d)

phosphate

95.

What is the correct sequence of amino acids?

AUG UAC AGU UAG

a)

Met, Tyr, Ser, Stop

b)

Tyr, Ser, Stop Met

c)

Met, Iso, Glu, Stop

d)

Stop, Met, Iso, Tyr

96.

Which of these chromosomal mutation diagrams shows a deletion mutation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

97.

The building blocks of proteins are ...

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleotides

c)

hydrocarbons

d)

monosaccharides

98.

What enzyme unzips and unwinds the DNA molecule?

a)

Helicase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

99.

What sugar is found in RNA?

a)

Ribose

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Maltose

d)

Glucose

100.

A codon is a triplet code found on

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

DNA

d)

rRNA

101.

The anticodon is a triplet code found on

a)

DNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

mRNA

102.

Replication occurs during the __ phase of the cell cycle.

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Cytokineses

103.

Why must Replication occur?

a)

in order for our new cells to function

b)

to produce zygotes

c)

for chromosomes to split

d)

for the death of the cell

104.

What is the shape of DNA?

a)

Double helix

b)

single strand

c)

hexagon

d)

5 sided

105.

What is the end product of Replication?

a)

two new strands of new DNA.

b)

single strand of DNA

c)

for strands of DNA

d)

two strands of DNA each with 1 parent strand and new strand.

106.

Mutations can be negative because

a)

They can cause cancer

b)

They can cause birth defects

c)

They can help an organism thrive in its environment.

d)

They can affect offspring.

107.

Mutations can benefit humans because they can:

a)

Cause illness

b)

Make an organism more suited to live in its environment.

c)

Make organisms live shorter lives

d)

Cause organisms to grow extra limbs.

108.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

109.
What causes mutations?
a)
Mistakes in replication or environmental substances
b)
The amino acids
c)
Passed down by genetics
d)
It's how your born
110.

A mutation can occur if a base pair is ____________, deleted or substituted for another.

a)

modified

b)

added

c)

transferred

111.

Another name for a point mutation is:

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

112.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion

b)

Point mutation

c)

Deletion

d)

Substitution

113.

Mutations are random.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Mutations are SOMETIMES helpful to the organism.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Mutations create genetic diversity?

a)

True

b)

False

116.

This type of mutation involves inserting a piece of DNA where it does not belong. Known as a frameshift mutation.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

117.

This type of mutation involves removing a piece of DNA where it belongs.

Known as a frameshift mutation.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Insertion Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

118.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE BAT WAS FUN

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

119.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE CAT AWA SFU N...

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

120.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE CAT WIS FUN

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Muation

c)

Insertion Mutation

121.

In the documentary "Life According to Sam," what was the disease Sam suffered from called?

a)

Autism

b)

Malaysia

c)

Benjamin Button

d)

Progeria

122.

In the documentary "Life According to Sam," what was unique about the clinical trials?

a)

They didn't offer a placebo due to it being such a rare disease

b)

They had 0 research about progeria until Sam's parents began conducting clinical trials

c)

Both of these are unique to the situation

d)

None of these are unique to the situation

123.

Which organelle is DNA usually found in?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

124.

What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Amino Acids

125.

The survival of a species depends on its ability to adapt to changes in the environment. Which statement correctly describes a way that mutations increase the likelihood that a species will survive in a changing environment?

a)

Mutations are a source of variation in the species

b)

Mutations are the cause of disease in the species

c)

Mutations are not harmful when they occur in somatic cells

d)

Mutations are always passed on to subsequent generations

126.

Which of the following best represents a Genotype?

a)

Aa

b)

aA

c)

Ab

127.

What does the term homozygous mean?

a)

The same allele variation is present.

b)

Different allele variations are present.

128.

Which of the following is Homozygous dominant?

a)

aa

b)

Aa

c)

AA

129.

Which of the following is Homozygous recessive?

a)

Aa

b)

aa

c)

AA

130.

Which of the following best represents describes heterozygous?

a)

Same allele variation present.

b)

Different allele variation present.

131.

Which of the following represents a Heterozygous genotype?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

132.

What kind of Genotype is this: BB

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Homozygous recessive

c)

Heterozygous

133.

What kind of genotype is this: gg

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Homozygous recessive

c)

Heterozygous

134.

What kind of genotype is this: Hh

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Homozygous recessive

c)

Heterozygous

135.
------is the combination of two alleles that are different from one another.
a)
homozygous
b)
heterzygous
c)
phenotype
d)
trait
136.
---- Is the combination of two alleles that are the same
a)
genotype
b)
homozygous
c)
phenotype
d)
trait
137.
----is the type of gene that always shows itself when present
a)
genotype
b)
homozygous
c)
phenotype
d)
dominant
138.
The physical appearance of the allele combination the offspring receives
a)
genotype
b)
homozygous
c)
phenotype
d)
dominant
139.
Black fur (B) is dominant. Find the probability of a black offspring in a cross: bb x bb. 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
140.
Look at the Punnett Square. What's the probability of having the recessive offspring?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
141.
What are the parents' genotypes?
a)
Homozygous for brown eyes
b)
Heterozygous for brown eyes
c)
Homozygous for blue eyes
d)
Heterozygous for blue eyes
142.
A type of gene that can be hidden is called
a)
genotype
b)
recessive
c)
dominant
d)
allele
143.
A section of the DNA strand that determines a specific trait
a)
gene
b)
trait
c)
chromosome
d)
allele
144.
Tallness is dominant in pea plants and is represented by "T." What would the genotype be for a homozygous tall plant?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
Tall 
145.
If red flowers (R) are dominant over white, what is the probability that the offspring will be red? 
a)
1 out of 4
b)
2 out of 4
c)
3 out of 4
d)
4 out of 4
146.
What is NOT a possible offspring genotype? 
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
147.

The device used to predict genetic outcomes.

a)

Geneticist

b)

Fate

c)

Punnett Square

d)

Pedigree

148.

How many "offspring" are predicted with each Punnett Square?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

149.

What is the missing genotype?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

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